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  • ColdFusion Session issue - multiple users behind one proxy IP -- cftoken and cfid seems to be shared

    - by smoothoperator
    Hi Everyone, I have an application that uses coldfusion's session management (instead of the J2EE) session management. We have one client, who has recently switched their company's traffic to us to come viaa proxy server in their network. So, to our Coldfusion server, it appears that all traffic is coming from this one IP Address, for all of the accounts of this one company.. Of the session variables, Part 1 is kept in a cflock, and Part 2 is kept in editable session variables. I may be misundestanding, but we have done it this way as we modify some values as needed throughout the application's usage. We are now running into an issue of this client having their session variables mixed up (?). We have one case where we set a timestamp.. and when it comes time to look it up, it's empty. From the looks of it this is happening because of another user on the same token. My initial thoughts are to look into modifying our existing session management to somehow generate a unique cftoken/cfid, or to start using jsession_ID, if this solves the problem at all. I have done some basic research on this issue and couldn't find anything similar, so I thought I'd ask here. Thanks!

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  • Incremental deploy from a shell script

    - by WishCow
    I have a project, where I'm forced to use ftp as a means of deploying the files to the live server. I'm developing on linux, so I hacked together a bash script that makes a backup of the ftp server's contents, deletes all the files on the ftp, and uploads all the fresh files from the mercurial repository. (and taking care of user uploaded files and folders, and making post-deploy changes, etc) It's working well, but the project is starting to get big enough to make the deployment process too long. I'd like to modify the script to look up which files have changed, and only deploy the modified files. (the backup is fine atm as it is) I'm using mercurial as a VCS, so my idea is to somehow request the changed files between two revisions from it, iterate over the changed files, and upload each modified file, and delete each removed file. I can use hg log -vr rev1:rev2, and from the output, I can carve out the changed files with grep/sed/etc. Two problems: I have heard the horror stories that parsing the output of ls leads to insanity, so my guess is that the same applies to here, if I try to parse the output of hg log, the variables will undergo word-splitting, and all kinds of transformations. hg log doesn't tell me a file is modified/added/deleted. Differentiating between modified and deleted files would be the least. So, what would be the correct way to do this? I'm using yafc as an ftp client, in case it's needed, but willing to switch.

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  • Excessive use of Inner Join for more than 3 tables

    - by Archangel08
    Good Day, I have 4 tables on my DB (not the actual name but almost similar) which are the ff: employee,education,employment_history,referrence employee_id is the name of the foreign key from employee table. Here's the example (not actual) data: **Employee** ID Name Birthday Gender Email 1 John Smith 08-15-2014 Male [email protected] 2 Jane Doe 00-00-0000 Female [email protected] 3 John Doe 00-00-0000 Male [email protected] **Education** Employee_ID Primary Secondary Vocation 1 Westside School Westshore H.S SouthernBay College 2 Eastside School Eastshore H.S NorthernBay College 3 Northern School SouthernShore H.S WesternBay College **Employment_History** Employee_ID WorkOne StartDate Enddate 1 StarBean Cafe 12-31-2012 01-01-2013 2 Coffebucks Cafe 11-01-2012 11-02-2012 3 Latte Cafe 01-02-2013 04-05-2013 Referrence Employee_ID ReferrenceOne Address Contact 1 Abraham Lincoln Lincoln Memorial 0000000000 2 Frankie N. Stein Thunder St. 0000000000 3 Peter D. Pan Neverland Ave. 0000000000 NOTE: I've only included few columns though the rest are part of the query. And below are the codes I've been working on for 3 consecutive days: $sql=mysql_query("SELECT emp.id,emp.name,emp.birthday,emp.pob,emp.gender,emp.civil,emp.email,emp.contact,emp.address,emp.paddress,emp.citizenship,educ.employee_id,educ.elementary,educ.egrad,educ.highschool,educ.hgrad,educ.vocational,educ.vgrad,ems.employee_id,ems.workOne,ems.estartDate,ems.eendDate,ems.workTwo,ems.wstartDate,ems.wendDate,ems.workThree,ems.hstartDate,ems.hendDate FROM employee AS emp INNER JOIN education AS educ ON educ.employee_id='emp.id' INNER JOIN employment_history AS ems ON ems.employee_id='emp.id' INNER JOIN referrence AS ref ON ref.employee_id='emp.id' WHERE emp.id='$id'"); Is it okay to use INNER JOIN this way? Or should I modify my query to get the results that I wanted? I've also tried to use LEFT JOIN but still it doesn't return anything .I didn't know where did I go wrong. You see, as I have thought, I've been using the INNER JOIN in correct manner, (since it was placed before the WHILE CLAUSE). So I couldn't think of what could've possible went wrong. Do you guys have a suggestion? Thanks in advance.

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  • Using a join with three tables when a field might be null

    - by John
    Hello, The code below works great. It combines data from two MySQL tables. I would like to modify it by pulling in some data from a third MySQL table called "comment." In the HTML table below, "title" is a field in the MySQL table "submission." Every "title" has a corresponding "submissionid" field. The field "submissionid" is also found in the "comment" MySQL table. In the HTML table below, I would like "countComments" to equal the number of times a field called "commentid" appears in the MySQL table "comment" for any given "submissionid," where the "submissionid" is the same in both the "submission" and "comment" tables, and where the "submissionid" corresponds to the "title" being used. Here's the catch: if there is no row in the MySQL table "comment" that corresponds with the "submissionid" being used for "table", I would like "countComments" to equal to zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username FROM submission AS s, login AS l WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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  • Regular expression to Match addresses

    - by Burfi
    I have below set of strings to be searched : 1Dept Neurosci, The Univ. of New Mexico, ALBUQUERQUE, NM; 2Mol. and Human Genet., Baylor Col. of Med., Houston,, TX; 3Psychiatry, Univ. of Texas Southwestern Med. Ctr., Dallas, TX; 4Clin. Genet., Erasmus Univ. Med. Ctr., Rotterdam, Netherlands; 5Human Genet., Emory Univ., Atlanta, GA Above is a set of addresses , which starts with a digit (used to link it to the person).Need to search all the address as : 1Dept Neurosci, The Univ. of New Mexico, ALBUQUERQUE, NM 2Mol. and Human Genet., Baylor Col. of Med., Houston,, TX 3Psychiatry, Univ. of Texas Southwestern Med. Ctr., Dallas, TX 4Clin. Genet., ErasmusUniv. Med. Ctr., Rotterdam, Netherlands 5Human Genet., Emory Univ.Atlanta, GA I have written the below Regex : \d\w+,* It only matches a digit followed by a word . How can I modify it .Please suggest is there any better way.

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  • Complex SQL design, help/advice needed

    - by eugeneK
    Hi, i have few questions for SQL gurus in here ... Briefly this is ads management system where user can define campaigns for different countries, categories, languages. I have few questions in mind so help me with what you can. Generally i'm using ASP.NET and i want to cache all result set of certain user once he asks for statistics for the first time, this way i will avoid large round-trips to server. any help is welcomed Click here for diagram with all details you need for my questions 1.Main issue of this application is to show to the user how many clicks/impressions were and how much money he spent on campaign. What is the easiest way to get this information for him? I will also include filtering by date, date ranges and few other params in this statistics table. 2.Other issue is what happens when user will try to edit campaign. Old campaign will die this means if user set 0.01$ as campaignPPU (pay-per-unit) and next day updates it to 0.05$ all will be reset to 0.05$. 3.If you could re-design some parts of table design so it would be more flexible and easier to modify, how would you do it? Thanks... sorry for so large job but it may interest some SQL guys in here

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  • Validating a value for a DataColumn

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hello! I'm using a DataGrid with edit functionalities in my project. It's handy, compared to having to edit its source data manually, but sadly, that means that I'll have to deal with validating user input a bit more. And my problem is basically just that. When I set my DataGrid to EDIT mode, modify the values and then set it to UPDATE, what is the best way to check if a value that I've entered is, in fact, compatible with the corresponding column's data type? i.e. (simple example) // assuming DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("aa",typeof(System.Int32)); DataGrid dg = new DataGrid(); dg.DataSource = dt; dg.DataBind(); dg.UpdateCommand += dg_Update; // this is the update handler protected void dg_Update(object src, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { string newValue = (someValueIEnteredInTextBox); // HOW DO I CHECK IF [newValue] IS COMPATIBLE WITH COLUMN "aa" ABOVE? dt.LoadDataRow(newValue, true); } Thanks guys. Any leads would be so much help.

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  • Manhattan Heuristic function for A-star (A*)

    - by Shawn Mclean
    I found this algorithm here. I have a problem, I cant seem to understand how to set up and pass my heuristic function. static public Path<TNode> AStar<TNode>(TNode start, TNode destination, Func<TNode, TNode, double> distance, Func<TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> { var closed = new HashSet<TNode>(); var queue = new PriorityQueue<double, Path<TNode>>(); queue.Enqueue(0, new Path<TNode>(start)); while (!queue.IsEmpty) { var path = queue.Dequeue(); if (closed.Contains(path.LastStep)) continue; if (path.LastStep.Equals(destination)) return path; closed.Add(path.LastStep); foreach (TNode n in path.LastStep.Neighbours) { double d = distance(path.LastStep, n); var newPath = path.AddStep(n, d); queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n), newPath); } } return null; } As you can see, it accepts 2 functions, a distance and a estimate function. Using the Manhattan Heuristic Distance function, I need to take 2 parameters. Do I need to modify his source and change it to accepting 2 parameters of TNode so I can pass a Manhattan estimate to it? This means the 4th param will look like this: Func<TNode, TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> and change the estimate function to: queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n, path.LastStep), newPath); My Manhattan function is: private float manhattanHeuristic(Vector3 newNode, Vector3 end) { return (Math.Abs(newNode.X - end.X) + Math.Abs(newNode.Y - end.Y)); }

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  • ASP.Net Session Storage provider in 3-layer architecture

    - by Tedd Hansen
    I'm implementing a custom session storage provider in ASP.Net. We have a strict 3-layer architecture and therefore the session storage needs to go through the business layer. Presentation-Business-Database. The business layer is accessed through WPF. The database is MSSQL. What I need is (in order of preference): A commercial/free/open source product that solves this. The source code of a SqlSessionStateStore (custom session store) (not the ODBC-sample on MSDN) that I can modify to use a middle layer. I've tried looking at .Net source through Reflector, but the code is not usable. Note: I understand how to do this. I am looking for working samples, preferably that has been proven to work fine under heavy load. The ODBC sample on MSDN doesn't use the (new?) stored procs that the build in SqlSessionStateStore uses - I'd like to use these if possible (decreases traffic). Edit1: To answer Simons question on more info: ASP.Net Session()-object can be stored in either InProc, ASP.Net State Service or SQL-server. In a secure 3-layer model the presentation layer (web server) does not have direct/physical access to the database layer (SQL-server). And even without the physical limitations, from an architectural standpoint you may not want this. InProc and ASP.Net State Service does not support load balancing and doesn't have fault tolerance. Therefore the only option is to access SQL through webservice middle layer (business layer).

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  • wordpress 500 - Internal server error

    - by asad
    Hello Folks , I installed the wordpress 2.9.2 a few days ago and it works correctly. today , i want to use permlink feature of wordpress. I know , must modify my .htaccess file on my site root. but on my sub-domain root there is no any .htaccess file . so i create my .htacess file with follow content on sub-domain root (near index.php file): <files .htaccess> order allow,deny deny from all </files> ServerSignature Off <files wp-config.php> order allow,deny deny from all </files> # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress Options All -Indexes AddType x-mapp-php5 .php AddHandler x-mapp-php5 .php But after save it , i missed my blog . And i get follow error : 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. after this i remove the .htaccess file , but this was not correct. What i can do for it? Cheers

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  • Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

    - by getit
    Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

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  • how to make accessor for Dictionary in a way that returned Dictionary cannot be changed C# / 2.0

    - by matti
    I thought of solution below because the collection is very very small. But what if it was big? private Dictionary<string, OfTable> _folderData = new Dictionary<string, OfTable>(); public Dictionary<string, OfTable> FolderData { get { return new Dictionary<string,OfTable>(_folderData); } } With List you can make: public class MyClass { private List<int> _items = new List<int>(); public IList<int> Items { get { return _items.AsReadOnly(); } } } That would be nice! Thanks in advance, Cheers & BR - Matti NOW WHEN I THINK THE OBJECTS IN COLLECTION ARE IN HEAP. SO MY SOLUTION DOES NOT PREVENT THE CALLER TO MODIFY THEM!!! CAUSE BOTH Dictionary s CONTAIN REFERENCES TO SAME OBJECT. DOES THIS APPLY TO List EXAMPLE ABOVE? class OfTable { private string _wTableName; private int _table; private List<int> _classes; private string _label; public OfTable() { _classes = new List<int>(); } public int Table { get { return _table; } set { _table = value; } } public List<int> Classes { get { return _classes; } set { _classes = value; } } public string Label { get { return _label; } set { _label = value; } } } so how to make this immutable??

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  • Makefile - Dependency generation

    - by Profetylen
    I am trying to create a makefile that automatically compiles and links my .cpp files into an executable via .o files. What I can't get working is automated (or even manual) dependency generation. When i uncomment the below commented code, nothing is recompiled when i run make build. All i get is make: Nothing to be done for 'build'., even if x.h (or any .h file) has changed. I've been trying to learn from this question: Makefile, header dependencies, dmckee's answer, especially. Why isn't this makefile working? Clarification: I can compile everything, but when I modify any header file, the .cpp files that depend on it aren't updated. So, if I for instance compile my entire source, then I change a #define in the header file, and then run make build, and I get Nothing to be done for 'build'. (when I have uncommented either commented chunks of the below code). CC=gcc CFLAGS=-O2 -Wall LDFLAGS=-lSDL -lstdc++ SOURCES=$(wildcard *.cpp) OBJECTS=$(patsubst %.cpp, obj/%.o,$(SOURCES)) TARGET=bin/test.bin # Nothing happens when i uncomment the following. (automated attempt) #depend: .depend # #.depend: $(SOURCES) # rm -f ./.depend # $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -MM $^ >> ./.depend; # #include .depend # And nothing happens when i uncomment the following. x.cpp and x.h are files in my project. (manual attempt) #x.o: x.cpp x.h clean: rm -f $(TARGET) rm -f $(OBJECTS) run: build ./$(TARGET) debug: build nm $(TARGET) gdb $(TARGET) build: $(TARGET) $(TARGET): $(OBJECTS) @mkdir -p $(@D) $(CC) $(LDFLAGS) $(OBJECTS) -o $@ obj/%.o: %.cpp @mkdir -p $(@D) $(CC) -c $(CFLAGS) $< -o $@ include $(DEPENDENCIES)

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  • Why does Firefox + My code Destroys FireFox refresh

    - by acidzombie24
    I am soo angry right now. I lost hours and i dont know why this happens. Its a semi rant but i'll try to keep it short My code would not work, even after refreshing it was broken I fixed my code or so i thought because it stops working without me changing anything (you would think i am imagining this...) I somehow decide to make a new window or tab i run my code and verifies it works. I write more code and see everything is broken again I write test in a new window and see my code does work I see my code doesnt work and firebug DOES NOT HELP I notice when i create a new tab everything works I realize refreshing does not work and i MUST make a new tab for my code to work. Then i knew instantly what the problem was. I modify a display:none textbox but i set the values incorrectly. I cant see it because it is hidden. Now some of you might say its my fault because when doing a refresh all of the data may be cache. But here is the kicker. I was using POST data. I posted in between of the refresh each and everytime. Whats the point of using POST when the same data is cached and use anyways? If theres no chance for a search engine to follow a block user get link then why should i bother making anything post when security or repeat actions are not an issue? POST didnt seem to do anything.

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  • ASP.NET MVC - hiding id in URL?

    - by mcfroob
    I'm building a basic blog application just now, for viewing data I'm just using the default route, i.e. - routes.MapRoute ( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); So that when you go to mysite.com/View/12 it displays the blog with id 12. I want to modify the URLs so that they look as follows: mysite.com/View/2010/06/01/this-is-the-title. I could have a URL mapping like - routes.MapRoute( "View", "View/{year}/{month}/{day}/{title}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "View" } ); But then I'm not passing the ID into the Controller action so I would have to search on the date and title which doesn't feel right. On the other hand, if I pass the ID in it will show up in the URL which isn't what I'm aiming for either. Is there any way to redirect to the URL I want in the controller action after passing only the ID in as a paramter, or to pass the ID into the a Map Route but hide it in the URL? Thanks for your help!

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  • ASP.NET server data persistence

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

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  • SharePoint Permissions: User with Contribute change cannot change a list item they did not create?

    - by antik
    I've build a custom SharePoint list that programatically adjusts permissions per list item. This part of the app works by clearing all permissions in the list item and adding permissions to the folks I want to grant Read or Contribute permission to. I believe this part of the application to be correct: selecting Manage Permissions on a list item I can see the appropriate users and roles for the list items in question in the Permissions list. However, I was surprised to realize that only the user who submitted a list item can successfully edit the item. I'll describe what I'm seeing with the following two users: UserA and UserB. UserA submitted the list item. UserB is trying to edit the same list item after the permissions have been assigned (either manually or programatically). UserB cannot edit the list item: UserB can see the Edit Item link on the item toolbar. UserB can click the link and will see EditForm.aspx. When UserB makes changes and presses submit, UserB encounters the out of box SharePoint "Access Denied" error page. The event handler for the list item update does not fire. Manually elevating UserB's permission to include Full Control does not affect the behavior above. By contrast, UserA encounters far more predictable behavior: UserA can see the Edit Item link on the item toolbar. UserA can click the link and will see EditForm.aspx. When UserA submits, the changes are persisted and the user is redirected back to the item list. Event Handlers fire after UserA submits. This leaves me with several questions: Is this an expected behavior for SharePoint that I managed to overlook? What can I do to allow UserB to modify the list item?

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  • Rewarding iOS app beta testers with in app purchase?

    - by Partridge
    My iOS app is going to be free, but with additional functionality enabled via in app purchase. Currently beta testers are doing a great job finding bugs and I want to reward them for their hard work. I think the least I can do is give them a full version of the app so that they don't have to buy the functionality themselves. However, I'm not sure what the best way to do this is. There do not appear to be promo codes for in app purchase so I can't just email out promo codes. I have all the tester device UDIDs so when the app launches I could grab the device UDID and compare it to an internal list of 'approved' UDIDs. Is this what other developers do? My concerns: The in app purchase content would not be tied to their iTunes account, so if beta testers move to a new device they would not be able to enable the content unless I released a new build in the app store with their new UDID. So they may have to buy it eventually anyway. Having an internal list leaves a hole for hackers to modify the list and add themselves to it. What would you do?

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  • How to remove the small of padding around the ListBoxItem?

    - by Darf Zon
    I'm styling a listBox. i'm trying to clear the margins, so I realized which it, I set the padding of the style to 0 (left padding). But I can still seeing some margin in it, and I need to have no margin in it? Does you know which would be the problem? <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Partitions}"> <ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <Canvas /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Setter Property="Padding" Value="0"/> <Setter Property="Canvas.Top"> ... </Setter> </Style> </ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> I mean, I can see an extra space around the item and I can't handle it to modify to 0.

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  • Preventing ActiveRecord save() on an instance

    - by Craig Walker
    I have an ActiveRecord model object Foo; it represents a standard database row. I want to be able to display modified versions of instances of this object. I'd like to reuse the class itself, as it already has all the hooks & aspects I'll need. (For example: I already have a view that displays the appropriate attributes). Basically I want to clone the model instance, modify some of its properties, and feed it back to the caller (view, test, etc). I do not want these attribute modifications getting back into the database. However, I do want to include the id attribute in the cloned version, as it makes dealing with the route-helpers much easier. Thus, I plan on calling ActiveRecord::Base.clone(), manually setting the ID of the cloned instance, and then making the appropriate attribute changes to the new instance. This has me worried though; one save() on the modified instance and my original data will get clobbered. So, I'm looking to lock down the new instance so that it won't hurt anything else. I'm already planning on calling freeze() (on the understanding that this prevents further modification to the object, though the documentation isn't terribly clear). However, I don't see any obvious way to prevent a save(). What would be the best approach to achieving this?

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  • Strange behaviour of CheckBox and TwoWay bound property

    - by walkor
    Hello, everyone. I fell in the following situation: I have a main UserControl with a DataGrid (which contains List). I need to show different panels depending on properties of the selected row(object). So i've created 2 controls and included them into this main control. Main control has 2 public properties - public List<ComplexObject> SourceList { get; set; } and public ComplexObject CurrentObject { get; set; } Pseudo-code: <UserControl x:Name="Main"> <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding SourceList}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentObject, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <Controls:RightPanelFirst Visibility="condition2"/> <Controls:RightPanelSecond Visibility="condition2"/> </UserControl> RightPanelFirst and RightPanelSecond have the following xaml: <UserControl> <... content here...> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty1, Mode=TwoWay}"> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty2, Mode=TwoWay}" x:Name="cbSecond"> <TextBox IsEnabled="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=cbSecond}"/> </UserControl> So, my actual steps: Check both checkboxes (object values are set to true) Make other actions in code behind which modify CurrentObject. Then i want UI to reflect the changes, so I call NotifyPropertyChanged("CurrentObject"); SimpleProperty1 remains the same, but SimpleProperty2 resets to false I have no idea why this happens, can anyone help me please? Silverlight drives me mad.

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  • Tree deletion with NHibernate

    - by Tigraine
    Hi, I'm struggling with a little problem and starting to arrive at the conclusion it's simply not possible. I have a Table called Group. As with most of these systems Group has a ParentGroup and a Children collection. So the Table Group looks like this: Group -ID (PK) -Name -ParentId (FK) I did my mappings using FNH AutoMappings, but I had to override the defaults for this: p.References(x => x.Parent) .Column("ParentId") .Cascade.All(); p.HasMany(x => x.Children) .KeyColumn("ParentId") .ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Inverse(); Now, the general idea was to be able to delete a node and all of it's children to be deleted too by NH. So deleting the only root node should basically clear the whole table. I tried first with Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan but that works only for deletion of items from the Children collection, not deletion of the parent. Next I tried ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete so the operation gets delegated to the Database through on delete cascade. But once I do that MSSql2008 does not allow me to create this constraint, failing with : Introducing FOREIGN KEY constraint 'FKBA21C18E87B9D9F7' on table 'Group' may cause cycles or multiple cascade paths. Specify ON DELETE NO ACTION or ON UPDATE NO ACTION, or modify other FOREIGN KEY constraints. Well, and that's it for me. I guess I'll just loop through the children and delete them one by one, thus doing a N+1. If anyone has a suggestion on how do that more elegantly I'd be eager to hear it.

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  • Mocking non-virtual methods in C++ without editing production code?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, I am a fairly new software developer currently working adding unit tests to an existing C++ project that started years ago. Due to a non-technical reason, I'm not allowed to modify any existing code. The base class of all my modules has a bunch of methods for Setting/Getting data and communicating with other modules. Since I just want to unit testing each individual module, I want to be able to use canned values for all my inter-module communication methods. I.e. for a method Ping() which checks if another module is active, I want to have it return true or false based on what kind of test I'm doing. I've been looking into Google Test and Google Mock, and it does support mocking non-virtual methods. However the approach described (http://code.google.com/p/googlemock/wiki/CookBook#Mocking_Nonvirtual_Methods) requires me to "templatize" the original methods to take in either real or mock objects. I can't go and templatize my methods in the base class due to the requirement mentioned earlier, so I need some other way of mocking these virtual methods Basically, the methods I want to mock are in some base class, the modules I want to unit test and create mocks of are derived classes of that base class. There are intermediate modules in between my base Module class and the modules that I want to test. I would appreciate any advise! Thanks, JW EDIT: A more concrete examples My base class is lets say rootModule, the module I want to test is leafModule. There is an intermediate module which inherits from rootModule, leafModule inherits from this intermediate module. In my leafModule, I want to test the doStuff() method, which calls the non virtual GetStatus(moduleName) defined in the rootModule class. I need to somehow make GetStatus() to return a chosen canned value. Mocking is new to me, so is using mock objects even the right approach?

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  • font-size/font-family has no effect

    - by kman
    This is a related issue to my previous question. I have modified the code suggested for preface headings to modify the p tags underneath the headings. <xsl:template match="topic[title='Preface']/body/section/p"> <fo:block xsl:use-attribute-sets="preface.p"> <xsl:apply-imports/> </fo:block> </xsl:template> <xsl:attribute-set name="preface.p"> <xsl:attribute name="font-family">Helvetica</xsl:attribute> <xsl:attribute name="color">red</xsl:attribute> <xsl:attribute name="font-size">8pt</xsl:attribute> </xsl:attribute-set> The color changes the desired text - and only the desired text, so I know it is grabbing the correct nodes. However, the font family and size have no effect. Does anyone know of anything I can check that might be over-riding the code?

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  • File.Replace throwing IOException

    - by WebDevHobo
    I have an app that can make modify images. In some cases, this makes the filesize smaller, in some cases bigger. The program doesn't have an option to "not replace the file if result has a bigger filesize". So I wrote a little C# app to try and solve this. Instead of overwriting the files, I make the app write the result to a folder under the current one and name that folder Test. The C# app I wrote compares grabs the contents of both folders and puts the full path to the file(s) in two List objects. I then compare and replace. The replacing isn't working however. I get the following IOException: Unable to remove the file to be replaced The location is on an external hard-drive, on which I have full rights. Now, I know I can just do File.Delete and File.Move in that order, but this exception has gotten me interested in why this particular setup wont work. Here's the source code: http://pastebin.com/4Vq82Umu And yes, the file specified as last argument of the Replace function does exist.

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