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  • SimpleXML not pulling correct link

    - by kylex
    My code does not pull the proper link for the item. Instead it's getting the previous item's link. Any suggestions? Thanks! <?php // Load the XML data from the specified file name. // The second argument (NULL) allows us to specify additional libxml parameters, // we don't need this so we'll leave it as NULL. The third argument however is // important as it informs simplexml to handle the first parameter as a file name // rather than a XML formatted string. $pFile = new SimpleXMLElement("http://example.blogspot.com/feeds/posts/default?alt=rss", null, true); // Now that we've loaded our XML file we can begin to parse it. // We know that a channel element should be available within the, // document so we begin by looping through each channel foreach ($pFile->channel as $pChild) { // Now we want to loop through the items inside this channel { foreach ($pFile->channel->item as $pItem) { // If this item has child nodes as it should, // loop through them and print out the data foreach ($pItem->children() as $pChild) { // We can check the name of this node using the getName() method. // We can then use this information, to, for example, embolden // the title or format a link switch ($pChild->getName()) { case 'pubDate': $date = date('l, F d, Y', strtotime($pChild)); echo "<p class=\"blog_time\">$date</p>"; break; case 'link': $link = $pChild; break; case 'title': echo "<p class=\"blog_title\"><a href=\"$link\">$pChild</a></p>"; break; case 'description': // echo substr(strip_tags($pChild), 0 , 270) . "..."; break; case 'author': echo ""; break; case 'category': echo ""; break; case 'guid': echo ""; break; default: // echo strip_tags($pChild) . "<br />\n"; break; } } } } } ?>

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  • org.hibernate.TransientObjectException during Criteria.list()

    - by rancidfishbreath
    I have seen posts all over the internet that talk about how to fix the TransientObjectExceptions during save/update/delete but I am having this problem when calling list on my Criteria. I have two objects A and B. A has a field named b which is of type B. In my mapping b is mapped as a many-to-one. This all runs in a larger persistence framework (the framework is kind of like Core Data) and so I don't use any cascades in my hibernate mappings since cascades are handled at a higher level. This is the interesting code surrounding my criteria: A a = new A(); B b = new B(); a.setB(b); session.save("B", b); // Actually handled by the higher level session.save("A", a); // framework, this is just for clarity // transaction committed and session closed ... // new session opened Criteria criteria = session.createCriteria(A.class); criteria.add(Restrictions.eq("b", b)); List<?> objects = criteria.list(); Basically I am looking for all objects of type A such that A.b equals a particular instance of b (I actually tried restructuring a query so that I was passing in the id of b just to make sure that b wasn't causing me problems). Here is the stack trace that occurs when I call criteria.list(): org.hibernate.TransientObjectException: object references an unsaved transient instance - save the transient instance before flushing: B at org.hibernate.engine.ForeignKeys.getEntityIdentifierIfNotUnsaved(ForeignKeys.java:244) at org.hibernate.type.EntityType.getIdentifier(EntityType.java:449) at org.hibernate.type.ManyToOneType.nullSafeSet(ManyToOneType.java:141) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.bindPositionalParameters(Loader.java:1769) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.bindParameterValues(Loader.java:1740) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.prepareQueryStatement(Loader.java:1612) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQuery(Loader.java:717) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQueryAndInitializeNonLazyCollections(Loader.java:270) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2294) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.listIgnoreQueryCache(Loader.java:2172) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.list(Loader.java:2167) at org.hibernate.loader.criteria.CriteriaLoader.list(CriteriaLoader.java:119) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.list(SessionImpl.java:1706) at org.hibernate.impl.CriteriaImpl.list(CriteriaImpl.java:347) Here is my mapping: <class entity-name="A" lazy="false"> <tuplizer entity-mode="dynamic-map" class="MyTuplizer" /> <id type="long" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="b" entity-name="B" column="b_id" lazy="false" /> </class> <class entity-name="B" lazy="false"> <tuplizer entity-mode="dynamic-map" class="MyTuplizer" /> <id type="long" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> </class> Can anyone help me figure out why I would be getting a TransientObjectException during a fetch? Preferably I would like to find a solution that does not rely on cascades since they tend to mask problems that occur in the higher level framework.

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  • How to efficiently save changes made in UI/main thread with Core Data?

    - by Jaanus
    So, there have been several posts here about importing and saving data from an external data source into Core Data. Apple documents a reasonable pattern for this: "import and save on background thread, merge saved objects to main thread." All fine and good. I have a related but different problem: the user is modifying data in the UI and main thread, and thus modifies state of some objects in the managed object context (MOC). I would like to save these changes from time to time. What is a good way to do that? Now, you could say that I could do the same: create a background thread with its own MOC and pass the changed objectID-s there. The catch-22 for me with this is that an object's ID changes when it is saved, and I cannot guarantee the order of things happening. I may end up passing a different objectID into the background thread for the same object, based on whether the object has been previously saved or not, and I don't know if Core Data can resolve this and see that different objectID-s are pointing to the same object and not create duplicates for me. (I could test this, but I'm lazywebbing with this question first.) One thought I had: I could always do MOC saves on a background thread, and queue them up with operationqueue, so that there is always only one save in progress. I would not create a new MOC, I would just use the same MOC as in main thread. Now, this is not thread safe and when someone modifies the MOC in main thread while it is being saved in background thread, the results will probably be catastrophic. But, minus the thread safety, you can see what kind of solution I'd wish for. To be clear, the problem I need to fix is that if I just do the save in main thread, it blocks the UI for an unacceptably long period of time, I want to move the save to background thread. So, questions: what about the reasoning of an object ID changing during saving, and Core Data being able to resolve them to the same object? Would this be the right way of addressing this problem? any other good ways of doing this?

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  • Problem getting ar_mailer/ar_sendmail working on new server

    - by Max Williams
    Hey all. I've got a new app up and running on a new ubuntu server. It's working fine generally but i can't get ar_sendmail working. I'm following the instructions on this page: http://www.ameravant.com/posts/sending-tons-of-emails-in-ruby-on-rails-with-ar_mailer The setup is all done, ie i can "deliver mails" which just saves records in my Email table. Now i want to get the ar_sendmail daemon running to actually send them. (so i'm at 'Running ar_sendmail in daemon mode' in that web page). First thing: ar_sendmail --mailq >>ar_sendmail: command not found Ok...so, where is ar_sendmail? I have a look and there's an ar_sendmail file in the bin folder of the ar_mailer plugin, so i add the location of that to my path. I don't know if this was the right thing to do or not. Ok, so try again. ar_sendmail --mailq /var/www/apps/millionaire/vendor/plugins/ar_mailer/bin/ar_sendmail:3:in `require': no such file to load -- action_mailer/ar_sendmail (LoadError) from /var/www/apps/millionaire/vendor/plugins/ar_mailer/bin/ar_sendmail:3 hmm. Here's the offending file, there's not much there. #!/usr/bin/env ruby require 'action_mailer/ar_sendmail' ActionMailer::ARSendmail.run ok...so it literally is just trying to require this and can't find it. The file, action_mailer/ar_sendmail.rb is in the ar_mailer plugin, in it's lib folder. So, given that it's being called from inside the plugin, it should be able to see this right? I've got a feeling that i'm way off the track here and have missed something simple. Can anyone set me straight? I'm using rails 2.3.4 in case that's relevant. EDIT - i just realised something kind of dumb: when i call ar_sendmail from the command line like this, i'm just loading that one file, which doesn't know where it's supposed to look for the rest of the stuff, i think. Which really makes me think that i'm not trying to run the right thing. Is the ar_sendmail daemon a seperate program altogether, that i would get with apt_get or something? EDIT2 - i made some progress by installing the ar_mailer gem (which the guide said i shouldn't do) and that does seem to run. It's sending some mail request somewhere and clearing the Email table of pending emails. Running ar_sendmail in -ov (oneshot verbal) mode i see it report this for example: sent email 00000000019 from [email protected] to [email protected]: # So, it actually looks like it's working now and i just need to set up the ACTUAL THING WHICH SENDS EMAILS. sigh. still grateful for any advice. thanks, max

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  • weird behavior with acts_as_taggable_on

    - by macek
    For some reason, tags aren't showing up on a taggable object when an tagger is specified. testing the post class Post < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_taggable_on :tags belongs_to :user end >> p = Post.first => #<Post id: 1, ...> >> p.is_taggable? => true >> p.tag_list = "foo, bar" => "foo, bar" >> p.save => true >> p.tags => [#<Tag id: 1, name: "foo">, #<Tag id: 2, name: "bar">] testing the user class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_tagger has_many :posts end >> u = User.first => #<User id: 1, ...> >> u.is_tagger? => true >> u.tag(p, :with => "hello, world", :on => :tags) => true >> u.owned_tags => [#<Tag id: 3, name: "hello">, #<Tag id: 4, name: "world">] refresh the post >> p = Post.first => #<Post id: 1 ...> >> p.tags => [#<Tag id: 2, name: "bar">, #<Tag id: 1, name: "foo">] Where's the hello and world tags? Miraculously, if I modify the database directly to set tagger_id and tagger_type to NULL, the two missing tags will show up. I suspect there's something wrong with my User model? What gives?

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  • Can't use attached property on combobox inside hierarchical datatemplate WPF

    - by jesse_t_r
    I'm hoping to use an attached property to assign a command to the selection changed event of a combobox that is embedded inside a treeview. I'm attempting to set the attached property inside the hierchical data template for the tree but the command is not set and does not fire when the item in the combobox is changed. I've found that setting the attached property directly on a combobox outside of a datatemplate works fine; here is how I'm trying to set the property in the template: <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="template1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ChildColumns}"> <Border Background="{StaticResource TreeItem_Background}" BorderBrush="Blue" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" Margin="2,5,5,2" HorizontalAlignment="Left" > <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions > <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock MinWidth="80" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Grid.Column="0" Margin="5,2,2,2" Grid.Row ="0" Text="{Binding Path=ColName}"/> <ComboBox Name="cboColType" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource dataFromEnum}}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=ColumnType}" Margin="2,2,2,2" local:ItemSelectedBehavior.ItemSelected="{Binding Path=LoadConfigCommand}" /> </Grid> </Border> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> I also tried creating a style <Style x:Key="childItemStyle" TargetType="{x:Type FrameworkElement}"> <Setter Property="local:ItemSelectedBehavior.ItemSelected" Value="{Binding Path=LoadConfigCommand}" /> </Style> and setting the itemcontainerstyle to the style in the hierarchical datatemplate..still no luck .. <HierarchicalDataTemplate> ... <ComboBox Name="cboColType" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource dataFromEnum}}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=ColumnType}" Margin="2,2,2,2" ItemContainerStyle={StaticeResource childItemStyle}" /> ... </HierarchicalDataTemplate> I'm still learning a lot about WPF so I'm assuming there is something particular about the hierchical datatemplate that is not allowing the attache dproperty to be set..I have found similar posts in the forums and tried to implement their solutions as above, but after a day of searching and experimenting wiht no luck I'm hoping some one has an idea about this...

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  • Vietnamese character in .NET Console Application (UTF-8)

    - by DucDigital
    Im trying to write down an UTF8 string (Vietnamese) into C# Console but no success. Im running on windows 7. I tried to use the Encoding class that convert string to char[] to byte[] and then to String, but no help, the string is input directly fron the database. Here is some example Tôi tên là Ð?c, cu?c s?ng th?t vui v? tuy?t v?i It does not show the special character like : Ð or ?... instead it show up ?, much worse with the Encoding class. Does anyone can try this out or know about this problem? Thank you My code static void Main(string[] args) { XDataContext _new = new XDataContext(); Console.OutputEncoding = Encoding.GetEncoding("UTF-8"); string srcString = _new.Posts.First().TITLE; Console.WriteLine(srcString); // Convert the UTF-16 encoded source string to UTF-8 and ASCII. byte[] utf8String = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(srcString); byte[] asciiString = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(srcString); // Write the UTF-8 and ASCII encoded byte arrays. Console.WriteLine("UTF-8 Bytes: {0}", BitConverter.ToString(utf8String)); Console.WriteLine("ASCII Bytes: {0}", BitConverter.ToString(asciiString)); // Convert UTF-8 and ASCII encoded bytes back to UTF-16 encoded // string and write. Console.WriteLine("UTF-8 Text : {0}", Encoding.UTF8.GetString(utf8String)); Console.WriteLine("ASCII Text : {0}", Encoding.ASCII.GetString(asciiString)); Console.WriteLine(Encoding.UTF8.GetString(utf8String)); Console.WriteLine(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(asciiString)); } and here is the outstanding output Nhà báo Ä‘i há»™i báo Xuân UTF-8 Bytes: 4E-68-C3-A0-20-62-C3-A1-6F-20-C4-91-69-20-68-E1-BB-99-69-20-62-C3- A1-6F-20-58-75-C3-A2-6E ASCII Bytes: 4E-68-3F-20-62-3F-6F-20-3F-69-20-68-3F-69-20-62-3F-6F-20-58-75-3F- 6E UTF-8 Text : Nhà báo Ä‘i há»™i báo Xuân ASCII Text : Nh? b?o ?i h?i b?o Xu?n Nhà báo Ä‘i há»™i báo Xuân Nh? b?o ?i h?i b?o Xu?n Press any key to continue . . .

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  • Having trouble getting MEF imports to be resolved

    - by Dave
    This is sort of a continuation of one of my earlier posts, which involves the resolving of modules in my WPF application. This question is specifically related to the effect of interdependencies of modules and the method of constructing those modules (i.e. via MEF or through new) on MEF's ability to resolve relationships. First of all, here is a simple UML diagram of my test application: I have tried two approaches: left approach: the App implements IError right approach: the App has a member that implements IError Left approach My code behind looked like this (just the MEF-related stuff): // app.cs [Export(typeof(IError))] public partial class Window1 : Window, IError { [Import] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.IPlugin Plugin { get; set; } [Export] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.ICandySettings Settings { get; set; } private ICandySettings Settings; public Window1() { // I create the preferences here with new, instead of using MEF. I wonder // if that's my whole problem? If I use MEF, and want to have parameters // going to the constructor, then do I have to [Export] a POCO (i.e. string)? Settings = new CandySettings( "Settings", @"c:\settings.xml"); var catalog = new DirectoryCatalog( "."); var container = new CompositionContainer( catalog); try { container.ComposeParts( this); } catch( CompositionException ex) { foreach( CompositionError e in ex.Errors) { string description = e.Description; string details = e.Exception.Message; } throw; } } } // plugin.cs [Export(typeof(IPlugin))] public class Plugin : IPlugin { [Import] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.ICandySettings CandySettings { get; set; } [Import] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.IError ErrorInterface { get; set; } [ImportingConstructor] public Plugin( ICandySettings candy_settings, IError error_interface) { CandySettings = candy_settings; ErrorInterface = error_interface; } } // candysettings.cs [Export(typeof(ICandySettings))] public class CandySettings : ICandySettings { ... } Right-side approach Basically the same as the left-side approach, except that I created a class that inherits from IError in the same assembly as Window1. I then used an [Import] to try to get MEF to resolve that for me. Can anyone explain how the two ways I have approached MEF here are flawed? I have been in the dark for so long that instead of reading about MEF and trying different suggestions, I've added MEF to my solution and am stepping into the code. The part where it looks like it fails is when it calls partManager.GetSavedImport(). For some reason, the importCache is null, which I don't understand. All the way up to this point, it's been looking at the part (Window1) and trying to resolve two imported interfaces -- IError and IPlugin. I would have expected it to enter code that looks at other assemblies in the same executable folder, and then check it for exports so that it knows how to resolve the imports...

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  • How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Jiho Han
    I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

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  • Linked List Design

    - by Jim Scott
    The other day in a local .NET group I attend the following question came up: "Is it a valid interview question to ask about Linked Lists when hiring someone for a .NET development position?" Not having a computer sciense degree and being a self taught developer my response was that I did not feel it was appropriate as I in 5 years of developer with .NET had never been exposed to linked lists and did not hear any compeling reason for a use for one. However the person commented that it is a very common interview question so I decided when I left that I would do some reasearch on linked lists and see what I might be missing. I have read a number of posts on stack overflow and various google searches and decided the best way to learn about them was to write my own .NET classes to see how they worked from the inside out. Here is my class structure Single Linked List Constructor public SingleLinkedList(object value) Public Properties public bool IsTail public bool IsHead public object Value public int Index public int Count private fields not exposed to a property private SingleNode firstNode; private SingleNode lastNode; private SingleNode currentNode; Methods public void MoveToFirst() public void MoveToLast() public void Next() public void MoveTo(int index) public void Add(object value) public void InsertAt(int index, object value) public void Remove(object value) public void RemoveAt(int index) Questions I have: What are typical methods you would expect in a linked list? What is typical behaviour when adding new records? For example if I have 4 nodes and I am currently positioned in the second node and perform Add() should it be added after or before the current node? Or should it be added to the end of the list? Some of the designs I have seen explaining things seem to expose outside of the LinkedList class the Node object. In my design you simply add, get, remove values and know nothing about any node object. Should the Head and Tail be placeholder objects that are only used to define the head/tail of the list? I require my Linked List be instantiated with a value which creates the first node of the list which is essentially the head and tail of the list. Would you change that ? What should the rules be when it comes to removing nodes. Should someone be able to remove all nodes? Here is my Double Linked List Constructor public DoubleLinkedList(object value) Properties public bool IsHead public bool IsTail public object Value public int Index public int Count Private fields not exposed via property private DoubleNode currentNode; Methods public void AddFirst(object value) public void AddLast(object value) public void AddBefore(object existingValue, object value) public void AddAfter(object existingValue, object value) public void Add(int index, object value) public void Add(object value) public void Remove(int index) public void Next() public void Previous() public void MoveTo(int index)

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  • adding a class when link is clicked from Wordpress loop

    - by Carey Estes
    I am trying to isolate and add a class to a clicked anchor tag. The tags are getting pulled from a Wordpress loop. I can write JQuery to remove the "static" class, but it is removing the class from all tags in the div rather than just the one clicked and not adding the "active" class. Here is the WP loop <div class="more"> <a class="static" href="<?php bloginfo('template_url'); ?>/work/">ALL</a> <?php foreach ($tax_terms as $tax_term) { echo '<a class="static" href="' . esc_attr(get_term_link($tax_term, $taxonomy)) . '" title="' . sprintf( __( "View all posts in %s" ), $tax_term->name ) . '" ' . '>' . $tax_term->name.'</a>'; } ?> </div> Generates this html: <div class="more"> <a class="static" href="#">ALL</a> <a class="static" href="#">Things</a> <a class="static" href="#"> More Things</a> <a class="static" href="#">Objects</a> <a class="static" href="#">Goals</a> <a class="static" href="#">Books</a> <a class="static" href="#">Drawings</a> <a class="static" href="#">Thoughts</a> </div> JQuery: $("div.more a").on("click", function () { $("a.static").removeClass("static"); $(this).addClass("active"); }); I have reviwed the other similar questions here and here, but neither solution is working for me. Can this be done with JQuery or should I put a click event in the html inline anchor? It looks like it is working just for a second until the page reloads.

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  • WordPress Write Cache Problem with Multiple Sessions

    - by Volomike
    I'm working on a content dripper custom plugin in WordPress that my client asked me to build. He says he wants it to catch a page view event, and if it's the right time of day (24 hours since last post), to pull from a resource file and output another post. He needed it to also raise a flag and prevent other sessions from firing that same snippet of code. So, raise some kind of flag saying, "I'm posting that post, go away other process," and then it makes that post and releases the flag again. However, the strangest thing is occurring when placed under load with multiple sessions hitting the site with page views. It's firing instead of one post -- it's randomly doing like 1, 2, or 3 extra posts, with each one thinking that it was the right time to post because it was 24 hours past the time of the last post. Because it's somewhat random, I'm guessing that the problem is some kind of write caching where the other sessions don't see the raised flag just yet until a couple microseconds pass. The plugin was raising the "flag" by simply writing to the wp_options table with the update_option() API in WordPress. The other user sessions were supposed to read that value with get_option() and see the flag, and then not run that piece of code that creates the post because a given session was already doing it. Then, when done, I lower the flag and the other sessions continue as normal. But what it's doing is letting those other sessions in. To make this work, I was using add_action('loop_start','checkToAddContent'). The odd thing about that function though is that it's called more than once on a page, and in fact some plugins may call it. I don't know if there's a better event to hook. Even still, even if I find an event to hook that only runs once on a page view, I still have multiple sessions to contend with (different users who may view the page at the same time) and I want only one given session to trigger the content post when the post is due on the schedule. I'm wondering if there are any WordPress plugin devs out there who could suggest another event hook to latch on to, and to figure out another way to raise a flag that all sessions would see. I mean, I could use the shared memory API in PHP, but many hosting plans have that disabled. Can't use a cookie or session var because that's only one single session. About the only thing that might work across hosting plans would be to drop a file as a flag, instead. If the file is present, then one session has the flag. If the file is not present, then other sessions can attempt to get the flag. Sure, I could use the file route, but it's kind of immature in my opinion and I was wondering if there's something in WordPress I could do.

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  • How do I read Unicode characters from an MS Access 2007 database through Java?

    - by Peter
    In Java, I have written a program that reads a UTF8 text file. The text file contains a SQL query of the SELECT kind. The program then executes the query on the Microsoft Access 2007 database and writes all fields of the first row to a UTF8 text file. The problem I have is when a row is returned that contains unicode characters, such as "?". These characters show up as "?" in the text file. I know that the text files are read and written correctly, because a dummy UTF8 character ("?") is read from the text file containing the SQL query and written to the text file containing the resulting row. The UTF8 character looks correct when the written text file is opened in Notepad, so the reading and writing of the text files are not part of the problem. This is how I connect to the database and how I execute the SQL query: ---- START CODE Connection c = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Access Driver (*.mdb, *.accdb)};DBQ=C:/database.accdb;Pwd=temp"); ResultSet r = c.createStatement().executeQuery(sql); ---- END CODE I have tried making a charSet property to the Connection but it makes no difference: ---- START CODE Properties p = new Properties(); p.put("charSet", "utf-8"); p.put("lc_ctype", "utf-8"); p.put("encoding", "utf-8"); Connection c = DriverManager.getConnection("...", p); ---- END CODE Tried with "utf8"/"UTF8"/"UTF-8", no difference. If I enter "UTF-16" I get the following exception: "java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Illegal replacement". Been searching around for hours with no results and now turn my hope to you. Please help! I also accept workaround suggestions. =) What I want to be able to do is to make a Unicode query (for example one that searches for posts that contain the "?" character) and to have results with Unicode characters receieved and saved correctly. Thank you!

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  • Javascript code inside updatepanel usercontrol.

    - by Ed Woodcock
    Ok: I've got an updatepanel on an aspx page that contains a single Placeholder. Inside this placeholder I'm appending one of a selection of usercontrols depending on certain external conditions (this is a configuration page). In each of these usercontrols there is a bindUcEvents() javascript function that binds the various jQuery and javascript events to buttons and validators inside the usercontrol. The issue I'm having is that the usercontrol's javascript is not being recognised. Normally, javascript inside an updatepanel is executed when the updatepanel posts back, however none of this code can be found by the page (I've tried running the function manually via firebug's console, but it tells me it cannot find the function). Does anyone have any suggestions? Cheers, Ed. EDIT: cut down (but functional) example: Markup: <script src="/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ScriptManager ID="Script" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="Postback" runat="server" Text="Populate" OnClick="PopulatePlaceholder" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdateMe" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Postback" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Literal ID="Code" runat="server" /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceMe" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> C#: protected void PopulatePlaceholder(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button button = new Button(); button.ID = "Push"; button.Text = "push"; button.OnClientClick = "javascript:return false;"; Code.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\"> function bindEvents() { $('#" + button.ClientID + "').click(function() { alert('hello'); }); } bindEvents(); </script>"; PlaceMe.Controls.Add(button); }

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  • web.config transforms not being applied on either publish or build installation package

    - by BenA
    Today I started playing with the web.config transforms in VS 2010. To begin with, I attempted the same hello world example that features in a lot of the blog posts on this topic - updating a connection string. I created the minimal example shown below (and similar to the one found in this blog). The problem is that whenever I do a right-click - "Publish", or a right-click - "Build Deployment Package" on the .csproj file, I'm not getting the correct output. Rather than a transformed web.config, I'm getting no web.config, and instead the two transform files are included. What am I doing wrong? Any help gratefully received! Web.config: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0"> <connectionStrings> <add name="ConnectionString" connectionString="server=(local); initial catalog=myDB; user=xxxx;password=xxxx" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration> Web.debug.config: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration xmlns:xdt="http://schemas.microsoft.com/XML-Document-Transform"> <connectionStrings> <add name="ConnectionString" connectionString="server=DebugServer; initial catalog=myDB; user=xxxx;password=xxxx" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration> Web.release.config: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration xmlns:xdt="http://schemas.microsoft.com/XML-Document-Transform"> <connectionStrings> <add name="ConnectionString" connectionString="server=ReleaseServer; initial catalog=myDB; user=xxxx;password=xxxx" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration>

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  • multiple definition of inline function

    - by K71993
    Hi, I have gone through some posts related to this topic but was not able to sort out my doubt completly. This might be a very navie question. Code Description I have a header file "inline.h" and two translation unit "main.cpp" and "tran.cpp". Details of code are as below inline.h file details #ifndef __HEADER__ #include <stdio.h> extern inline int func1(void) { return 5; } static inline int func2(void) { return 6; } inline int func3(void) { return 7; } #endif main.c file details are below #define <stdio.h> #include <inline.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { printf("%d\n",func1()); printf("%d\n",func2()); printf("%d\n",func3()); return 0; } tran.cpp file details (Not that the functions are not inline here) #include <stdio.h> int func1(void) { return 500; } int func2(void) { return 600; } int func3(void) { return 700; } Question The above code does not compile in gcc compiler whereas compiles in g++ (Assuming you make changes related to gcc in code like changing the code to .c not using any C++ header files... etc). The error displayed is "duplicate definition of inline function - func3". Can you clarify why this difference is present across compile? When you run the program (g++ compiled) by creating two seperate compilation unit (main.o and tran.o and create an executable a.out), the output obtained is 500 6 700 Why does the compiler pick up the definition of the function which is not inline. Actually since #include is used to "add" the inline definiton I had expected 5,6,7 as the output. My understanding was during compilation since the inline definition is found, the function call would be "replaced" by inline function definition. Can you please tell me in detailed steps the process of compilation and linking which would lead us to 500,6,700 output. I can only understand the output 6. Thanks in advance for valuable input.

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  • B-trees, databases, sequential inputs, and speed.

    - by IanC
    I know from experience that b-trees have awful performance when data is added to them sequentially (regardless of the direction). However, when data is added randomly, best performance is obtained. This is easy to demonstrate with the likes of an RB-Tree. Sequential writes cause a maximum number of tree balances to be performed. I know very few databases use binary trees, but rather used n-order balanced trees. I logically assume they suffer a similar fate to binary trees when it comes to sequential inputs. This sparked my curiosity. If this is so, then one could deduce that writing sequential IDs (such as in IDENTITY(1,1)) would cause multiple re-balances of the tree to occur. I have seen many posts argue against GUIDs as "these will cause random writes". I never use GUIDs, but it struck me that this "bad" point was in fact a good point. So I decided to test it. Here is my code: SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[T1]( [ID] [int] NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [T1_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([ID] ASC) ) GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[T2]( [ID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [T2_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([ID] ASC) ) GO declare @i int, @t1 datetime, @t2 datetime, @t3 datetime, @c char(300) set @t1 = GETDATE() set @i = 1 while @i < 2000 begin insert into T2 values (NEWID(), @c) set @i = @i + 1 end set @t2 = GETDATE() WAITFOR delay '0:0:10' set @t3 = GETDATE() set @i = 1 while @i < 2000 begin insert into T1 values (@i, @c) set @i = @i + 1 end select DATEDIFF(ms, @t1, @t2) AS [Int], DATEDIFF(ms, @t3, getdate()) AS [GUID] drop table T1 drop table T2 Note that I am not subtracting any time for the creation of the GUID nor for the considerably extra size of the row. The results on my machine were as follows: Int: 17,340 ms GUID: 6,746 ms This means that in this test, random inserts of 16 bytes was almost 3 times faster than sequential inserts of 4 bytes. Would anyone like to comment on this? Ps. I get that this isn't a question. It's an invite to discussion, and that is relevant to learning optimum programming.

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  • Would a Centralized Blogging Service Work?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models. My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that the main point of a website? Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook?

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  • How to use the Value of a Selected Value from a DropDownList populated with AJAX/PHP

    - by mouthpiec
    Hi, I have form with two dropdownlists (lets say A and B). When I select a value from A, B is being populated accordingly using AJAX In the same page I have a button, that when pressed, posts the values of the selected items of the dropdownlists to another PHP page. The problem I am having is that the selected value of B is returned as Blank/Empty. Is there a way to store the selected value of a dropdownlist populated using AJAX? Code below: (Main FORM) <form name="NewBar" method="post" onsubmit="return validateFormOnSubmit(this)" action="AssignContactDetailToBar_f.php"> <tr> <td width="150"><b>Bar:</b></td> <td> <select name = "bar" onChange="getContact('AssignContactDetailToBar_f_getContacts.php?bar='+this.value)" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">---Select---</option> <?php while ($data = mysql_fetch_array($r_getBarsDetails)) { echo "<option value=\"".$data['bar_id']."\">".$data['bar_name']." (".$data['town_name'].")</option>"; } ?> </td> </tr> <tr> <td width="150"><b>Contact Person:</b></td> <td> <div id="persondiv"><select name = "person" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">--Select Bar--</option> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input name="security" type="text" size="15"> </td> <td> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </td> </tr> </form> FORM to populate the 2nd Dropdownlist <select name="person" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">--Select Person--</option> <?php while($data=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "<option value=\"".$data['person_id']."\">".$data['person_name']." ".$data['person_surname']." (".$data['town_name'].")</option>"; } ?> if you would like to see the complete code download from here

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  • Losing reference to $_post variable?

    - by Scott B
    In the code below, the echo at the top returns true, but the echo at the bottom returns nothing. Apparently the code in between is causing me to lose a reference to the $_post variable? <?php echo "in category: ".in_category('is-sidebar', $_post); //RETURNS TRUE if (!get_option('my_hide_recent')) { $cat=get_cat_ID('top-menu'); $catHidden=get_cat_ID('hidden'); $myquery = new WP_Query(); $myquery->query(array( 'cat' => "-$cat,-$catHidden", 'post_not_in' => get_option('sticky_posts') )); $myrecentpostscount = $myquery->found_posts; if ($myrecentpostscount > 0) { ?> <div class="menu"><h4><?php if ($my_sidebar_heading_recent !=="") { echo $my_sidebar_heading_recent; } else { echo "Recent Posts";} ?></h4><ul> <?php global $post; $current_page_recent = get_post( $current_page ); $myrecentposts = get_posts(array('post_not_in' => get_option('sticky_posts'), 'cat' => "-$cat,-$catHidden",'showposts' => $my_recent_count)); foreach($myrecentposts as $idxrecent=>$post) { if($post->ID == $current_page_recent->ID) { $home_menu_recent = ' class="current_page_item'; } else { $home_menu_recent = ' class="page_item'; } $myclassrecent = ($idxrecent == count($myrecentposts) - 1 ? $home_menu_recent.' last"' : $home_menu_recent.'"'); ?> <li<?php echo $myclassrecent ?>><a href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a></li> <?php } ; if (($myrecentpostscount > $my_recent_count) && $my_recent_count > -1){ ?><li><a href="<?php bloginfo('url'); ?>/site-map">View all</a></li><?php } ?></ul></div> <?php } } global $sitemap; echo "in category: ".in_category('is-sidebar', $_post); //RETURNS NOTHING

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  • How can I edit an entity in MVC4 with EF5 which has a unique constraint?

    - by Yoeri
    [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { db.Entry(car).State = EntityState.Modified; db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(car); } This is a controller method scaffolded by MCV 4 My "car" entity has a unique field: LicensePlate. I have custom validation on my Entity: Validation: public partial class Car { partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults) { using (var db = new GarageIncEntities()) { if (db.Cars.Any(c => c.LicensePlate.Equals(this.LicensePlate))) { validationResults.Add( new ValidationResult("This licenseplate already exists.", new string[]{"LicensePlate"})); } } } } should it be usefull, my car entity: public partial class Car:IValidatableObject { public int Id { get; set; } public string Color { get; set; } public int Weight { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public string LicensePlate { get; set; } public System.DateTime DateOfSale { get; set; } public int Type_Id { get; set; } public int Fuel_Id { get; set; } public virtual CarType Type { get; set; } public virtual Fuel Fuel { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationResult> Validate(ValidationContext validationContext) { var result = new List<ValidationResult>(); ValidateObject(ref result); return result; } partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults); } QUESTION: Everytime I edit a car, it raises an error: Validation failed for one or more entities. See 'EntityValidationErrors' property for more details. The error is the one raised by my validation, saying it can't edit because there is already a car with that license plate. If anyone could point me in the right direction to fix this, that would be great! I searched but couldn't find anything, so even related posts are welcome!

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  • MVC3/Razor Client Validation Not firing

    - by Jason Gerstorff
    I am trying to get client validation working in MVC3 using data annotations. I have looked at similar posts including this MVC3 Client side validation not working for the answer. I'm using an EF data model. I created a partial class like this for my validations. [MetadataType(typeof(Post_Validation))] public partial class Post { } public class Post_Validation { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Title is required")] [StringLength(5, ErrorMessage = "Title may not be longer than 5 characters")] public string Title { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Text is required")] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] public string Text { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Publish Date is required")] [DataType(DataType.DateTime)] public DateTime PublishDate { get; set; } } My cshtml page includes the following. <h2>Create</h2> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) Post <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Title) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Text) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Text) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Text) Web Config: <appSettings> <add key="ClientValidationEnabled" value="true" /> <add key="UnobtrusiveJavaScriptEnabled" value="true" /> Layout: <head> <title>@ViewBag.Title</title> <link href="@Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css")" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> So, the Multiline Text annotation works and creates a text area. But none of the validations work client side. I don't know what i might be missing. Any ideas?? i can post more information if needed. Thanks!

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  • Associated models in Rails?

    - by dannymcc
    Hi Everyone, In my rails application I have two models called Kases and Notes. They work in the same way comments do with blog posts, I.e. each Kase entry can have multiple notes attached to it. I have got everything working, but for some reason I cannot get the destroy link to work for the Notes. I think I am overlooking something that is different with associated models to standard models. Notes Controller class NotesController < ApplicationController # POST /notes # POST /notes.xml def create @kase = Kase.find(params[:kase_id]) @note = @kase.notes.create!(params[:note]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to @kase } format.js end end end Kase Model class Kase < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :jobno has_many :notes Note Model class Note < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :kase end In the Kase show view I call a partial within /notes called _notes.html.erb: Kase Show View <div id="notes"> <h2>Notes</h2> <%= render :partial => @kase.notes %> <% form_for [@kase, Note.new] do |f| %> <p> <h3>Add a new note</h3> <%= f.text_field :body %><%= f.submit "Add Note" %> </p> <% end %> </div> /notes/_note.html.erb <% div_for note do %> <div id="sub-notes"> <p> <%= h(note.body) %><br /> <span style="font-size:smaller">Created <%= time_ago_in_words(note.created_at) %> ago on <%= note.created_at %></span> </p> <%= link_to "Remove Note", kase_path(@kase), :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete, :class => 'important' %> </div> <% end %> As you can see, I have a Remove Note destroy link, but that destroys the entire Kase the note is associated with. How do I make the destroy link remove only the note? <%= link_to "Remove Note", kase_path(@kase), :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete, :class => 'important' %> Any help would, as always, be greatly appreciated! Thanks, Danny

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  • Rails & Twilio: Receiving nil when storing texts received from Twilio

    - by Jon Smooth
    I have set up the request URL in my Twilio account to have it POST to: myurl.com/receivetext. It appears to be successfully posting because when I check the database using the Heroku console I see the following: Post id: 5, body: nil, from: nil, created_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01", updated_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01" Why is it receiving nil for the body and from attributes? I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong! The created and updated at are storing successfully but the two attributes that I care about continue to be stored as nil. Here's the Receive Text controller which is receiving the Post request from Twilio: class ReceiveTextController < ApplicationController def index @post=Post.create!(body: params[:Body], from: params[:From]) end end EDIT: When I dump the params I receive the following: "{\"controller\"=\"receive_text\", \"action\"=\"index\"}" I attained this by inserting the following into my ReceiveText controller. @params = Post.create!(body: params.inspect, from: "Dumping Params") and then opening up the Heroku console to find the database entry with from = "Dumping Params". I simulated a Twilio request with a curl with the following command curl -X POST myurl.com/receivetext route -d 'AccountSid=AC123&From=%2B19252411234' I checked the production database again and noticed that the curl request did work when obtaining the FROM atribute. It stored the following: params.inspect returned "{\"AccountSid\"=\"AC123\", \"From\"=\"+19252411234\", \"co..." I received a comment stating: "As long as twilio is hitting the same URL with the same method (GET/POST) it should be filling the params array as well" I have no idea how to make this comment actionable. Any help would be greatly appreciated! I'm very new to rails. Here's my database migration (I have both attributes set to string. I have tried setting it to text and that didn't work either) : class CreatePosts < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :posts do |t| t.string :body t.string :from t.timestamps end end end Here is my Post model: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :body, :from end Routes (everything appears to be routing just fine) : MovieApp::Application.routes.draw do get "receive_text/index" get "pages/home" get "send_text/send_text_message" root to: 'pages#home' match '/receivetext', to: 'receive_text#index' match '/pages/home', to: 'pages#home' match '/sendtext', to: 'send_text#send_text_message' end Here's my gemfile (incase it helps) source 'https://rubygems.org' gem 'rails', '3.2.3' gem 'badfruit' gem 'twilio-ruby' gem 'logger' gem 'jquery-rails' group :production do gem 'pg' end group :development, :test do gem 'sqlite3' end group :assets do gem 'sass-rails', '~> 3.2.3' gem 'coffee-rails', '~> 3.2.1' gem 'uglifier', '>= 1.0.3' end

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  • html transparent background

    - by amarsh-anand
    I want to create a webpage with transparent background, a table and some text. I have seen posts related to this, but due to my lack of familiarity with css, I somehow cant get my code to work. I just want a transparent background, while this code is making everything transparent. Can someone kindly help. <html> <head><style type="text/css"> div.transbg {background-color:#4a6c9b; opacity:0.6;} </style></head> <div class="transbg"> <body><Center><font color="#FFFFFF"> <b>Toll Charges</b> <table bgcolor="#000000" cellspacing=3> <tr> <td bgcolor="#009900"><font color="#FFFFFF" align="left"> &nbsp; &nbsp;Class 2 inc Private&nbsp;</font></td> <td bgcolor="#009900"><font color="#FFFFFF" align="right"> &nbsp;A$ 4.95 &nbsp;</font></td> </tr> <tr> <td bgcolor="#009900"><font color="#FFFFFF" align="left"> &nbsp; &nbsp;Class 2 inc Commercial&nbsp;</font></td> <td bgcolor="#009900"><font color="#FFFFFF" align="right"> &nbsp;A$ 13.95 &nbsp;</font></td> </tr> </table> <br> Toll has to be paid within 48 hrs of passage, else an additional A$ 13.95 of administration charges would be added </font></Center> </div> </body> </html>

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