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• Databinding a multiselect ListBox in a FormView control

  - by drs9222

  I have a multiselect ListBox within a FormView. I can't figure out how to setup the databinding for it. I can populate the listbox fine. If the listbox was a single select I could use say SelectValue='<%#Bind("col")%>' and that works fine. Is there something that I can bind to for a multiselect listbox? I've tried manually DataBinding by handling the DataBinding event of the listbox and setting the selected property on the appropriate items. Unfortunately, there are no items in the listbox during the DataBinding event. The closest thing I've found is to save the value that determines what items should be selecting during DataBinding and then use that value in the FormViews DataBinding event to select the right items which seems like a hack to me. Is there a better way? EDIT: To clarify what I am currently doing... I am using the FormViews's ItemCreated event to save the FormView's DataItem. Then in the FormView's DataBound event I find the listbox and manually set the selected items. It doesn't seem right that I have to save the value like this and I assume there is a more correct way to do this that I just can't see.

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• View all ntext column text in SQL Server Management Studio for SQL CE database

  - by Dave

  I often want to do a "quick check" of the value of a large text column in SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS). The maximum number of characters that SSMS will let you view, in grid results mode, is 65535. (It is even less in text results mode.) Sometimes I need to see something beyond that range. Using SQL Server 2005 databases, I often used the trick of converting it to XML, because SSMS lets you view much larger amounts of text that way: SELECT CONVERT(xml, MyCol) FROM MyTable WHERE ... But now I am using SQL CE, and there is no Xml data type. There is still a "Maximum Characters Retreived XML" value under Options; I suppose this is useful when connecting to other data sources. I know I can just get the full value by running a little console app or something, but is there a way within SSMS to see the entire ntext column value? [Edit] OK, this didn't get much attention the first time around (18 views?!). It's not a huge concern, but maybe I'm just obsessed with it. There has to be some good way around this, doesn't there? So a modest bounty is active. What I am willing to accept as answers, in order from best-to-worst: A solution that works just as easy as the XML trick in SQL CE. That is, a single function (convert, cast, etc.) that does the job. A not-too-invasive way to hack SSMS to get it to display more text in the results. An equivalent SQL query (perhaps something that creatively uses SUBSTRING and generates multiple ad-hoc columns??) to see the results. The solution should work with nvarchar and ntext columns of any length in SQL CE from SSMS. Any ideas?

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• Applying Test Driven Development to a tightly coupled architecture

  - by Chris D

  Hi all, I've recently been studying TDD, attended a conference and have dabbled in few tests and already I'm 100% sold, I absolutely love it TDD. As a result I've raised this with my seniors and they are prepared to give it a chance, so they have tasked me with coming up with a way to implement TDD in the development of our enterprise product. The problem is our system has evolved since the days of VB6 to .NET and implements alot of legacy technology and some far from best practice development techniques i.e. alot of business logic in the ASP.NET code behind and client script. The largest problem however is how our classes are tightly coupled with database access; properties, methods, constructors - usually has some database access in some form or another. We use an in-house data access code generator tool that creates sqlDataAdapters that gives us all the database access we could ever want, which helps us develop extremely quickly, however, classes in our business layer are very tightly coupled to this data layer - we aren't even close to implementing some form of repository design. This and the issues above have created me all sorts of problems. I have tried to develop some unit tests for some existing classes I've already written but the tests take ALOT longer to run since db access is required, not to mention since we use the MS Enterprise Caching framework I am forced to fake a httpcontext for my tests to run successfully which isn't practical. Also, I can't see how to use TDD to drive the design of any new classes I write since they have to be soo tightly coupled to the database ... help! Because of the architecture of the system it appears I can't implement TDD without some real hack which in my eyes just defeats the aim of TDD and the huge benefits that come with. Does anyone have any suggestions how I could implement TDD with the constraints I'm bound too? or do I need to push the repository design pattern down my seniors throats and tell them we either change our architecture/development methodology or forget about TDD altogether? :) Thanks

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• Problem adding namespaces to MSXML (using setProperty('SelectionNamespaces', ...))

  - by conciliator

  A while back, I asked a question regarding the usage of namespaces in MSXML. At first, I circumvented the whole thing with the XPath *[local-name()]-hack (see my previous post), but having a crisis of conscience I decided to do things the right way. (Doh!) Consider the following XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Root xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.foo.bar mySchema.xsd" xmlns="http://www.foo.bar" xmlns:ds="http://www.w3.org/2000/09/xmldsig#" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <MyElement> </MyElement> </Root> When I try to add these namespaces using IXMLDOMDocument3.setProperty('SelectionNamespaces', NSString);, I get the following error: "SelectionNamespaces property value is invalid. Only well-formed xmlns attributes are allowed.". When removing the namespace xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.foo.bar mySchema.xsd", everything runs smoothly. What am I doing wrong here? Is there an error in the XML? Is MSXML to blame?

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• How can I beta test web Perl modules under Apache/mod_perl on production web server?

  - by DVK

  We have a setup where most code, before being promoted to full production, is deployed in BETA mode - meaning, it runs in full production environment (using production database - usually production data; and production web server). We call that stage BETA testing. One of the main requirements is that BETA code promotion to production must be a simple "cp" command from beta to production directory - no code/filename changes. For non-web Perl code, achieving seamless BETA test is quite doable (see details here): Perl programs live in a standard location under production root (/usr/code/scripts) with production perl modules living under the same root (/usr/code/lib/perl) The BETA code has 100% same code paths except under beta root (/usr/code/beta/) A special module manipulates @INC of any script based on whether the script was called from /usr/code/scripts or /usr/code/test/scripts, to include beta libraries for beta scripts. This setup works fine up till we need to beta test our web Perl code (the setup is EmbPerl and Apache/mod_perl). The hang-up is as follows: if both a production Perl module and BETA Perl module have the same name (e.g. /usr/code/lib/perl/MyLib1.pm and /usr/code/beta/lib/perl/MyLib1.pm), then mod_perl will only be able to load ONE of these modules into memory - and there's no way we are aware of for a particular web page to affect which version of the module is currently loaded due to concurrency issues. Leaving aside the obvious non-programming solution (get a bloody BETA web server) which for political/organizational reasons is not feasible, is there any way we can somehow hack around this problem in either Perl or mod_perl? I played around with various approaches to unloading Perl modules that %INC has listed, but the problem remains that another user might load a beta page at just the right (or rather wrong) moment and have the beta module loaded which will be used for my production page.

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• Rails3 and Paperclip

  - by arkannia

  Hi, I have migrated my application from rails 2.3 to rails3 and i have a problem with paperclip. I saw there was a branch for rails3 on paperclip git. So I added "gem 'paperclip', :git = 'git://github.com/thoughtbot/paperclip.git', :branch = 'rails3'" into the Gemfile and launch the command bundle install. Once paperclip installed, the upload worked fine but not the styles. I saw a hack to fix it. # in lib/paperclip/attachment.rb at line 293 def callback which #:nodoc: # replace this line... # instance.run_callbacks(which, @queued_for_write){|result,obj| result == false } # with this: instance.run_callbacks(which, @queued_for_write) end The styles are ok after that, but i'm not able to active the processor. My code is : has_attached_file :image, :default_url => "/images/nopicture.jpg", :styles => { :large => "800x600>", :cropped => Proc.new { |instance| "#{instance.width}x#{instance.height}>" }, :crop => "300x300>" }, :processors => [:cropper] My processor is located in RAILS_APP/lib/paperclip_processors/cropper.rb and contains : module Paperclip class Cropper < Thumbnail def transformation_command if crop_command and !skip_crop? crop_command + super.sub(/ -crop \S+/, '') else super end end def crop_command target = @attachment.instance trans = ""; trans << " -crop #{target.crop_w}x#{target.crop_h}+#{target.crop_x}+#{target.crop_y}" if target.cropping? trans << " -resize \"#{target.width}x#{target.height}\"" trans end def skip_crop? ["800x600>", "300x300>"].include?(@target_geometry.to_s) end end end My problem is that i got this error message : uninitialized constant Paperclip::Cropper The cropped processor is not loaded. Is anybody has an idea to fix that ? For information my application works fine on rails 2.3.4.

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• Handle URI hacking gracefully in ASP.NET

  - by asbjornu

  I've written an application that handles most exceptions gracefully, with the page's design intact and a pretty error message. My application catches them all in the Page_Error event and there adds the exception to HttpContext.Curent.Context.Items and then does a Server.Transfer to an Error.aspx page. I find this to be the only viable solution in ASP.NET as there seems to be no other way to do it in a centralized and generic manner. I also handle the Application_Error and there I do some inspection on the exception that occurred to find out if I can handle it gracefully or not. Exceptions I've found I can handle gracefully are such that are thrown after someone hacking the URI to contain characters the .NET framework considers dangerous or basically just illegal at the file system level. Such URIs can look like e.g.: http://exmample.com/"illegal" http://example.com/illegal"/ http://example.com/illegal / (notice the space before the slash at the end of the last URI). I'd like these URIs to respond with a "404 Not Found" and a friendly message as well as not causing any error report to be sent to avoid DDOS attack vectors and such. I have, however, not found an elegant way to catch these types of errors. What I do now is inspect the exception.TargetSite.Name property, and if it's equal to CheckInvalidPathChars, ValidatePath or CheckSuspiciousPhysicalPath, I consider it a "path validation exception" and respond with a 404. This seems like a hack, though. First, the list of method names is probably not complete in any way and second, there's the possibility that these method names gets replaced or renamed down the line which will cause my code to break. Does anyone have an idea how I can handle this less hard-coded and much more future-proof way? PS: I'm using System.Web.Routing in my application to have clean and sensible URIs, if that is of any importance to any given solution.

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• Drupal vs ExpressionEngine for any kind of project from simple commercial site to complex ecommerce

  - by artmania

  Hi friends... So far I've been using custom cms. lately I developed own cms with CodeIgniter, and I'm actually happy. But recently I take more design and front-end development works than deep development projects. I actually also prefer so... I have many things to do with custom cms, also some security issues, etc. I'm kind of tired of doing everyhing custom, also I want to give more time to my family... Recently I'm seriously considering to go for a ready cms, and develop custom plugins when project need sth specific. This cms should be very flexible to implement any layout. also secured (since i had some hack problems with my custom cms!) I googled so much about this. As a result 2 options: Drupal Expression Engine opensource or licensed matter is not an issue for me at all. I just consider to go for a cms that I can use for any kind of project from simple 4-5 pages company sites to complicated projects like hotels directory, ecommerce portals, etc... As I found out; EE is more userfriendly and doesnt hassle about implementing custom layout as much as Drupal does. Also EE use CodeIgniter that I'm familiar. on the other hand I found out that Drupal is 10000% flexible, we can do anything with that (requires good php knowledge), extremely powerful and has many plugins... So I can't decide!! I want to go for a cms that I will use for looooong years from now on with no problems to implement any kind of project. So which one do you recommend? Appreciate your helps! thanks a lot... Edited: http://expressionengine.com/ee2_sneak_preview/#cost this Commercial License $299.95 is for 1 setup? So I need to purchase new licence for each project? Nothing like I pay once, and use the cms for as many project as I want?

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• Best way to escape characters before jquery post ASP.NET MVC

  - by Darcy

  Hello, I am semi-new to ASP.NET MVC. I am building an app that is used internally for my company. The scenario is this: There are two Html.Listbox's. One has all database information, and the other is initally empty. The user would add items from the database listbox to the empty listbox. Every time the user adds a command, I call a js function that calls an ActionResult "AddCommand" in my EditController. In the controller, the selected items that are added are saved to another database table. Here is the code (this gets called every time an item is added): function Add(listbox) { ... //skipping initializing code for berevity var url = "/Edit/AddCommand/" + cmd; $.post(url); } So the problem occurs when the 'cmd' is an item that has a '/', ':', '%', '?', etc (some kind of special character) So what I'm wondering is, what's the best way to escape these characters? Right now I'm checking the database's listbox item's text, and rebuilding the string, then in the Controller, I'm taking that built string and turning it back into its original state. So for example, if the item they are adding is 'Cats/Dogs', I am posting 'Cats[SLASH]Dogs' to the controller, and in the controller changing it back to 'Cats/Dogs'. Obviously this is a horrible hack, so I must be missing something. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• cpptask ordering of static libraries in gcc command line

  - by AC

  How do I force cpptask to move the static libraries to the end on arg list issued to the compiler? Here is the clause I am using <cpptasks:cc description="appname" subsystem="console" objdir="obj" outfile="dist/app_test"> <compiler refid="testsslcc" /> <linkerarg value="-L${libdir}" /> <linkerarg value="-L/usr/local/devl/lib" /> <linkerarg value="-Wl,-rpath,../lib" /> <libset libs="unittest ${libs} dsg readline ncurses gcov" /> <fileset dir="test/obj" includes="main.o" /> <fileset dir="." includes="${TCFILES}" /> <fileset dir="../lib" includes="libboost_thread.a libboost_date_time.a" /> </cpptasks:cc> when this executes, libboost_thread.a libboost_date_time.a are first files in the argument list passed the compiler, gcc -ggdb -Wl,-export-dynamic -Wshadow -Wno-format-y2k ../../lib/libboost_date_time.a ../../lib/libboost_thread.a x.cpp ... which causes compiler error. By manually moving them to the end of the argument list, the application compiles without error. gcc -ggdb -Wl,-export-dynamic -Wshadow -Wno-format-y2k x.cpp ... ../../lib/libboost_date_time.a ../../lib/libboost_thread.a And yes I have tried changing the order in the xml, and that of course didn't work. For now I am using an exec task to call gcc with the files in the correct order but this of course is a hack.

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• Detect the language & django locale-url

  - by mamcx

  I want to deploy a website in english & spanish and detect the user browser languaje & redirect to the correct locale site. My site is www.elmalabarista.com I install django-localeurl, but I discover that the languaje is not correctly detected. This are my middlewares: MIDDLEWARE_CLASSES = ( 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.middleware.locale.LocaleMiddleware', 'multilingual.middleware.DefaultLanguageMiddleware', 'middleware.feedburner.FeedburnerMiddleware', 'lib.threadlocals.ThreadLocalsMiddleware', 'middleware.url.UrlMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware', 'maintenancemode.middleware.MaintenanceModeMiddleware', 'middleware.redirect.RedirectMiddleware', 'openidconsumer.middleware.OpenIDMiddleware', 'django.middleware.doc.XViewMiddleware', 'middleware.ajax_errors.AjaxMiddleware', 'pingback.middleware.PingbackMiddleware', 'localeurl.middleware.LocaleURLMiddleware', 'multilingual.flatpages.middleware.FlatpageFallbackMiddleware', 'django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', ) But ALWAYS the site get to US despite the fact my OS & Browser setup is spanish. LANGUAGES = ( ('en', ugettext('English')), ('es', ugettext('Spanish')), ) DEFAULT_LANGUAGE = 1 Then, I hack the middleware of locale-url and do this: def process_request(self, request): locale, path = self.split_locale_from_request(request) if request.META.has_key('HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE'): locale = utils.supported_language(request.META['HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE'].split(',')[0]) locale_path = utils.locale_path(path, locale) if locale_path != request.path_info: if request.META.get("QUERY_STRING", ""): locale_path = "%s?%s" % (locale_path, request.META['QUERY_STRING']) return HttpResponseRedirect(locale_path) request.path_info = path if not locale: locale = settings.LANGUAGE_CODE translation.activate(locale) request.LANGUAGE_CODE = translation.get_language() However, this detect fine the language but redirect the "en" urls to "es". So is impossible navigate in english. UPDATE: This is the final code (after the input from Carl Meyer) with a fix for the case of "/": def process_request(self, request): locale, path = self.split_locale_from_request(request) if (not locale) or (locale==''): if request.META.has_key('HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE'): locale = utils.supported_language(request.META['HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE'].split(',')[0]) else: locale = settings.LANGUAGE_CODE locale_path = utils.locale_path(path, locale) if locale_path != request.path_info: if request.META.get("QUERY_STRING", ""): locale_path = "%s?%s" % (locale_path, request.META['QUERY_STRING']) return HttpResponseRedirect(locale_path) request.path_info = path translation.activate(locale) request.LANGUAGE_CODE = translation.get_language()

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• MVVM Madness: Commands

  - by JP

  I like MVVM. I don't love it, but like it. Most of it makes sense. But, I keep reading articles that encourage you to write a lot of code so that you can write XAML and don't have to write any code in the code-behind. Let me give you an example. Recently I wanted to hookup a command in my ViewModel to a ListView MouseDoubleClickEvent. I wasn't quite sure how to do this. Fortunately, Google has answers for everything. I found the following articles: http://blog.functionalfun.net/2008/09/hooking-up-commands-to-events-in-wpf.html http://joyfulwpf.blogspot.com/2009/05/mvvm-invoking-command-on-attached-event.html http://sachabarber.net/?p=514 http://geekswithblogs.net/HouseOfBilz/archive/2009/08/27/adventures-in-mvvm-ndash-binding-commands-to-any-event.aspx http://marlongrech.wordpress.com/2008/12/13/attachedcommandbehavior-v2-aka-acb/ While the solutions were helpful in my understanding of commands, there were problems. Some of the aforementioned solutions rendered the WPF designer unusable because of a common hack of appending "Internal" after a dependency property; the WPF designer can't find it, but the CLR can. Some of the solutions didn't allow multiple commands to the same control. Some of the solutions didn't allow parameters. After experimenting for a few hours I just decided to do this: private void ListView_MouseDoubleClick(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { ListView lv = sender as ListView; MyViewModel vm = this.DataContext as MyViewModel; vm.DoSomethingCommand.Execute(lv.SelectedItem); } So, MVVM purists, please tell me what's wrong with this? I can still Unit test my command. This seems very practical, but seems to violate the guideline of "ZOMG... you have code in your code-behind!!!!" Please share your thoughts. Thanks in advance.

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• How to use webbrowser control DocumentCompleted event in C# ?

  - by Margus

  Before starting writing this question, i was trying to solve following // 1. navigate to page // 2. wait until page is downloaded // 3. read and write some data from/to iframe // 4. submit (post) form The problem was, that if a iframe exists on a web page, DocumentCompleted event would get fired more then once (after each document has been completed). It was highly likely that program would have tried to read data from DOM that was not completed and naturally - fail. But suddenly while writing this question 'What if' monster inspired me, and i fix'ed the problem, that i was trying to solve. As i failed Google'ing this, i thought it would be nice to post it here. private int iframe_counter = 1; // needs to be 1, to pass DCF test public bool isLazyMan = default(bool); /// <summary> /// LOCK to stop inspecting DOM before DCF /// </summary> public void waitPolice() { while (isLazyMan) Application.DoEvents(); } private void webBrowser1_Navigating(object sender, WebBrowserNavigatingEventArgs e) { if(!e.TargetFrameName.Equals("")) iframe_counter --; isLazyMan = true; } private void webBrowser1_DocumentCompleted(object sender, WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventArgs e) { if (!((WebBrowser)sender).Document.Url.Equals(e.Url)) iframe_counter++; if (((WebBrowser)sender).Document.Window.Frames.Count <= iframe_counter) {//DCF test DocumentCompletedFully((WebBrowser)sender,e); isLazyMan = false; } } private void DocumentCompletedFully(WebBrowser sender, WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventArgs e){ //code here } For now at least, my 5m hack seems to be working fine. Maybe i am really failing at querying google or MSDN, but i can not find: "How to use webbrowser control DocumentCompleted event in C# ?"

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• NSURL URLWithString: raises exception

  - by Stephen Darlington

  In short, [NSURL URLWithString:] appears to be raising an exception. According to the documentation "If the string was malformed, returns nil." There is no mention of an exception being raised under any circumstance. In addition to this, I am both encoding the URL and checking for nil before converting the string to a URL. Can anyone offer any advice as to which exception it could be or what other error checking I should be doing before converting the URL? In case you're interested in the details, the calling code looks like this: NSString* tmpText = [newUrl stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; if (tmpText == nil) { // error handling } else { NSURL* tmpURL = [NSURL URLWithString:tmpText]; And this is a section from the crash report download from iTunes Connect: 8 libobjc.A.dylib 0x300c1f84 objc_exception_throw 9 CoreFoundation 0x3029a598 +[NSException raise:format:arguments:] 10 CoreFoundation 0x3029a538 +[NSException raise:format:] 11 Foundation 0x30696dde -[NSURL initWithString:relativeToURL:] 12 Foundation 0x30696cd8 +[NSURL URLWithString:relativeToURL:] 13 Foundation 0x30696cae +[NSURL URLWithString:] 14 Yummy 0x000146ca -[DeliciousPostCell setUrl:] + 46 It seems that the URL was in a "bad" format somehow but that should really be returning a nil not an exception. I have never seen the exception being raised myself so I can't use XCode to trap the code and see what's happening. And the user(s) that experienced the problem never contacted me directly so I can't ask for more details. Any suggestions greatly appreciated. Update (14/7/2009): Seems like such a hack, but I added an exception block around the suspect line. I also raised a Radar bug report (#7031551) suggesting that the code should match the documentation.

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• datagridview apply cellstyle to cells

  - by SchlaWiener

  I used this example to create a DateTime column for a DataGridView in my winforms app. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/7tas5c80.aspx I can see the new column in the Windows Forms Designer and add it to an existing DataGridView. However, I want to be able to change the display format when I change the "DefaultCellStyle" within the designer. The designer generated code looks like this: DataGridViewCellStyle1.Format = "t" DataGridViewCellStyle1.NullValue = Nothing Me.colDate.DefaultCellStyle = DataGridViewCellStyle1 Me.colDatum.Name = "colDate" Me.colDatum.Resizable = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewTriState.[False] Which is fine. But since the code of the DataGridViewCalendarCell does this in the constructor: Public Sub New() Me.Style.Format = "d" End Sub The format never changes to "t" (time format). I didn't find out how to apply the format from the owning column to I use this woraround atm: Public Overrides Function GetInheritedStyle _ (ByVal inheritedCellStyle As _ System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellStyle, _ ByVal rowIndex As Integer, ByVal includeColors As Boolean) _ As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellStyle If Me.OwningColumn IsNot Nothing Then Me.Style.Format = Me.OwningColumn.DefaultCellStyle.Format End If Return MyBase.GetInheritedStyle(_ inheritedCellStyle, rowIndex, includeColors) End Function However, since this is just an hack I want to know which is the "how it should" be done way to apply the default cellstyle from a DataGridViewColumn to its cells. Any suggestions?

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• Using NSNumberFormatter to get a decimal value from an international currency string

  - by Duncan A

  It seems that the NSNumberFormatter can't parse Euro (and probably other) currency strings into a numerical type. Can someone please prove me wrong. I'm attempting to use the following to get a numeric amount from a currency string: NSNumberFormatter *currencyFormatter = [[[NSNumberFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [currencyFormatter setNumberStyle:NSNumberFormatterCurrencyStyle]; NSNumber *currencyNumber = [currencyFormatter numberFromString:currencyString]; This works fine for UK and US currency amounts. It even deals with $ and £ and thousands separators with no problems. However, when I use it with euro currency amounts (with the Region Format set to France or Germany in the settings app) it returns an empty string. All of the following strings fail: 12,34 € 12,34 12.345,67 € 12.345,67 It's worth noting that these strings match exactly what comes out of the NSNumberFormatter's stringFromNumber method when using the corresponding locale. Setting the Region Format to France in the settings app, then setting currencyNumber to 12.34 in the following code, results in currencyString being set to '12,34 €' : NSNumberFormatter *currencyFormatter = [[[NSNumberFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [currencyFormatter setNumberStyle:NSNumberFormatterCurrencyStyle]; NSString *currencyString = [currencyFormatter stringFromNumber:currencyNumber]; It would obviously be fairly easy to hack around this problem specifically for the Euro but I'm hoping to sell this app in as many countries as possible and I'm thinking that a similar situation is bound to occur with other locales. Does anyone have an answer? TIA, Duncan

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• Wpf Mvvm ComboBox

  - by 2Fast4YouBR

  Hi All, I am new in the Wpf world, so I created a couple of views and all of them have at least one ComboBox, as I am using the MvvM pattern, I get my self re-typing all the time the same line of codes to fill the Combo and to get the SelectedItem (creating properties, privates for fill and other to get). Is there some kind of framework that can improve this part ? or hack/trick ??? as I see too much repetitive code... maybe I am doing something wrong, take a look: XAML: <ComboBox name= "cbDepartments" DisplayMemberPath="DepartmentName" SelectedValuePath ="PrimaryKey" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Departments}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=DefaultBranch,Mode=TwoWay}" > ViewModel: private Department defaultBranch; public Department DefaultBranch { get { return this.defaultBranch; } set { if (this.defaultBranch != value) { this.defaultBranch = value; this.OnPropertyChanged("DefaultBranch"); this.saveChangeCommand.RaiseCanExecuteChanged(); this.UserMessage = string.Empty; } } } private ObservableCollection<Department> departments; public ObservableCollection<Department> Departments { get { return this.departments; } set { if (this. departments!= value) { this. departments = value; this.OnPropertyChanged("Departments"); } } }

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• How would you implement API key in WCF Data Service?

  - by rushonerok

  Is there a way to require an API key in the URL / or some other way of passing the service a private key in order to grant access to the data? I have this right now... using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Data.Services.Common; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.Web; using Numina.Framework; using System.Web; using System.Configuration; [System.ServiceModel.ServiceBehavior(IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true)] public class odata : DataService { public static void InitializeService(DataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.AllRead); //config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("*", ServiceOperationRights.All); config.DataServiceBehavior.MaxProtocolVersion = DataServiceProtocolVersion.V2; } protected override void OnStartProcessingRequest(ProcessRequestArgs args) { HttpRequest Request = HttpContext.Current.Request; if(Request["apikey"] != ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ApiKey"]) throw new DataServiceException("ApiKey needed"); base.OnStartProcessingRequest(args); } } ...This works but it's not perfect because you cannot get at the metadata and discover the service through the Add Service Reference explorer. I could check if $metadata is in the url but it seems like a hack. Is there a better way?

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• spring security login pages?

  - by es11

  I have some confusion with how spring security works: In my application, I need to have a login page for users after which they are redirected back the page from where they came. I went through a few spring security tutorials and read some articles, and the examples work by securing a certain page on a site (managed by the <intercept url ..> tag). Then Spring security will generate a login page (or you can specify your own) in order to access the secured page. I am confused because I don't want to necessary secure a given page on my site: I want a login page for users to log into after which they have access to elevated features of the site (through spring security's authorization features). My question is: given what I described, what would be the strategy to create this login page which, after login, would grant the logged in user the appropriate authorities? The hack I thought of would be to create a simple JSP page who's only function is to redirect back to the previous page. Then I would use Spring Security to secure that JSP page. But it seems like there should be a better way of doing this... Thanks

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• Porting a select loop application to Android with NDK. Design question.

  - by plaisthos

  Hi, I have an network application which uses a select loop like this: bool shutdown=false; while (!shutdown) { [do something] select(...,timeout); } THe main loop cannot work like this in an Android application anymore since the application needs to receive Intents, need to handle GUI, etc. I think I have basically three possibilities: Move the main loop to the java part of the application. Let the loop run in its own thread and somehow communicate from/to java. Screw Android <= 2.3 and use a native activity and use AInputQueue/ALooper instead of select. The first possibility is not easy since java has no select which works on fds. Simply using the select and return after each loop to java is not an elegant possibility either since that requires setting the timeout to something like 20ms to have a good response time in the java part of the program. The second probability sound nicer but I have do some communication between java and the c++/c part of the program. Things that cold work: Using a socket, kind of ugly. using native calls in the "java gui thread" and callback from native in the "c thread". Both threads need to have thread safe implementations but this is managable. I have not explored the third possibility but I think that it is not the way to go. I think I can hack something together which will work but I asking what is the best path to chose.

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• Capture keystrokes (e.g., function keys) while a messagebox is up

  - by FastAl

  We have a large WinForms app, and there is a built-in bug reporting system that can be activated during testing via the F5 Key. I am capturing the F5 key with .Net's PreFilterMessage system. This works fine on the main forms, modal dialog boxes, etc. Unfortunately, the program also displays windows messageboxes when it needs to. When there is a bug with that, e.g., wrong text in the messagebox or it shouldn't be there, the messagefilter isn't executed at all when the messagebox is up! I realize I could fix it by either rewriting my own messagebox routine, or kicking off a separate thread that polls GetAsyncKeyState and calls the error reporter from there. However I was hoping for a method that was less of a hack. Here's code that manifests the problem: Public Class Form1 Implements IMessageFilter Private Sub Form1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Click MsgBox("now, a messagebox is up!") End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load Application.AddMessageFilter(Me) End Sub Public Function PreFilterMessage(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) _ As Boolean Implements IMessageFilter.PreFilterMessage Const VK_F5 As Int32 = &H74 Const WM_KEYDOWN As Integer = &H100 If m.Msg = WM_KEYDOWN And m.WParam.ToInt32 = VK_F5 Then ' In reality code here takes a screenshot, saves the program state, and shows a bug report interface ' IO.File.AppendAllText("c:\bugs.txt", InputBox("Describe the bug:")) End If End Function End Class Many thanks.

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• ASP.Net RadioButton loses ViewState

  - by Carl

  I'm having trouble with a simple radio set of two radio buttons (I don't want to use a RadioButtonList [RBL] because RBL doesn't allow child controls, and in my case, if you select one option, I want to enable a textbox next to the button; yes you could hack this with jQuery to move the textbox, but that's dirty!). I would check one, submit the form (either explicitly or through AutoPostBack), and the CheckedChanged event would never fire. When the page was reloaded, both buttons would be unchecked, regardless of their initial state on non-postback load or the state before form submission. I took out the checkbox and stripped this down to the simplest example I could come up with. I tossed EnableViewState=true all over the place just in case it was being disabled somewhere I couldn't find. <form id="form1" runat="server" enableviewstate="true"> <div> <asp:RadioButton ID="foo" Text="foo" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnCheckedChanged="rbChanged" Checked="true" GroupName="foobar" EnableViewState="true" /> <asp:RadioButton ID="bar" Text="bar" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" GroupName="foobar" OnCheckedChanged="rbChanged" Checked="false" EnableViewState="true" /> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="resultLbl" /> </div> </form> protected void rbChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (foo.Checked) resultLbl.Text = "foo is checked"; else if (bar.Checked) resultLbl.Text = "bar is checked"; else resultLbl.Text = "neither is checked"; }

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• Django custom managers - how do I return only objects created by the logged-in user?

  - by Tom Tom

  I want to overwrite the custom objects model manager to only return objects a specific user created. Admin users should still return all objects using the objects model manager. Now I have found an approach that could work. They propose to create your own middleware looking like this: #### myproject/middleware/threadlocals.py try: from threading import local except ImportError: # Python 2.3 compatibility from django.utils._threading_local import local _thread_locals = local() def get_current_user(): return getattr(_thread_locals, 'user', None) class ThreadLocals(object): """Middleware that gets various objects from the request object and saves them in thread local storage.""" def process_request(self, request): _thread_locals.user = getattr(request, 'user', None) #### end And in the Custom manager you could call the get_current_user() method to return only objects a specific user created. class UserContactManager(models.Manager): def get_query_set(self): return super(UserContactManager, self).get_query_set().filter(creator=get_current_user()) Is this a good approach to this use-case? Will this work? Or is this like "using a sledgehammer to crack a nut" ? ;-) Just using: Contact.objects.filter(created_by= user) in each view doesn`t look very neat to me. EDIT Do not use this middleware approach !!! use the approach stated by Jack M. below After a while of testing this approach behaved pretty strange and with this approach you mix up a global-state with a current request. Use the approach presented below. It is really easy and no need to hack around with the middleware. create a custom manager in your model with a function that expects the current user or any other user as an input. #in your models.py class HourRecordManager(models.Manager): def for_user(self, user): return self.get_query_set().filter(created_by=user) class HourRecord(models.Model): #Managers objects = HourRecordManager() #in vour view you can call the manager like this and get returned only the objects from the currently logged-in user. hr_set = HourRecord.objects.for_user(request.user)

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• Use the Django ORM in a standalone script (again)

  - by Rishabh Manocha

  I'm trying to use the Django ORM in some standalone screen scraping scripts. I know this question has been asked before, but I'm unable to figure out a good solution for my particular problem. I have a Django project with defined models. What I would like to do is use these models and the ORM in my scraping script. My directory structure is something like this: project scrape #scraping scripts ... test.py web django_project settings.py ... #Django files I tried doing the following in project/scrape/test.py: print os.path.join(os.path.abspath('..'), 'web', 'django_project') sys.path.append(os.path.join(os.path.abspath('..'), 'web', 'django_project')) print sys.path print "-------" os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = 'django_project.settings' #print os.environ from django_project.myapp.models import MyModel print MyModel.objects.count() However, I get an ImportError when I try to run test.py: Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 12, in <module> from django_project.myapp.models import MyModel ImportError: No module named django_project.myapp.models One solution I found around this problem is to create a symbolic link to ../web/govcheck in the scrape folder: :scrape rmanocha$ ln -s ../web/govcheck ./govcheck With this, I can then run test.py just fine. However, this seems like a hack, and more importantly, is not very portable (I will have to create this symbolic link everywhere I run this code). So, I was wondering if anyone has any better solutions for my problem?

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• Password Cracking Windows Accounts

  - by Kevin

  At work we have laptops with encrypted harddrives. Most developers here (on occasion I have been guilty of it too) leave their laptops in hibernate mode when they take them home at night. Obviously, Windows (i.e. there is a program running in the background which does it for windows) must have a method to unencrypt the data on the drive, or it wouldn't be able to access it. That being said, I always thought that leaving a windows machine on in hibernate mode in a non-secure place (not at work on a lock) is a security threat, because someone could take the machine, leave it running, hack the windows accounts and use it to encrypt the data and steal the information. When I got to thinking about how I would go about breaking into the windows system without restarting it, I couldn't figure out if it was possible. I know it is possible to write a program to crack windows passwords once you have access to the appropriate file(s). But is it possible to execute a program from a locked Windows system that would do this? I don't know of a way to do it, but I am not a Windows expert. If so, is there a way to prevent it? I don't want to expose security vulnerabilities about how to do it, so I would ask that someone wouldn't post the necessary steps in details, but if someone could say something like "Yes, it's possible the USB drive allows arbitrary execution," that would be great! EDIT: The idea being with the encryption is that you can't reboot the system, because once you do, the disk encryption on the system requires a login before being able to start windows. With the machine being in hibernate, the system owner has already bypassed the encryption for the attacker, leaving windows as the only line of defense to protect the data.

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