Search Results

Search found 18677 results on 748 pages for 'current'.

Page 166/748 | < Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >

  • ASP.NET output caching - dynamically update dependencies

    - by ColinE
    Hi All, I have an ASP.NET application which requires output caching. I need to invalidate the cached items when the data returned from a web service changes, so a simple duration is not good enough. I have been doing a bit of reading about cache dependencies and think I have the right idea. It looks like I will need to create a cache dependency to my web service. To associate the page output with this dependency I think I should use the following method: Response.AddCacheItemDependency(cacheKey); The thing I am struggling with is what I should add to the cache? The dependency my page has is to a single value returned by the web service. My current thinking is that I should create a Custom Cache Dependency via subclassing CacheDependency, and store the current value in the cache. I can then use Response.AddCacheItemDependency to form the dependency. I can then periodically check the value and for a NotifyDependencyChange in order to invalidate my cached HTTP response. The problem is, I need to ensure that the cache is flushed immediately, so a periodic check is not good enough. How can I ensure that my dependant object in the cache which represents the value returned by the web service is re-evaluated before the HTTP response is fetched from the cache? Regards, Colin E.

    Read the article

  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

    Read the article

  • MySQL table data transformation -- how can I dis-aggreate MySQL time data?

    - by lighthouse65
    We are coding for a MySQL data warehousing application that stores descriptive data (User ID, Work ID, Machine ID, Start and End Time columns in the first table below) associated with time and production quantity data (Output and Time columns in the first table below) upon which aggregate (SUM, COUNT, AVG) functions are applied. We now wish to dis-aggregate time data for another type of analysis. Our current data table design: +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+---------------------+--------+------+ | User ID | Work ID | Machine ID | Event Start Time | Event End Time | Output | Time | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+---------------------+--------+------+ | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2008-01-24 16:19:15 | 2008-01-24 16:34:45 | 2120 | 930 | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+---------------------+--------+------+ Reprocessing dis-aggregation that we would like to do would be to transform table content based on a granularity of minutes, rather than the current production event ("Event Start Time" and "Event End Time") granularity. The resulting reprocessing of existing table rows would look like: +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+--------+ | User ID | Work ID | Machine ID | Production Minute | Output | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+--------+ | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:19 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:20 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:21 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:22 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:23 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:24 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:25 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:26 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:27 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:28 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:29 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:30 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:31 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:22 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:33 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:34 | 133 | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+--------+ So the reprocessing would take an existing row of data created at the granularity of production event and modify the granularity to minutes, eliminating redundant (Event End Time, Time) columns while doing so. It assumes a constant rate of production and divides output by the difference in minutes plus one to populate the new table's Output column. I know this can be done in code...but can it be done entirely in a MySQL insert statement (or otherwise entirely in MySQL)? I am thinking of a INSERT ... INTO construction but keep getting stuck. An additional complexity is that there are hundreds of machines to include in the operation so there will be multiple rows (one for each machine) for each minute of the day. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Using JQuery with dynamically added controls (MVC)

    - by Mario
    I have a set of radio buttons that are dynamically generated (via JSON call): StringBuilder sbEligAll = new StringBuilder(); sbEligAll.Append("<div id='currentselectiondepartment'>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrent' value='0' /><label for='radCurrent'>Current</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFuture' value='1' /><label for='radFuture'>Future</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrentAll' value='2' /><label for='radCurrentAll'>Current All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFutureAll' value='3' /><label for='radFutureAll'>Future All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append("</div>"); Then: return Json(new { TableList = sbElig.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); Is there a way to get jQuery to be able to interact with these? For example: $("input[name=selectalldepartment]").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectalldepartment]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist[value='" + str + "']").attr("checked", true); }); I've tried everything I know how to do, but the jQuery just doesnt fire. (I've added alerts to the jQuery code to see if it actually gets called, and it does not). Any thoughts?! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What is the best method for updating all changed data in EF 4?

    - by Soul_Master
    I try to create some method that can update any changed data from changed Data object (this object is generated by ASP.NET MVC) to old Data object (this object is retrieved from current data in DBMS) like the following code. public static bool UpdateSomeData(SomeEntities context, SomeModelType changedData) { var oldData = GetSomeModelTypeById(context, changedData.ID); UpdateModel(oldData, changedData); return context.SaveChanges() > 0; } I try to create method for saving any changed data without affects other unchanged data like the following source code. public static void UpdateModel<TModel>(TModel oldData, TModel changedData) { foreach (var pi in typeof(TModel).GetProperties() .Where ( // Ignore Change ID property for security reason x => x.Name.ToUpper() != "ID" && x.CanRead && x.CanWrite && ( // It must be primitive type or Guid x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Collection") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies") ) ) { var oldValue = pi.GetValue(oldData, null); var newValue = pi.GetValue(changedData, null); if (!oldValue.Equals(newValue)) { pi.SetValue(oldData, newValue, null); } } } I am not sure about the above method because it is so ugly method for updating data. From recent bug, it realizes me that if you update some property like Navigation Properties (related data from other table), it will remove current record from database. I don't understand why it happened. But it is very dangerous for me. So, do you have any idea for this question to ensure me about updating data from ASP.NET MVC? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Get index values for an array to print in value attribute for radio buttons

    - by kexxcream
    Problem: To get the index values of an array to print accordingly in value attribute of radio buttons. The array $_SESSION['items']: Array ( [2] => Array ( [category] => 2 [question] => Array ( [6] => Källorna refereras separat [7] => Vissa försök till sammanbindning [8] => En del sammanfattningar [9] => Olika forskningslinjer jämförs och sammanfattas [10] => Kontraster, jämförelser, sammanfattningar; centrala likheter och skillnader framhävs ) [title] => Integration av källorna ) ) I have a PHP function that looks like this: function itemsLayout ($array) { for ($i = 1; $i <= count($array['question']); $i++) { $form .= '<input type="radio" name="'.$array['category'].'" id="'.$array['category'].'" value="INDEX VALUE FOR QUESTION ARRAY HERE">'; } return $form; } PHP code: I get the index by using the following: $key = key($_SESSION['items']); $current = $_SESSION['items'][$key]; And I print the first index by using: echo itemsLayout($current); Question: How do I get the index values 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 to print in the value attribute for each radio button?

    Read the article

  • How to make Web Storage persistent in Cordova using JS?

    - by ett
    I have a small quiz app, which is a cross-platform mobile app, that I plan for it to run on Android, iOS, and WP8. I want to store a local highscore, where it will keep track how many points the user had, and if he/she does better than the already stored highscore, update the current highscore. Though, I want the highscore to be persistent, what I mean is, every time the user opens the app I want the last highscore to be present and it to be compared with the new quiz score. Meaning, I don't want the highscore to be deleted after each time the app is closed. I also want for the first time when the app is ran, the highscore to be set to 0, so obviously the first time the user finishes the quiz gets a new highscore. I have those codes so far: scoredb.js // Wait for device API libraries to load document.addEventListener("deviceready", initScoreDB, false); // Device APIs are available function initScoreDB() { window.localStorage.setItem("score", 0); highscore = window.localStorage.getItem("score"); } main.js var correct = 0; var highscore; // In between I have some code that keeps incrementing // correct variable for each correct answer. if (correct > highscore) { window.localStorage.setItem("score", correct); highscore = correct; } It does seem to work okay once the app is started. I did the quiz three times, in the simulator, and it keeps the score as it should. Though, each time I open the app, highscore is reseted to 0. I guess it is due to the fact that I call initScoreDB when the device is ready, and I initialize the score to 0 there and give that value to highscore. Can someone help me to initialize the score to 0 only when the app is ran for the first time, and all the other times to keep the latest highscore as the current highscore and compare it each time with the score that is achieved when the quiz is finished. If someone can help me, I would be glad.

    Read the article

  • rest and client rights integration, and backbone.js

    - by Francois
    I started to be more and more interested in the REST architecture style and client side development and I was thinking of using backbone.js on the client and a REST API (using ASP.NET Web API) for a little meeting management application. One of my requirements is that users with admin rights can edit meetings and other user can only see them. I was then wondering how to integrate the current user rights in the response for a given resource? My problem is beyond knowing if a user is authenticated or not, I want to know if I need to render the little 'edit' button next to the meeting (let's say I'm listing the current meetings in a grid) or not. Let's say I'm GETing /api/meetings and this is returning a list of meetings with their respective individual URI. How can I add if the user is able to edit this resource or not? This is an interesting passage from one of Roy's blog posts: A REST API should be entered with no prior knowledge beyond the initial URI (bookmark) and set of standardized media types that are appropriate for the intended audience (i.e., expected to be understood by any client that might use the API). From that point on, all application state transitions must be driven by client selection of server-provided choices that are present in the received representations or implied by the user’s manipulation of those representations It states that all transitions must be driven by the choices that are present in the representation. Does that mean that I can add an 'editURI' and a 'deleteURI' to each of the meeting i'm returning? if this information is there I can render the 'edit' button and if it's not there I just don't? What's the best practices on how to integrate the user's rights in the entity's representation? Or is this a super bad idea and another round trip is needed to fetch that information?

    Read the article

  • What do I name this class whose sole purpose is to report failure?

    - by Blair Holloway
    In our system, we have a number of classes whose construction must happen asynchronously. We wrap the construction process in another class that derives from an IConstructor class: class IConstructor { public: virtual void Update() = 0; virtual Status GetStatus() = 0; virtual int GetLastError() = 0; }; There's an issue with the design of the current system - the functions that create the IConstructor-derived classes are often doing additional work which can also fail. At that point, instead of getting a constructor which can be queried for an error, a NULL pointer is returned. Restructuring the code to avoid this is possible, but time-consuming. In the meantime, I decided to create a constructor class which we create and return in case of error, instead of a NULL pointer: class FailedConstructor : public IConstructor public: virtual void Update() {} virtual Status GetStatus() { return STATUS_ERROR; } virtual int GetLastError() { return m_errorCode; } private: int m_errorCode; }; All of the above this the setup for a mundane question: what do I name the FailedConstructor class? In our current system, FailedConstructor would indicate "a class which constructs an instance of Failed", not "a class which represents a failed attempt to construct another class". I feel like it should be named for one of the design patterns, like Proxy or Adapter, but I'm not sure which.

    Read the article

  • Can I rename LOCAL, REMOTE and BASE as used in git mergetool?

    - by carleeto
    Lets say I'm doing a rebase B of a branch onto master and there's a conflict. git opens up the default merge tool with 3 files as input : file.LOCAL, file.BASE, file.REMOTE (they're named a little differently, but LOCAL, BASE and REMOTE are in the file names and is how they are distinguished). Now, according to the mergetool man page: $LOCAL is set to the name of a temporary file containing the contents of the file on the current branch; $REMOTE set to the name of a temporary file containing the contents of the file to be merged, and $BASE set to the name of a temporary file containing the common base for the merge. That really does not make sense to me. LOCAL is the current state of the branch. Where I get lost is BASE and REMOTE. So my question is : Is it possible to make git use the branch name instead of LOCAL and similarly more meaningful names other than BASE and REMOTE? For example, if the branch name is FeatureX and the BASE = the file as it exists in master, is there a way to get git to substitute FeatureX for LOCAL and master for BASE, so that it is more apparent where the source is coming from? This is especially a problem when doing a rebase.

    Read the article

  • Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />).

    - by wide
    in local it works. when i load server, i got this error. Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />). Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />). Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />).] System.Web.UI.PageTheme.SetStyleSheet() +2458406 System.Web.UI.Page.OnInit(EventArgs e) +8699420 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +378 -------------------------------------album1.aspx------------------ <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="album1.aspx.cs" Inherits="album1" Title="Özkan Köylü | Albüm" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" Runat="Server"> <script src="scripts/Silverlight.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="scripts/Default_html.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="scripts/Page.xaml.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="scripts/gallery.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <div align="center" id="SilverlightControlHost"> <script type="text/javascript"> createSilverlight(); </script> </div> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • Fiscal year, quarters, student table, and faculty table... How do I relate these?!

    - by yuudachi
    I have a student and faculty table. The primary key for student is studendID (SID) and faculty's primary key is facultyID, naturally. Student has an advisor column and a requested advisor column, which are foreign key to faculty. That's simple enough, right? However, now I have to throw in dates. I want to be able to view who their advisor was for a certain quarter (such as 2009 Winter) and who they had requested. The result will be a table like this: Year | Term | SID | Current | Requested ------------------------------------------------ 2009 | Winter | 860123456 | 1 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860445566 | 3 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860369147 | 5 | 1 And then if I feel like it, I could also go ahead and view a different year and a different term. I am not sure how these new table(s) will look like. Will there be a year table with three columns that are Fall, Spring and Winter? And what will the Fall, Spring, Winter table have? I am new to the art of tables, so this is baffling me... Also, I feel I should clarify how the site works so far now. Admin can approve student requests, and what happens is that the student's current advisor gets overwritten with their request. However, I think I should not do that anymore, right?

    Read the article

  • What is the preferred way to update database schemas in multiple production environments

    - by rmarimon
    I am about to install some 20 servers with the same web application in multiple locations connected to their own local database. I will be updating the web applications remotely (perhaps using debian's package manager) and I'm sure will eventually need to update the database schemas. Since each server could be eventually be using a different release of the web application, I need a way to apply the incremental changes to the servers. I'm thinking something like this. Let's start with database.schema.1 as the original release of the database and assume this number increases with each new version of the schema. I eventually could end up with database.schema.17 as the current release. For a new installation this would be the schema to install. It seems to me that I would need consecutive translations like database.translation.1.2 which would convert database.schema.1 into database.schema.2, database.translation.2.3 to convert from 2 to 3 and so on until 17. It seems that whenever I change a schema I need to alter the database but perhaps I need to run some script to update the data which might be done with SQL but might require an external non sql script. What is the appropriate way to organize all these files? What is the automatic way to apply those upgrades to the schema? Where do I store the current version number of the schema?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC, JS injection and System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path

    - by Mose
    Hi, In my ASP.Net MVC application, I use custom error handling. I want to perform custom actions for each error case I meet in my application. So I override Application_Error, get the Server.GetLastError(); and do my business depending on the exception, the current user, the current URL (the application runs on many domains), the user IP, and many others. Obviousely, the application is often the target of hackers. In almost all the case it's not a problem to detect and manage it, but for some JS URL attacks, my error handling does not perform what I want it to do. Ex (from logs) : http://localhost:1809/Scripts/]||!o.support.htmlSerialize&&[1 When I got such an URL, an exception is raised when accessing the ConnectionStrings section in the web.config, and I can't even redirect to another URL. It leads to a "System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path, etc." The screenshot below shows the problem : http://screencast.com/t/Y2I1YWU4 An obvious solution is to write a HTTP module to filter the urls before they reach my application, but I'd like to avoid it because : I like having the whole security being managed in one place (in the Application_Error() method) In the module I cannot access the whole data I have in the application itself (application specific data I don't want to debate here) Questions : Did you meet this problem ? How did you manage it ? Thanks for you suggestions, Mose

    Read the article

  • VSTO Word ContentControls, Y U No have Name property?

    - by System.Cats.Lol
    When you add a VSTO (not Word native) content control, you specify the name: controls.AddContentControl(wordRange, "foo", wdType); Where controls is the VSTO (extended) Document.Controls collection. You can later look up the control by name: ContentControl myContentControl = controls["foo"]; So why in the world is there no Name property for ContentControl? (or ContentControlBase, or any of the other derivatives). I'm implementing a wrapper class for the Document.Controls property that lets you add or iterate the content controls. When iterating the underlying Document.Controls, there's no way to look up the name of each control. (We need it to return an instance of our ContentControl wrapper). So currently I'm doing this in our ContentControls wrapper class: public IEnumerator<IContentControl> GetEnumerator() { System.Collections.IEnumerator en = this.wordControls.GetEnumerator(); while (en.MoveNext()) { // VSTO Document.Controls includes all managed controls, not just // VSTO ContentControls; return only those. if (en.Current is Microsoft.Office.Tools.Word.ContentControl) { // The control's name isn't stored with the control, only when it was added, // so use a placeholder name for the wrapper. yield return new ContentControl("Unknown", (Microsoft.Office.Tools.Word.ContentControl)en.Current); } } } I'd prefer to not have to resort to keeping a map of names-to-wrapper-objects in our ContentControls object. Can anyone tell me how to get the control's name (the name parameter that was passed to Controls.Add()?

    Read the article

  • Fastest way to convert a list of doubles to a unique list of integers?

    - by javanix
    I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

    Read the article

  • Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

    - by Superstringcheese
    I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

    Read the article

  • Custom view transition in OpenGL ES

    - by melfar
    I'm trying to create a custom transition, to serve as a replacement for a default transition you would get here, for example: [self.navigationController pushViewController:someController animated:YES]; I have prepared an OpenGL-based view that performs an effect on some static texture mapped to a plane (let's say it's a copy of the flip effect in Core Animation). What I don't know how to do is: grab current view content and make a texture out of it (I remember seeing a function that does just that, but can't find it) how to do the same for the view that is currently offscreen and is going to replace current view are there some APIs I can hook to in order to make my transition class as native as possible (make it a kind of Core Animation effect)? Any thoughts or links are greatly appreciated! UPDATE Jeffrey Forbes's answer works great as a solution to capture the content of a view. What I haven't figured out yet is how to capture the content of the view I want to transition to, which should be invisible until the transition is done. Also, which method should I use to present the OpenGL view? For demonstration purposes I used pushViewController. That affects the navbar, though, which I actually want to go one item back, with animation, check this vid for explanation: http://vimeo.com/4649397. Another option would be to go with presentViewController, but that shows fullscreen. Do you think maybe creating another window (or view?) could be useful?

    Read the article

  • jQuery DOM manipulation

    - by ufw
    I have different php output in jQuery-based tabs. This output is formed from database and it consists of several <div>'s. Every time I click any tab it sends AJAX request to the php script which performs "SELECT" request and gives result back as response to AJAX request from the tab. $(document).ready(function() { $('ul.tabs li').css('cursor', 'pointer'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').click(function(){ var thisClass = this.className.slice(0,2); $('div.t1').hide(); $('div.t2').hide(); $('div.t3').hide(); $('div.t4').hide(); $('div.' + thisClass).show('fast'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').removeClass('tab-current'); $(this).addClass('tab-current'); var data = thisClass; $.ajax({ type:"GET", url:"handler.php?name="+data, data:data, success:function(html) { $('div.' + thisClass).html(html); } }); return false; }); }); //Server-side PHP script: <?php $name = $_GET[name]; switch ($name) { case "t1": query_and_output_1(); case "t2": query_and_output_2(); // etc... } ?> The problem is that the first tab contains output that must be in second and third ones as well, the second also contains the third tab output. Sorry for such a rubbishy question, I used to work with server side and unfortunately I'm not familiar with DOM and jQuery yet. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Implementing a normal website inside ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by cc0
    I have a website consisting of an index.html, a number of style sheet files as well as some javascript files. Then I needed a way for this site to communicate efficiently with a Microsoft SQL Server, so I was recommended to use the MVC framework to facilitate that kind of communication. I created the C#.net controller code needed to output the necessary information from the database using URL parameters, so now I am trying to put the whole web-site together inside the MVC framework. I started an empty project-template in MVC 2 framework. I'm sure there must be a good way to implement the current code into this framework, but I am very uncertain as to what the best approach to this would be. Could anyone point me in the right direction here? I'm not sure whether I need to change any of the current HTML, or exactly what to add to it. I'd love to see some kind of guide or tutorial, or just any advice I can get as I try to learn this. Any help is very much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Helping Rails Newbies identify version-specific information on web pages

    - by corprew
    I am trying to help some people getting started programming on rails identify which version that advice found on web pages corresponds to, and am seeking advice and/or guides on how to do it so they don't have to rely on me and/or waste time trying outdated advice. Narrative: I am helping some people get up to speed on rails development, and their stock response to running into problems is searching google for advice. They're using 2.3.5 and thinking of moving to 3. The problem they're running into is that there's a lot of advice out there specific to older rails versions (2.2 for example being popular) that isn't identified. I can usually figure out when the pages are old pretty easily, but they can't (yet.) It seems like random web page authors don't identify which version they're using when they're using the current version, and not all pages are dated. This seems to be a general problem that will get worse -- current unadorned advice is usually 2.3.5 and older unadorned advice is 2.2.x at this point, but people are moving / will be moving to version 3 over the next while and newbies will be stuck looking at a bunch of deprecated/incompatible 2.3.x advice without realizing which version it is. Any advice / pointers / telltales?

    Read the article

  • Find tag that contains certain text and add a class

    - by David Gard
    I have the following HTML, and I need to add a class to both <li> and <a> where the text 'Charts' exists (so not the second line, but rather the 4th and 5th). I cannot change the output of the HTML. <div class="wp-submenu-wrap"> <div class="wp-submenu-head">Charts</div> <ul> <li class="wp-first-item"> <a class="wp-first-item" tabindex="1" href="admin.php?page=charts">Charts</a> </li> <li> <a tabindex="1" href="admin.php?page=add-chart">Add Chart</a> </li> </ul> </div> I've tried doing this by locating the <a> tag that contains the text, but it is not working. Can somebody please point me in the correct direction? Thanks. Code that I've tried - $(document).ready(function(){ if(pagenow === 'admin_page_edit-chart') { var page = $('.wp-submenu-wrap a:contains["Charts"]'); page.addClass('current'); page.parent('li').addClass('current'); } });

    Read the article

  • MSI Installer start auto-repair when service starts

    - by Josh Clark
    I have a WiX based MSI that installs a service and some shortcuts (and lots of other files that don't). The shortcut is created as described in the WiX docs with a registry key under HKCU as the key file. This is an all users install, but to get past ICE38, this registry key has to be under the current user. When the service starts (it runs under the SYSTEM account) it notices that that registry key isn't valid (at least of that user) and runs the install again to "repair". In the Event Log I get MsiInstaller Events 1001 and 1004 showing that "The resource 'HKEY_CURRENT_USER\SOFTWARE\MyInstaller\Foo' does not exist." This isn't surprising since the SYSTEM user wouldn't have this key. I turned on system wide MSI logging and the auto-repair created its log file in the C:\Windows\Temp folder rather than a specific user's TEMP folder which seems to imply the current user was SYSTEM (plus the log file shows the "Calling process" to be my service). Is there something I can do to disable the auto-repair functionality? Am I doing something wrong or breaking some MSI rule? Any hints on where to look next?

    Read the article

  • Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

    - by Jack
    Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET control in one content area needs to reference a control in another content area

    - by harrije
    I have a master page that divides the main content into two areas. There are two asp:ContentPlaceHolder controls in the body section of the master page with IDs cphMain and cphSideBar respectively. One of the corresponding content pages has a control in cphMain that needs to refer to a control in cphSideBar. Specifically, a SqlDataSource in cphMain references a TextBox in cphSideBar to use as a parameter in the select command. When the content page loads the following run-time error occurs: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ControlParameter.Evaluate(HttpContext context, Control control) +1753150 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Parameter.UpdateValue(HttpContext context, Control control) +47 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ParameterCollection.UpdateValues(HttpContext context, Control control) +114 System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSource.LoadCompleteEventHandler(Object sender, EventArgs e) +43 System.EventHandler.Invoke(Object sender, EventArgs e) +0 System.Web.UI.Page.OnLoadComplete(EventArgs e) +8698566 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +735 I kinda know what the problem is... ASP.NET does not like the fact that the SqlDataSource and TextBox are in different asp:Content controls within the content page. As a workaround, I have another TextBox in cphMain with the SqlDataSource which has Visible=False. Then in the Page_Load() event handler the contents of the TextBox in cphSideBar is copied into the contents of the non-visible TextBox in cphMain. I get the results I want with the work around I've come up with, but it seems like such a hack. I was wondering if there is a better solution I'm missing. Please advise.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >