Search Results

Search found 5224 results on 209 pages for 'modify'.

Page 167/209 | < Previous Page | 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174  | Next Page >

• Uncrackable anti-piracy protection/DRM even possible? [closed]

  - by some guy

  I hope that this is programming-related enough. You have probably heard about Ubisofts recent steps against piracy. (New DRM requires a constant connection to the Ubisoft server) Many people including me see this as intolerable because the only ones suffering from it at the end are the paying customers. Now to the actual question(s): Ubisoft justified this by calling this mechanism "Uncrackable, only playable by the paying customers". Is a so called uncrackable DRM even possible? You can reverse-engineer and modify everything, even if it takes long. Isn't Ubisoft already lying by calling something not crackable? I mean, hey - With the game you get all its content (textures, models, you know) and some anti-piracy mechanism hardcoded into it. How could that be "uncrackable"? You can just patch the unwanted mechanisms out ---- "Pirates" play the cracked game without problems and the paying customers are the idiots by having constant problems with the game and being unable to play it without a (working) internet connection. What are the points Ubisoft sees in this? If they are at least a bit intelligent and informed they know their anti-piracy protection won't last long. All they get is lower sales, angry customers and happy pirates and crackers.

  Read the article

• unable to set fields of a collection-property elements after changing their order (elements becoming

  - by Jaroslav Záruba

  Hello I want to change order of objects in a collection, and then to access+modify fields of those items. Unfortunately the items somehow become 'deleted'. This is what I do... if(someCondition) { MainEvent mainEvent = pm.getObjectById(MainEvent.class, mainEventKey); /* * events in the original order * MainEvent.subEvents field is not in default fetch group, * therefore I also tried to add the named group into the * persistenceManeger fetch plan, no difference * (mainEvent is not instance of the Event sub/class BTW) */ List<Event> subEvents = mainEvent.getSubEvents(); // re-arrange the events according to keysOrdered { Map<Key, Event> eventMap = new HashMap<Key, Event>(); for(Event event : subEvents) eventMap.put(event.getKey(), event); List<Event> eventsOrdered = new LinkedList<Event>(); for(Key eventKey : keysOrdered) eventsOrdered.add(eventMap.put(eventKey, eventMap.get(eventKey))); // } // put the re-arranged items back into the collection property { subEvents.clear(); subEvents.addAll(eventsOrdered); // } pm.makePersistent(mainEvent); eventsOrdered = subEvents; } else eventsOrdered = getEventsUsingAlternateApproach(); /* * so by now the mainEvent variable does not exist; * could it be this lead the persistence manager to mark * my events as abandoned/obsolete/invalid/deleted...? */ for(Event event : eventsOrdered) event.setDate(new Date()); // -> "Cannot write fields to a deleted object" What am I doing wrong please?

  Read the article

• Animation is slow on iPhone

  - by Anthony Chan

  I'm developing an app that would display images and change them according to the user's action. I've created a subclass of UIView to contain an image, an index number and an array of image names. The code is like this: @interface CustomPic : UIView { UIImageView *pic; NSInteger index; NSMutableArray *picNames; //<-- an array of NSString } And in the implementation part, it has a method to change the image using a dissolve effect. - (void)nextPic { index++; if (index >= [picNames count]) { index = 0; } UIImageView *temp = pic; pic.image = [UIImage imageNamed:[picNames objectAtIndex:index]]; temp.alpha = 0; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseOut]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.25]; pic.alpha = 0; temp.alpha = 1; [UIView commitAnimations]; } In the viewController, there are several CustomPic which would change the images depends on users' choice. The images would change as expected with the fade in/out effect, but the animation performance is really bad. I've tested it on an iPhone 3G, the Instruments shows that the animation is only 2-3FPS! I tried many methods to simplify and modify the codes but with no hope. Is there something wrong in my code or in my concept? Thanks for any help. P.S. all the images are 320*480 PNGs with a max size of 15KB.

  Read the article

• Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

  - by Ahmad

  Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

  Read the article

• Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

  - by Ryan Norbauer

  I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

  Read the article

• EPL (Eclipse Public Licence) for commercial usage

  - by code-gijoe

  Hi, I'm developing an application which requires a third party framework which is under an Eclipse Public Licence (EPL). The application is a server-side commercial application which will be running on my servers. The EPL software is distributed as binaries (jar files). I'm only using the packages and am not making any contribution, i.e. not making any changes to the source. Under EPL I believe I'm not a "Contributor" nor am I making a "Contribution". But if I want to make my software available to be installed at some offsite server I'm having trouble with REQUIREMENTS of EPL: b.iv - "states that source code for the Program is available from such Contributor, and informs licensees how to obtain it in a reasonable manner on or through a medium customarily used for software exchange". Does this mean that if I where to modify the source code of the 3rd party framework for my own purposes I would need to distribute all of my source code? EPL is supposed to be commercially friendly but it doesn't seem that way to me. Thank you.

  Read the article

• How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

  - by ShaneC

  I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

  Read the article

• Need to add WHERE condition to query

  - by Angel Carlson

  I am trying to modify edit_orders.php in Zen Cart. Hoping someone might be able to help me add a condition to a query. I need the queries below to specify that the items selected from TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION and TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION must have a language_id = 1. Would be so grateful for any help you could provide. // ############################################################################ // Get List of All Products // ############################################################################ //$result = zen_db_query("SELECT products_name, p.products_id, x.categories_name, ptc.categories_id FROM " . TABLE_PRODUCTS . " p LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION . " pd ON pd.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_TO_CATEGORIES . " ptc ON ptc.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " cd ON cd.categories_id=ptc.categories_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " x ON x.categories_id=ptc.categories_id ORDER BY categories_id"); $result = $db -> Execute("SELECT products_name, p.products_id, categories_name, ptc.categories_id FROM " . TABLE_PRODUCTS . " p LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION . " pd ON pd.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_TO_CATEGORIES . " ptc ON ptc.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " cd ON cd.categories_id=ptc.categories_id ORDER BY categories_name");

  Read the article

• Website: Make printable version with footnotes?

  - by DavidR

  I have a website that uses editable divs so that a user can modify or make notes to a text. Is there a way I can have the website generate a pdf or some printable document with footnotes, such that if a user has this: <div class="text" id="text_1"> <div class="bodyTest">This is the body text</div> <div class="notes">These are the notes</div> </div> <div class="text" id="text_2"> <div class="bodyTest">This is the body text</div> <div class="notes">These are the notes</div> </div> the website will generate a printable version (or document) in such a way thatdiv.notes will appear as a footnote on the same page on which div#text_1 appears? I don't need a full answer, just a shove in the general direction will be amazing. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Group panel of WPF ListBox

  - by rulestein

  I have a listbox that is grouping the items with a GroupStyle. I would like add a control at the bottom of the stackpanel that holds all of the groups. This additional control needs to be part of the scrolling content so that the user would scroll to the bottom of the list to see the control. If I were using a listbox without the groups, this task would be easy by modifying the ListBox template. However, with the items grouped, the ListBox template seems to only apply on a per group basis. I can modify the GroupStyle.Panel, but that doesn't allow me to add items to that panel. <ListBox> <ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <WrapPanel/> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ListBox.GroupStyle> <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.Panel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VirtualizingStackPanel/> **<----- I would like to add a control to this stackpanel** </ItemsPanelTemplate> </GroupStyle.Panel> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Grid> <ItemsPresenter /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> </GroupStyle> </ListBox.GroupStyle> This should give an idea of what I need to do:

  Read the article

• jboss cache as hibernate 2nd level - cluster node doesn't persist replicated data

  - by Sergey Grashchenko

  I'm trying to build an architecture basically described in user guide http://www.jboss.org/file-access/default/members/jbosscache/freezone/docs/3.2.1.GA/userguide_en/html/cache_loaders.html#d0e3090 (Replicated caches with each cache having its own store.) but having jboss cache configured as hibernate second level cache. I've read manual for several days and played with the settings but could not achieve the result - the data in memory (jboss cache) gets replicated across the hosts, but it's not persisted in the datasource/database of the target (not original) cluster host. I had a hope that a node might become persistent at eviction, so I've got a cache listener and attached it to @NoveEvicted event. I found that though I could adjust eviction policy to fully control it, no any persistence takes place. Then I had a though that I could try to modify CacheLoader to set "passivate" to true, but I found that in my case (hibernate 2nd level cache) I don't have a way to access a loader. I wonder if replicated data persistence is possible at all by configuration tuning ? If not, will it work for me to create some manual peristence in CacheListener (I could check whether the eviction event is local, and if not - persist it to hibernate datasource somehow) ? I've used mvcc-entity configuration with the modification of cacheMode - set to REPL_ASYNC. I've also played with the eviction policy configuration. Last thing to mention is that I've tested entty persistence and replication in project that has been generated with Seam. I guess it's not important though.

  Read the article

• [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

  - by Jergason

  I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

  Read the article

• how to change ASP.NET Configuration tool connection string

  - by Zviadi

  Hello, how can I change ASP.NET Configuration tool-s connection string name? (Which connection string will ASP.NET Configuration tool will use) I'm learning ASP.NET and everywhere and in book that I'm reading now theres connection string named: LocalSqlServer. I want to use my local sql server database instead of sql express to store Roles, Membership and other data. I have used aspnet_regsql.exe to create needed data structures in my database. after that I changed my web.config to look like: <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> but when I run ASP.NET Configuration tool it says that: "The connection name 'ApplicationServices' was not found in the applications configuration or the connection string is empty." ASP.NET Configuration tool uses connection string named: ApplicationServices not LocalSqlServer. cause of that I have to modify web.config to: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> and everything works fine. I wish to know why the hell my web site uses connection string named: ApplicationServices and all books and online documentations uses LocalSqlServer? and how to change it to LocalSqlServer? I have: Windows 7 Sql Server 2008 R2 Visual Studio 2010 Premium Project type is website

  Read the article

• Return latitude/longitude based on entered address

  - by Don

  I'm building a php based application for a client to enter in addresses for their customers' buildings. They'd like the ability to view the location on a map (either as individuals or grouped in a city search). What I'm trying to accomplish is a lookup once the address is entered into a form that populates the database, so after they enter in the addresss, city, state, zip (these are all US locations) they could click a "get lat/long info" link/button that would check to make sure the data is complete, then would lookup the address and return the latitude/longitude into the appropriate form fields. Then the form could be submitted to store the info, and I could later just pull the lat/long when plotting on a map. 1) Does this make sense, or would I be better off just doing the lookup when it's time to plot it? 2) Does anyone have any pointers to solve this problem? I've seen some of the Google/Yahoo API's but it looks like this is more based on the plotting a point part. I may be able to modify it to suit my needs, but I'm just trying to cut some research time posting here with the hopes one of you may have a more direct route. I'll RTFM if I have to... Thanks, D.

  Read the article

• need code for search another character

  - by klox

  hi,all..i have this code: var str = "KD-R435MUN2D"; var hasUD; var patt1 = str.match(/U/gi); var patt2 = str.match(/D/gi); if (patt1 && patt2) { hasUD = 'UD'; } else { hasUD = false; } document.write(hasUD); how to modify this code if i want search JD from var str="KD-S35JWD"..i try this but doesn't work: <script type="text/javascript"> var str = "KD-R435jwd"; var hasUD; var hasJD; var patt1 = str.match(/U/gi); var patt2 = str.match(/J/gi); var patt3 = str.match(/D/gi); if (patt1 && patt3) { hasUD = 'UD'; document.write(hasUD); } elseif (patt2 && patt3) { hasJD = 'JD'; document.write(hasJD); } </script>

  Read the article

• How do I make JPA POJO classes + Netbeans forms play well together?

  - by Zak

  I started using netbeans to design forms to edit the instances of various classes I have made in a small app I am writing. Basically, the app starts, an initial set of objects is selected from the DB and presented in a list, then an item in the list can be selected for editing. When the editor comes up it has form fields for many of the data fields in the class. The problem I run into is that I have to create a controller that maps each of the data elements to the correct form element, and create an inordinate number of small conversion mapping lines of code to convert numbers into strings and set the correct element in a dropdown, then another inordinate amount of code to go back and update the underlying object with all the values from the form when the save button is clicked. My question is; is there a more directly way to make the editing of the form directly modify the contents of my class instance? I would like to be able to have a default mapping "controller" that I can configure, then override the getter/setter for a particular field if needed. Ideally, there would be standard field validation for things like phone numbers, integers, floats, zip codes, etc... I'm not averse to writing this myself, I would just like to see if it is already out there and use the right tool for the right job.

  Read the article

• Is there a default way to get hold of an internal property in jQueryUi widget?

  - by prodigitalson

  Im using an existing widget from the jquery-ui labs call selectmenu. It has callback options for the events close and open. The problem is i need in these event to animate a node that is part of the widget but not what its connected to. In order to do this i need access to this node. for example if i were to actually modify the widget code itself: // ... other methods/properties "open" : function(event){ // ... the original logic // this is my animation $(this.list).slideUp('slow'); // this is the orginal call to _trigger this._trigger('open', event, $this._uiHash()); }, // ... other methods/properties However when in the scope of the event handler i attach this is the orginal element i called the widget on. I need the widget instance or specifically the widget instance's list property. $('select#custom').selectmenu({ 'open': function(){ // in this scope `this` is an HTMLSelectElement not the ui widget } }); Whats the best way to go about getting the list property from the widget?

  Read the article

• jQuery removing elements from DOM put still reporting as present

  - by RyanP13

  Hi, I have an address finder system whereby a user enters a postcode, if postcode is validated then an address list is returned and displayed, they then select an address line, the list dissappears and then the address line is split further into some form inputs. The issue i am facing is when they have been through the above process then cleared the postcode form field, hit the find address button and the address list re-appears. Event though the list and parent tr have been removed from the DOM it is still reporting it is present as length 1? My code is as follows: jQuery // when postcode validated display box var $addressList = $("div#selectAddress > ul").length; // if address list present show the address list if ($addressList != 0) { $("div#selectAddress").closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } // address list hidden by default // if coming back to modify details then display address inputs var $customerAddress = $("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); var $addressInputs = $.cookies.get('cpqbAddressInputs'); if ($addressInputs) { if ($addressInputs == 'visible') { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } } else { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").addClass("hide"); } // Need to change form action URL to call post code web service $("input.findAddress").live('click', function(){ var $postCode = encodeURI($("input#customerPostcode").val()); if ($postCode != "") { var $formAction = "customerAction.do?searchAddress=searchAddress&custpc=" + $postCode; $("form#detailsForm").attr("action", $formAction); } else { alert($addressList);} }); // darker highlight when li is clicked // split address string into corresponding inputs $("div#selectAddress ul li").live('click', function(){ $(this).removeClass("addressHover"); //$("li.addressClick").removeClass("addressClick"); $(this).addClass("addressClick"); var $splitAddress = $(this).text().split(","); $($customerAddress).each(function(){ var $inputCount = $(this).index("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); $(this).val($splitAddress[$inputCount]); }); $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); $.cookies.set('cpqbAddressInputs', 'visible'); $(this).closest("tr").fadeOut(250, function() { $(this).remove(); }); });

  Read the article

• Android Maven and Refresh Problem

  - by antonio Musella

  Hi all, i've a strange problem with maven and android I've 3 maven project and 2 normal java maven project divided in this manner : normal project : model project ... packaged as jar ... contains java Pojo Bean and Interface. Dao Project ... packaged as jar ... contains Db Logic - Depend on model Project Android Application Maven project ContentProvider ... packaged as apk ... contains ContentProviders only. Depends on Dao Project Editors ... packaged as apk ... contains only Editor, Depends on Dao project MainApp ... packaged as apk ... contains MyApp, Depends on DAO ... The Problem is that if i modify DAO Project , Then do a maven clean and maven install of all apk project, then run as Android Application within Eclipse, i don't see updated app on my Emulator. Nicely if i shut down my ubuntu workstation and restart it i can see The updated app on my Emulator. Do you know a solution for this issue ? thanks and regards

  Read the article

• VS2010 Web Deploy: how to remove absolute paths and automate setAcl?

  - by Julien Lebosquain

  The integrated Web Deployment in Visual Studio 2010 is pretty nice. It can create a package ready to be deployed using MSDeploy on a target IIS machine. Problem is, this package will be redistributed to a client that will install it himself using the "Import Application" from IIS when MSDeploy is installed. The default package created always include the full path from the development machine, "D:\Dev\XXX\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp" in the source manifest file. It doesn't prevent installation of course since it was designed this way, but it looks ugly in the import dialog and has no meaning to the client. Worse he will wonder what are those paths and it looks quite confusing. By customizing the .csproj file (by adding MSBuild properties used by the package creation task), I managed to add additional parameters to the package. However, I spent most of the afternoon in the 2600 lines long Web.Publishing.targets trying to understand what parameter influenced the "development path" behavior, in vain. I also tried to use the setAcl to customize security on a given folder after deployment, but I only managed to do this with MSBuild by using a relative path... it shouldn't matter if I resolve the first problem though. I could modify the generated archive after its creation but I would prefer if everything was automatized using MSBuild. Does anyone know how to do that?

  Read the article

• Executing untrusted code

  - by MainMa

  Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

  Read the article

• Methods to Analyze Sell Orders (in a video game)

  - by Travis

  I'm building a market manager for EVE, but this problem should be solvable without any prior knowledge of the game. Basically, sell orders in EVE look like this: All I'm really concerned with is picking a good price. The numbers the program would pick are sent out to our production team so they can buy the items to build things. Just like in a real market, the numbers we send off need to reflect the cheapest price that still offers a good quantity. Also, available quantities change over time, so we can't just pick the lowest listed price. For example, in the screencap above, we would set the sell price between 2,800.00 ISK and 3,000.00 ISK, even if only 500 units were needed. Even though the cheapest order would fit the quantity, it would probably quickly disappear. It would be better to set the price a tad higher so we don't underpay the production people. The Question: It's easy enough to figure prices out just by looking at the data, but I can't figure out how to have a program [java] do it. Different items sell with much less or more quantities (i.e. 3 or 300 or 3000 items) so the program has to be able to modify itself based on the offerings. I don't really want code as much as I do a way to think this through. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• How do I perform a flip and grow animation like in iPhoto 09?

  - by Austin

  I'm developing a Cocoa application and want to be able to click a button in one of the views in my NSCollectionView and have a details view flip open and position to the middle of the screen like it does in iPhoto 09 when you click the "i" in the bottom-right hand corner of a photo. The photo "flips" and grows, centered on the window to reveal details about the photo. I'm guessing they're using Core Animation to achieve this. I've been looking at the Lemur Flip example, but when I try to modify it to add repositioning code to the animation, it throws off the flip. Here is the positioning code I've added to the - (IBAction)flip:(id)sender; code of LemurFlip: ... [CATransaction begin]; { NSSize supersize = contentView.frame.size; // Size of window content view NSSize subsize = frontView.frame.size; // Size of view we're flipping out if(!frontView.isHidden) { // Move views to middle of the window [[backView animator] setFrameOrigin:NSMakePoint((supersize.width / 2) - (subsize.width / 2), (supersize.height / 2) - (subsize.height / 2))]; [[frontView animator] setFrameOrigin:NSMakePoint((supersize.width / 2) - (subsize.width / 2), (supersize.height / 2) - (subsize.height / 2))]; } else { // Return views to point of origin [[backView animator] setFrameOrigin:NSMakePoint(0, 0)]; [[frontView animator] setFrameOrigin:NSMakePoint(0, 0)]; } [hiddenLayer addAnimation:[self _flipAnimationWithDuration:flipDuration isFront:NO] forKey:@"flipGroup"]; [visibleLayer addAnimation:[self _flipAnimationWithDuration:flipDuration isFront:YES] forKey:@"flipGroup"]; } [CATransaction commit]; ... Is there a good example of how to do this or some rules for combining these sort of animations?

  Read the article

• Add an item to the Finder/Save dialog sidebar

  - by Clinton Blackmore

  I'm working on a script where a user logs into a guest account on OS and is prompted for their network credentials in order to mount their network home folder (while they benefit from working on a local user folder). As the guest folder is deleted when users log out, I want to discourage them from saving anything there. I would like to replace the items on the Finder and Open/Save sidebar lists (such as "Desktop", username, "Documents", etc) with ones that would save into their network home folder. It is possible to do this using AppleScript or Cocoa APIs, or do I need to modify a plist and restart the Finder? [Ack. Looking into ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.sidebars.plist, it isn't at all clear how I'd populate it.] Similar Questions: AppleScript: adding mounted folder to Finder Sidebar? suggests using fstab; this code will most likely run as a user and really, automounting at that point would be too late. How do you programmatically put folder icons on the Finder sidebar, given that you have to use a custom icon for the folder? Says there is no Cocoa API, but that you can use a carbon-style LSSharedFileList API that is only documented in a single header file. Does anyone know of some example code to add an item to the Finder sidebar?

  Read the article

• How can I have sub-elements of a complex/mixed type with unrestricted order and count?

  - by mbmcavoy

  I am working with XML where some elements will contain text with additional markup. This is similar to this example at W3Schools. However, I need the markup tags to be able to appear in any order and possibly more than once. To modify their example for illustration: <letter> Dear Mr.<name>John Smith</name>. Your order <orderid>1032</orderid> will be shipped on <shipdate>2001-07-13</shipdate>. Thank you, <name>Bob Adams</name> </letter> None of the options presented by W3Schools (on the page following the linked example) allow this XML due to the second <name> element. Their explanation of the "indicators" and my testing are consistent. <xs:sequence> - violates the element order <xs:choice> - more than one kind of element is used. <xs:all> - maxOccurs is restricted to "1". This seems like it should be basic, after all, XHTML allows such things. How do I define my schema to allow this?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174  | Next Page >