Search Results

Search found 5770 results on 231 pages for 'sense hofstede'.

Page 166/231 | < Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >

• How can I write classes that don't rely on "global" variables?

  - by Joel

  When I took my first programming course in university, we were taught that global variables were evil & should be avoided at all cost (since you can quickly develop confusing and unmaintainable code). The following year, we were taught object oriented programming, and how to create modular code using classes. I find that whenever I work with OOP, I use my classes' private variables as global variables, i.e., they can be (and are) read and modified by any function within the class. This isn't really sitting right with me, as it seems to introduce the same problems global variables had in languages like C. So I guess my question is, how do I stop writing classes with "global" variables? Would it make more sense to pretend I'm writing in a functional language? By this I mean having all functions take parameters & return values instead of directly modifying class variables. If I need to set any fields, I can just take the output of the function and assign it instead of having the function do it directly. This seems like it might make more maintainable code, at least for larger classes. What's common practice? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Sanitize a string with non-alphanum repetition

  - by Toto

  I need to sanitize article titles when (creative) users try to "attract attention" with some non-alphanum repetition. Exemples: Buy my product !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Buy my product !? !? !? !? !? !? Buy my product !!!!!!!!!.......!!!!!!!! Buy my product <----------- Some acceptable solution would be to reduce the repetition of non-alphanum to 2. So I would get: Buy my product !! Buy my product !? !? Buy my product !!..!! Buy my product <-- This solution did not work that well: preg_replace('/(\W{2,})(?=\1+)/', '', $title) Any idea how to do it in PHP with regex? Other better solution is also welcomed (I cannot strip all the non-alphanum characters as they can make sense). Edit: the objective is only to avoid most common issues. The other creative cases will be sanitized manually or sanitized with an other regex.

  Read the article

• How to register assemblies using Windsor in ASP.NET MVC

  - by oz

  This is how my project looks: TestMvc (my web project) has a reference to the DomainModel.Core assembly where my interfaces and business objects reside. The class that implements the interfaces in DomainModel.Core is in a different assembly called DomainModel.SqlRepository; the reason behind it is that if I just want to create a repository for Oracle I just have to deploy the new dll, change the web.config and be done with it. When I build the solution, if I look at the \bin folder of my TestMvc project, there is no reference to the DomainModel.SqlRepository, which makes sense because it's not being reference anywhere. Problem arises when my windsor controller factory tries to resolve that assembly, since it's not on the \bin directory. So is there a way to point windsor to a specific location, without adding a reference to that assembly? My web.config looks like this: <component id="UserService" service="TestMvc.DomainModel.Core.Interface, TestMvc.DomainModel.Core" type="TestMvc.DomainModel.SqlRepository.Class, TestMvc.DomainModel.SqlRepository" lifestyle="PerWebRequest" /> There's many ways around this, like copying the dll as part of the build, add the reference to the project so it will get copied to the \bin folder or install it on the GAC and add an assembly reference in the web.config. I guess my question is specific to Windsor, to see if I can give the location of my assembly and it will resolve it.

  Read the article

• SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

  - by Nev_Rahd

  Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

  Read the article

• Linq to XML: create an anonymous object with element attributes and values

  - by Phil Scholtes

  I'm new to Linq and I'm trying to query a XML document to find a list of account managers for a particular user. (I realize it might make more sense to put this in a database or something else, but this scenario calls for a XML document). <user emailAddress='[email protected]'> <accountManager department='Customer Service' title='Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> </user> I trying to create a list of objects (anonymous type?) with properties consisting of both XElement attributes (department, title) and values (email). I know that I can get either of the two, but my problem is selecting both. Here is what I'm trying: var managers = _xDoc.Root.Descendants("user") .Where(d => d.Attribute("emailAddress").Value == "[email protected]") .SelectMany(u => u.Descendants("accountManager").Select(a => a.Value)); foreach (var manager in managers) { //do stuff } I can get at a.Value and a.Attribute but I can't figure out how to get both and store them in an object. I have a feeling it would wind up looking something like: select new { department = u.Attribute("department").Value, title = u.Attribute("title").Value, email = u.Value };

  Read the article

• How would I write the following applescript in Obj-C AppScript? ASTranslate was of no help =(

  - by demonslayer319

  The translation tool isn't able to translate this working code. I copied it out of a working script. set pathToTemp to (POSIX path of ((path to desktop) as string)) -- change jpg to pict tell application "Image Events" try launch set albumArt to open file (pathToTemp & "albumart.jpg") save albumArt as PICT in file (pathToTemp & "albumart.pict") --the first 512 bytes are the PICT header, so it reads from byte 513 --this is to allow the image to be added to an iTunes track later. set albumArt to (read file (pathToTemp & "albumart.pict") from 513 as picture) close end try end tell The code is taking a jpg image, converting it to a PICT file, and then reading the file minus the header (the first 512 bytes). Later in the script, albumArt will be added to an iTunes track. I tried translating the code (minus the comments), but ASTranslate froze for a good 2 minutes before giving me this: Untranslated event 'earsffdr' #import "IEGlue/IEGlue.h" IEApplication *imageEvents = [IEApplication applicationWithName: @"Image Events"]; IELaunchCommand *cmd = [[imageEvents launch] ignoreReply]; id result = [cmd send]; #import "IEGlue/IEGlue.h" IEApplication *imageEvents = [IEApplication applicationWithName: @"Image Events"]; IEReference *ref = [[imageEvents files] byName: @"/Users/Doom/Desktop/albumart.jpg"]; id result = [[ref open] send]; #import "IEGlue/IEGlue.h" IEApplication *imageEvents = [IEApplication applicationWithName: @"Image Events"]; IEReference *ref = [[imageEvents images] byName: @"albumart.jpg"]; IESaveCommand *cmd = [[[ref save] in: [[imageEvents files] byName: @"/Users/Doom/Desktop/albumart.pict"]] as: [IEConstant PICT]]; id result = [cmd send]; 'crdwrread' Traceback (most recent call last): File "objcrenderer.pyc", line 283, in renderCommand KeyError: 'crdwrread' 'cascrgdut' Traceback (most recent call last): File "objcrenderer.pyc", line 283, in renderCommand KeyError: 'cascrgdut' 'crdwrread' Traceback (most recent call last): File "objcrenderer.pyc", line 283, in renderCommand KeyError: 'crdwrread' Untranslated event 'rdwrread' OK I have no clue how to make sense of this. Thanks for any and all help!

  Read the article

• COM Interop - Wait for Excel to Complete Operation

  - by roygbiv

  Hello, I am doing some COM Interop work with Excel and other Office Automation Software. A Co-Worker has mentioned to me that I need to wait for these Automation Servers to become ready after issuing a command to them. I, however, cannot see the purpose of this as don't all calls block until the automation server completes the given task? For example I would normally write: Dim o as AutomationObject = AutomationServer.CreateObject(x, y, z) o.Property ' could throw COM exception!!???? My co-worker says I need to sleep after that call because the the Automation Server could still be working on creating and initializing the object. Dim o as AutomationObject = AutomationServer.CreateObject(x, y, z) Threading.Sleep(5000) ' wait for AutomationServer to "become ready" o.Property ' could still throw COM exception!!???? The problem I have with this is that the AutomationServer calls should block until the AutomationServer finishes or completes what it was working on or at the very least it should be a loop checking if "o" is nothing, but that makes no sense because once the call returns its done! My question is, Is there any benefit to Sleeping after an AutomationServer call? Is there a method to "wait" until the AutomationServer finishes (if it does not in fact block)?

  Read the article

• JAXB - Beans to XSD or XSD to beans?

  - by bajafresh4life

  I have an existing data model. I would like to express this data model in terms of XML. It looks like I have two options if I'm to use JAXB: Create an XSD that mirrors my data model, and use xjc to create binding objects. Marshalling and unmarshalling will involve creating a "mapping" class that would take my existing data objects and map them to the objects that xjc created. For example, in my data model I have a Doc class, and JAXB would create another Doc class with basically the same exact fields, and I would have to map from my Doc class to xjc's Doc class. Annotate my existing data model with JAXB annotations, and use schemagen to generate an XSD from my annotated classes. I can see advantanges and disadvantages of both approaches. It seems that most people using JAXB start with the XSD file. It makes sense that the XSD should be the gold standard truth, since it expresses the data model in a truly cross-platform way. I'm inclined to start with the XSD first, but it seems icky that I have to write and maintain a separate mapping class that shuttles data in between my world and JAXB world. Any recommendations?

  Read the article

• Skipping one item in the column

  - by zurna

  I created a simple news website. I store both videos and images in IMAGES table. Videos added have videos and images added have images stored in a column called ImagesType. Images and Videos attached to a news is stored in ImagesID column of the NEWS table. My problem occurs when I need to display the first image of a news. i.e. IMAGES table: ImagesID ImagesLgURL ImagesType 1 /FLPM/media/videos/0H7T9C0F.flv videos 2 /FLPM/media/images/8R5D7M8O.jpg images 3 /FLPM/media/images/0E7Q9Z0C.jpg images NEWS table NewsID ImagesID NewsTitle 1 1;2; Street Chic: Paris ERROR 2 3; Paris Runway NO ERROR The following code give me an error with the 2nd news item because the first ImageID stored in the list is not an image but a video. I need to figure out a way to skip the video item and display the next image. I hope I made sense. SQL = "SELECT NEWSID, CATEGORIESID, IMAGESID, NEWSTITLE, NEWSSHORTDESC, NEWSACTIVE, NEWSDATEENTERED" SQL = SQL & " FROM NEWS N" SQL = SQL & " WHERE NEWSACTIVE = 1" SQL = SQL & " ORDER BY NEWSDATEENTERED DESC" Set objNews = objConn.Execute(SQL) Do While intLooper1 <= 3 And Not objNews.EOF IMAGES = Split(Left(objNews("IMAGESID"),Len(objNews("IMAGESID"))-1), ";") SQL = "SELECT ImagesID, ImagesName, ImagesLgURL, ImagesSmURL, ImagesType" SQL = SQL & " FROM IMAGES I" SQL = SQL & " WHERE ImagesID = " & IMAGES(0) & " AND ImagesType = 'images'" Set objLgImage = objConn.Execute(SQL) <div> <a href="?Section=news&SubSection=redirect&NEWSID=<%=objNews("NEWSID")%>"> <img src="<%=objLgImage("ImagesLgURL")%>" alt="<%=objLgImage("ImagesName")%>" /> </a> </div> <% objLgImage.Close Set objLgImage = Nothing intLooper1 = intLooper1 + 1 objNews.MoveNext Loop %>

  Read the article

• JAVASCRIPT changing on click

  - by Webby

  Hello, Id like some help changing this javascript onclick event to just load the data on page the page load... Preferably not using the body on load tag... So obviously I'd pre set the var for term inside the script term rather than the excisting on click event.. Hope that made sense <p><a id="keywordlink" href="?term=wombats">Get keywords for wombats</a></p> <script type="text/javascript" src="keywords.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var x = document.getElementById('keywordlink'); if(x){ x.onclick = function(){ var term = this.href.split('=')[1]; this.innerHTML += ' (loading...)'; KEYWORDS.get(term,seed); return false; } } function seed(o){ var div = document.createElement('div'); var head = document.createElement('h2'); head.innerHTML = 'Keywords for '+o.term; div.appendChild(head); var p = document.createElement('p'); p.innerHTML = o.toplist; div.appendChild(p); var head = document.createElement('h3'); head.innerHTML = 'Details:'; div.appendChild(head); var list = document.createElement('ol'); for(var i=0,j=o.keywords.length;i<j;i++){ var li = document.createElement('li'); li.innerHTML = o.keywords[i].term + '('+o.keywords[i].amount+')'; list.appendChild(li); } div.appendChild(list); x.parentNode.replaceChild(div,x); } </script>

  Read the article

• Reference-type conversion operators: asking for trouble?

  - by Ben

  When I compile the following code using g++ class A {}; void foo(A&) {} int main() { foo(A()); return 0; } I get the following error messages: > g++ test.cpp -o test test.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: test.cpp:10: error: invalid initialization of non-const reference of type ‘A&’ from a temporary of type ‘A’ test.cpp:6: error: in passing argument 1 of ‘void foo(A&)’ After some reflection, these errors make plenty of sense to me. A() is just a temporary value, not an assignable location on the stack, so it wouldn't seem to have an address. If it doesn't have an address, then I can't hold a reference to it. Okay, fine. But wait! If I add the following conversion operator to the class A class A { public: operator A&() { return *this; } }; then all is well! My question is whether this even remotely safe. What exactly does this point to when A() is constructed as a temporary value? I am given some confidence by the fact that void foo(const A&) {} can accept temporary values according to g++ and all other compilers I've used. The const keyword can always be cast away, so it would surprise me if there were any actual semantic differences between a const A& parameter and an A& parameter. So I guess that's another way of asking my question: why is a const reference to a temporary value considered safe by the compiler whereas a non-const reference is not?

  Read the article

• Comma Seperated Values and LIKE php/mysql Troubles

  - by Jay

  The Set up This is more or less a follow up question to something I had previously posted regarding comma separated values (explode,implode). Here's the scenario which has been stomping me the last few days as I'm a noob--sorry for the lengthy post. I'm passing a variable via the url (index.php?id=variable), I then check the database to find the rows containing that variable using SELECT * FROM table WHERE column LIKE '%$variable%' I'm using the wildcards because the results are a comma separated value with the variable appearing multiple times in the database. So if we were assigning-- say schools to popular tv shows..my database is set up so that the user can assign more than one school to the tv show. IE. South Park-- fsu, nyu ,mit Archer -- harvard, nyu Index.php?id=nyu would display Sourth Park & Archer. The Problem Because I am using Like '%variable%' If I have the following: South Park--uark Archer--ua index.php?=ua Instead of just Archer showing, Southpark would also show. Which makes sense due to the wildcards...but can anyone think of a way to do this achieving the results I want?..Is there any way achieve more precise results using a comma separated value?..I'm completely stomped and will appreciate any help.

  Read the article

• Socket errors of 10048 on the client? Possible causes?

  - by Earlz

  Hello, I'm writing a custom TCP server and client and on doing a ton of requests (60,000 to be exact) I begin to get this socket error of 10048, which should mean "the address is already in use." The error keeps happening unless I pause the process for like 2 or 3 minutes and then begin it again, and then it begins to bring up the same error a short while after restarting it. If I pause the client process and restart the server process, I still get the same error on the client. So it is a complete client side problem. This does not make sense though, this error only usually occurs when binding and this error happens on the client and not the server. What could be the possible reasons for it? A small excerpt of my initialization: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(); client.Connect("XXXXX -- some ip", 25000); client.NoDelay = true; NetworkStream clientStream = client.GetStream(); Also, everything else seems to be working fine(including the amount of time it takes to send back and forth) and this works perfectly when using 127.0.0.1 but when putting it on another LAN computer I begin to get the 10048 error. Is there something wrong with how I initialize it? What else could cause this error on the client side?

  Read the article

• How does it affect me as a developer/engineer/company that Android is open source

  - by danke

  I understand the concept of open source, but I just realized now that I understand it from only one view: when I open source my own code. I don't really understand what benefit I'm getting from receiving the same thing. As a regular developer (like the majority of us here), I did not spend the past 4 years of my life working on "developing" the android. So even though I'm a developer, I'm at the end of the developers chain when it comes to the Android (like most of us). I'm really more of an end user. So my interest in Android isn't really to dedicate all my time to it or work on improving its kernel or anything overly ambitious. So with that clear, as a developer considering developing for the Android, how does it really benefit me that it's open source? What's the added benefit that I'm missing? Can other developers share some concrete ways that its open source status actually affects us as developers. Basically I'm trying to understand how we, at this developer level, can make sense of the fact that it's open source, or is its open source status just hype for us at our end developer level. Thanks

  Read the article

• What is best strategy to handle exceptions & errors in Rails?

  - by Nick Gorbikoff

  Hello. I was wondering if people would share their best practices / strategies on handling exceptions & errors. Now I'm not asking when to throw an exception ( it has been throroughly answered here: SO: When to throw and Exception) . And I'm not using this for my application flow - but there are legitimate exceptions that happen all the time. For example the most popular one would be ActiveRecordNotFound. What would be the best way to handle it? The DRY way? Right now I'm doing a lot of checking within my controller so if Post.find(5) returns Nil - I check for that and throw a flash message. However while this is very granular - it's a bit cumbersome in a sense that I need to check for exceptions like that in every controller, while most of them are essentially the same and have to do with record not found or related records not found - such as either Post.find(5) not found or if you are trying to display comments related to post that doesn't exist, that would throw an exception (something like Post.find(5).comments[0].created_at) I know you can do something like this in ApplicationController and overwrite it later in a particular controller/method to get more granular support, however would that be a proper way to do it? class ApplicationController < ActionController::Base rescue_from ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid do |exception| render :action => (exception.record.new_record? ? :new : :edit) end end

  Read the article

• Access SSAS cube from across domains without direct database connection

  - by SuperKing

  Hello, I'm working with SQL Server Analysis Services for the first time and have the dilemma of working on a project in which users must be able to access SSAS Cubes (via a custom web dashboard) that live across different servers and domains, but without having access to the other server's SSAS database connection strings. So Organization A and Organization B will have their own cubes on their own servers, but Organization A users must be able to view Organization B's cubes, and Organization B users must be able to view Organization A's cubes, but neither organization should have access to the connection string. I've read about allowing HTTP access to the SSAS server and cube from the link below, but that requires setting up users for authentication or allowing anonymous access to one organization's server for users of another organization, and I'm not sure this would be acceptable for this situation, or if this is the preferred way to do this. Is performance acceptable here? http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc917711.aspx I also wonder if perhaps it makes sense to run a nightly/weekly process that accesses the other organization's SSAS database via a web service or something, and pull that data into a database on the organization's server, and then rebuild the cube. Then that cube would be queried without having to go and connect to the other organization server when viewing the cube. Has anyone else attempted to accomplish something similar? Is HTTP access the standard way to go for this? Or any other possible options? Thanks, and please let me know if you need more info, still unclear on how some of this works.

  Read the article

• Ability to draw and record a signature as part of a form - iphone

  - by mustic

  Apolgies in advance for any errors.. new to this and am not a developer/programmer.. just have some basic unix experience. I have searched the web and struggled to find a solution to my problem when I stumbled onto this website which maybe suggested that there is a solution to my question. For work i use a windows mobile device because we have to get customers to sign and form after a customer visit. the signature being very important. On the windows device i use the notes application and am able to record details and obtain/record (using draw) a customer signature. the form is then emailed back to HQ. The format being used is a *.pwi I have downloaded and paid for several applications for my iphone which is my preferred device and cant quite find anything that does both. the critical bit here is to be able to take a signature on the phone, save the doc in a format such as .txt, .doc or .pdf where i can control the file name then be able to email back to HQ. Am i asking too much? I hope that makes sense.. Any help would be much appreciated many thanks in advance

  Read the article

• need help passing multiple variables from foreach loop to test in switch case statement

  - by Brad

  $list_of_groups = array("FACULTY","STAFF"); foreach ($list_of_groups as $i => $group) { $user_in_group = $adldap->user_ingroup($username,$group); print "<h2>Group: ".$group." user in group? ".$user_in_group."</h2>"; // if 1, means yes } Need to print run the appropriate function based on what returns true. There are user's that are members of both FACULTY and STAFF groups, so I want to check for those users and display the appropriate content for them. So if the user is both faculty and staff, then display this, if they are only of staff, display that, same for faculty, might not make sense, but I will write out some code "in theory" that will help you understand what I am trying to do switch(Get group membership of user) { case "FACULTY": print "Faculty group member"; break; case "STAFF": print "Staff group member"; break; case "FACULTY and STAFF": print "Member of both faculty and staff"; break; } I am unsure on how it will check if they are members of both groups and run that thru the case statement to display the appropriate message. The foreach look currently runs thru every group the user belongs to, prints out the ones from the $list_of_groups and the number 1 to the right of it, signifying they belong to it. The problem I have is trying to use that information to run thru the case statement, I am unsure of how to go about that. This is what it prints out for the user currently passed thru the foreach loop: Group: FACULTY user in group? 1 Group: STAFF user in group? 1 Any help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• How to delete duplicate records in MySQL by retaining those fields with data in the duplicate item b

  - by NJTechGuy

  I have few thousands of records with few 100 fields in a MySQL Table. Some records are duplicates and are marked as such. Now while I can simply delete the dupes, I want to retain any other possible valuable non-null data which is not present in the original version of the record. Hope I made sense. For instance : a b c d e f key dupe -------------------- 1 d c f k l 1 x 2 g h j 1 3 i h u u 2 4 u r t 2 x From the above sample table, the desired output is : a b c d e f key dupe -------------------- 2 g c h k j 1 3 i r h u u 2 If you look at it closely, the duplicate is determined by using the key (it is the same for 2 records, so the one that has an 'x' for dupe field is the one to be deleted by retaining some of the fields from the dupe (like c, e values for key 1). Please let me know if you need more info about this puzzling problem. Thanks a tonne! p.s : If it is not possible using MySQL, a PERL/Python script sample would be awesome! Thanks!

  Read the article

• Where's the Win32 resource for the mouse cursor for dragging splitters?

  - by Luther Baker

  I am building a custom win32 control/widget and would like to change the cursor to a horizontal "splitter" symbol when hovering over a particular vertical line in the control. IE: I want to drag this vertical line (splitter bar) left and right (WEST and EAST). Of the the system cursors (OCR_*), the only cursor that makes sense is the OCR_SIZEWE. Unfortunately, that is the big, awkward cursor the system uses when resizing a window. Instead, I am looking for the cursor that is about 20 pixels tall and around 3 or 4 pixel wide with two small arrows pointing left and right. I can easily draw this and include it as a resource in my application but the cursor itself is so prevalent that I wanted to be sure it wasn't missing something. For example: when you use the COM drag and drop mechanism (CLSID_DragDropHelper, IDropTarget, etc) you implicitly have access to the "drag" icon (little box under the pointer). I didn't see an explicit OCR_* constant for this guy ... so likewise, if I can't find this splitter cursor outright, I am wondering if it is part of a COM object or something else in the win32 lib.

  Read the article

• Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

  - by pspahn

  Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

  Read the article

• How to make a model instance read-only after saving it once?

  - by Ryszard Szopa

  One of the functionalities in a Django project I am writing is sending a newsletter. I have a model, Newsletter and a function, send_newsletter, which I have registered to listen to Newsletter's post_save signal. When the newsletter object is saved via the admin interface, send_newsletter checks if created is True, and if yes it actually sends the mail. However, it doesn't make much sense to edit a newsletter that has already been sent, for the obvious reasons. Is there a way of making the Newsletter object read-only once it has been saved? Edit: I know I can override the save method of the object to raise an error or do nothin if the object existed. However, I don't see the point of doing that. As for the former, I don't know where to catch that error and how to communicate the user the fact that the object wasn't saved. As for the latter, giving the user false feedback (the admin interface saying that the save succeded) doesn't seem like a Good Thing. What I really want is allow the user to use the Admin interface to write the newsletter and send it, and then browse the newsletters that have already been sent. I would like the admin interface to show the data for sent newsletters in an non-editable input box, without the "Save" button. Alternatively I would like the "Save" button to be inactive.

  Read the article

• Detect IE version in Javascript

  - by Chad Decker

  I want to bounce users of our web site to an error page if they're using a version of Internet Explorer prior to v9. It's just not worth our time and money to support IE pre-v9. Users of all other non-IE browsers are fine and shouldn't be bounced. Here's the proposed code: if(navigator.appName.indexOf("Internet Explorer")!=-1){ //yeah, he's using IE var badBrowser=( navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 9")==-1 && //v9 is ok navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 1")==-1 //v10, 11, 12, etc. is fine too ); if(badBrowser){ // navigate to error page } } Will this code do the trick? To head off a few comments that will probably be coming my way: [1] Yes, I know that users can forge their useragent string. I'm not concerned. [2] Yes, I know that programming pros prefer sniffing out feature-support instead of browser-type but I don't feel this approach makes sense in this case. I already know that all (relevant) non-IE browsers support the features that I need and that all pre-v9 IE browsers don't. Checking feature by feature throughout the site would be a waste. [3] Yes, I know that someone trying to access the site using IE v1 (or = 20) wouldn't get 'badBrowser' set to true and the warning page wouldn't be displayed properly. That's a risk we're willing to take. [4] Yes, I know that Microsoft has "conditional comments" that can be used for precise browser version detection. IE no longer supports conditional comments as of IE 10, rendering this approach absolutely useless. Any other obvious issues to be aware of? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to make a persistent connection between a Python web service and a .Net WCF Client?

  - by Ad Hock

  I have a .Net 3.5 SOAP client written in C# using the WCF. It's expecting basicHTTPBinding and a persistent connection with HTTP/1.1. I'm trying to create a Python 2.6 application that will act as a web-service for the client. My problem is that the client keeps closing the connection and opening a new one for every command to the web service. How does the .Net WCF client know to stay open when connecting with a .Net Service? When I create a dummy .Net web service the client connects fine and the connection remains persistent. From what I can tell, when connected to a .Net server, there are no special HTTP headers being sent, that makes sense since HTTP/1.1 assumes a persistent connection unless otherwise specified (right?). However, with the python web service I accept/open a connection and eventually the client will send a TCP FIN and the connection will close (the client never sends a FIN or RST when connecting to a .Net service). The communication goes something like this: Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #1 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- Body of Command #1 Outgoing -- ACK Command #1 (HTTP headers and body) Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #2 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- TCP FIN <Connection closes> <New connection opens and SOAP command #2 (with full HTTP headers) is sent> I'm using a SocketServer.ThreadingTCPServer as the server and a BaseHTTPServer.BaseHTTPRequestHandler for any requests. The handler is actually a derived class of that with a do_POST method to handle the HTTP headers. I've looked at WireShark captures and I'm stumped. I've tried setting socket options to SO_KEEPALIVE and SO_REUSEADDR in the server but that didn't seem to change anything. What am I missing?

  Read the article

• Project with multiple binaries in Eclipse CDT

  - by Robert Schneider

  I think it is quite normal to have more than one binary in a project. However, with Eclipse CDT I don't know how to set up the IDE to get things done. I know I can create several projects - one per binary. And I know I can set the dependencies per project. However, I cannot regard them as one project in Eclipse. If I'd like to share the code with a version control system (like svn), each developer has to import the projects separately. What I miss is something like the Solution (sln file) in Visual Studio. Should I create a single project and create the make files by myself? I haven't tried it out yet, but there is this 'project set' which can be ex- and imported. Is this the solution? Can this be put into version control? My goal it to put everything under version control, not only subprojects. I cannot imagine that CDT makes only sense for single-binary applications. How can I work properly?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >