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• What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

  - by thornomad

  I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

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• How to put a pre-existing sqlite file into <Application_Home>/Library/?

  - by Byron Cox

  My app uses Core Data. I have run the app in the simulator which has successfully created and populated the corresponding sqlite file. I now want to get this pre-existing sqlite file on to an actual device and be part of my app. I have located the simulator generated sqlite file at /Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/6.0/Applications/identifier/Documents/myapp.sqlite and dragged it into Xcode. This has added it to my application bundle but not in an appropriate directory (with the consequence that the sqlite file can be read but not written to). From reading about the file system I believe that the best place to put the sqlite file would be in a custom directory 'Database' under Application_Home/Library/. I don't seem to be able to do this within Xcode and despite searching I am unable to figure out how to do the following: (1) Create a sub-directory called 'Database' in Application_Home/Library/ ? (2) Transfer the sqlite file to my newly created 'Database' directory ? Many thanks to @Daij-Djan of his answer below. One other question: the path to the sqlite file will be used by the persistent store coordinator. Now depending on the size of the sqlite file it may take a while to copy or move. How can you ensure that the example code provided by @Daij-Djan has executed and finished before the persistent store coordinator tries to reference the sqlite file? Thanks for any help in advance.

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• android progressBar problem

  - by kostas

  hi.i have a button that on click is loading rss feed.i want to load a progress bar until my list opens.i have created a progressbar,it works,but as i press the return button to return to the main menu the progress bar appears again and it doesnt stop(and not even let me see my menu).this is my code ProgressBar myProgressBar; int myProgress = 0; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.main1); Button nea = (Button) findViewById(R.id.nea); nea.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick (View view) { setContentView(R.layout.bar); myProgressBar=(ProgressBar)findViewById(R.id.bar); new Thread(myThread).start(); Intent myIntent = new Intent(view.getContext(), nea.class); startActivityForResult(myIntent, 0); } }); } and then,out of the onCreate private Runnable myThread = new Runnable(){ @Override public void run() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub while (myProgress<100){ try{ myHandle.sendMessage(myHandle.obtainMessage()); Thread.sleep(1000); } catch(Throwable t){ } } } Handler myHandle = new Handler(){ public void handleMessage(Message msg) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub myProgress++; myProgressBar.setProgress(myProgress); } }; };

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• Celery / Django Single Tasks being run multiple times

  - by felix001

  I'm facing an issue where I'm placing a task into the queue and it is being run multiple times. From the celery logs I can see that the same worker is running the task ... [2014-06-06 15:12:20,731: INFO/MainProcess] Received task: input.tasks.add_queue [2014-06-06 15:12:20,750: INFO/Worker-2] starting runner.. [2014-06-06 15:12:20,759: INFO/Worker-2] collection started [2014-06-06 15:13:32,828: INFO/Worker-2] collection complete [2014-06-06 15:13:32,836: INFO/Worker-2] generation of steps complete [2014-06-06 15:13:32,836: INFO/Worker-2] update created [2014-06-06 15:13:33,655: INFO/Worker-2] email sent [2014-06-06 15:13:33,656: INFO/Worker-2] update created [2014-06-06 15:13:34,420: INFO/Worker-2] email sent [2014-06-06 15:13:34,421: INFO/Worker-2] FINISH - Success However when I view the actual logs of the application it is showing 5-6 log lines for each step (??). Im using Django 1.6 with RabbitMQ. The method for placing into the queue is via placing a delay on a function. This function (task decorator is added( then calls a class which is run. Has anyone any idea on the best way to troubleshoot this ? Edit : As requested heres the code, views.py In my view im sending my data to the queue via ... from input.tasks import add_queue_project add_queue_project.delay(data) tasks.py from celery.decorators import task @task() def add_queue_project(data): """ run project """ logger = logging_setup(app="project") logger.info("starting project runner..") f = project_runner(data) f.main() class project_runner(): """ main project runner """ def __init__(self,data): self.data = data self.logger = logging_setup(app="project") def self.main(self): .... Code settings.py THIRD_PARTY_APPS = ( 'south', # Database migration helpers: 'crispy_forms', # Form layouts 'rest_framework', 'djcelery', ) import djcelery djcelery.setup_loader() BROKER_HOST = "127.0.0.1" BROKER_PORT = 5672 # default RabbitMQ listening port BROKER_USER = "test" BROKER_PASSWORD = "test" BROKER_VHOST = "test" CELERY_BACKEND = "amqp" # telling Celery to report the results back to RabbitMQ CELERY_RESULT_DBURI = "" CELERY_IMPORTS = ("input.tasks", ) celeryd The line im running is to start celery, python2.7 manage.py celeryd -l info Thanks,

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• VBA does not run Powerpoint

  - by user1557188

  This is very frustrating, first lines of programming Powerpoint VBA after a long while .... Please help this is killing me Writing a small sub connecting to an action using name test Sub test() MSGBOX "this is a test " end sub I placed this in a module I just created and it works I copy the same test in named as a module and it does not work any more .... I'm trying to make PPT connect to events to do things on a per slide basis ..... using google.... this worked a few times ... but now nothing works any more. The simple test above fails since I renamed the module. As I further change the second routine to test1() ipv test None of the macros can be executed any more (module1 NOT CHNANGED) Module NAME..... contains the same code, except test1() ipv test. ... now all macro processing stops the color of text changes (as is clicked on it) but nothing gets obviously executed. Are things that unstable recenty in VBA for powerpoint 2010 how did I run: connect to empty slide using 3 lines test 1 test 2 test 3 on each of the lines I defined an action for each in different modules run: Go into slide show and on the first slide just click.... color changes but nothing happens any more Saved all closed restarted .... simply refuses except on first created pptm

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• Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

  - by nodje

  I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

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• Run Reporting Service in local mode and generate columns automatically?

  - by grady

  Hi, I have a SQL query right now which I want to use with the MS reporting services in my ASP.NET application. So I created a report in local mode (rdlc) and attached this to a report viewer. Since my query uses parameters, I created a stored procedure, which had exactly those parameters. In addition to that I had some textboxes which are used for entering the params for the query and a button to call the stored proc and to fill the datatset which is bound to the report viewer. This works, I press the button and according to what I entred the correct data is shown. Now my question: In the future I plan to have multiple reports (which will be selected in a dropdown) and I wonder if I can somehow just call the correct stored procedure and according to the columns which are *SELECT*ed in the procedure, the columns are shown in the report. Example: I select report1 from the dropdown (procedure for report 1 is called), 5 columns are shown in the reportviewer. I select report2 from dropdown (procedure for report 2 is called), 8 columns are shown. Is that possible somehow? Thanks :-)

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• How should approach allowing users to create notes with revisions?

  - by Magicked

  I'm working on a Rails project where I want to allow users to create individual notes, which are really just text fields at this time. With each note, the user can edit what they have previously written, but the old version is kept in a revision table. I'm trying to figure out the best way to approach this. My initial thoughts are to have the following relationships: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :notes end class Note < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :note_revisions belongs_to :user end class NoteRevision < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :note_revision end The Note model will only contain a timestamp of when the note was first created. The NoteRevision model will contain the text, as well as a timestamp for each revision. This way, every time a new revision is made, a new entry is created into the NoteRevision table which is tracked through the Note table. Hopefully this makes sense! First, does this look like a good way to do this? If so, I'm having trouble figuring out how the controller and view will present this information in one form. Are there any good tutorials or has someone seen anything similar that can point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance!

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• PHP: problem rendering large images (error 321)

  - by JP19

  Hi ... its me again with a php problem :) Following is part of my PHP script which is rendering JPEG images. ... $tf=$requested_file; $image_type="jpeg"; header("Content-type: image/${image_type}"); $CMD="\$image=imagecreatefrom${image_type}('$tf'); image${image_type}(\$image);"; eval($CMD); exit; ... There is no syntactical error, because above code is working fine for small images, but for large images, it gives: Error 321 (net::ERR_INVALID_CHUNKED_ENCODING): Unknown error. in the browser. To be sure, I created two images using imagemagick from same source image - one resized to 10% of original and other 90%. http://mostpopularsports.net/images/misc/ttt10.jpg works http://mostpopularsports.net/images/misc/ttt90.jpg gives Error 301 in the browser. There is a related question with solution posted by OP here Error writing content through Apache. but I cannot understand how to make the fix. Can someome help me with it? I have looked at the headers in Chrome. For the first request, everything is fine. For the second request - the request headers are all garbled. Both images are jpeg (as they are created from imagemagick. But still to be sure I checked): misc/ttt10.jpg: JPEG image data, JFIF standard 1.01 misc/ttt90.jpg: JPEG image data, JFIF standard 1.01 Finally, the way I fixed is, remove the Transfer-Encoding: chunked header from the response. [This header was sent by apache only when the data was large enough]. (I had an internal proxy, so did it in the proxy script - otherwise one may need to do it in apache settings). There were some good answers and I have selected the one that helped me solve the problem best. thanks JP

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• How to rename an private file of my application?

  - by Ungureanu Liviu

  Hi! I want to rename an context private file created with openFileOutput() but I don't know how... I tried that: File file = getFileStreamPath(optionsMenuView.getPlaylistName()); // this file already exists try { FileOutputStream outStream = openFileOutput(newPlaylistName, Context.MODE_WORLD_READABLE); // i create a new file with the new name outStream.close(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { Log.e(TAG, "file not found!"); e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG, "IO exception"); e.printStackTrace(); } Log.e(TAG, "rename status: " + file.renameTo(getFileStreamPath(newPlaylistName))); //it return true This code throw FileNotFoundException but the documentation said "Open a private file associated with this Context's application package for writing. Creates the file if it doesn't already exist." so the new file should be created on disk. The problem: When I try to read from the new renamed file I got FileNotFoundException! Thank you!

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• Best practices for creating a logger library using log4net. Is

  - by VolleyBall Player

  My goal is to create a log4net library that can be shared across multiple projects. In my solution which is in .net 4.0, I created a class library called Logger and referenced it from web project. Now I created a logger.config in the class library and put all the configuration in the logger.config file. I then used [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true, ConfigFile = "Logger.config")] When I run the web app nothing is getting logged. So I added this line of code in web.config <add key="log4net.Internal.Debug" value="true"/> which gave me debugging info and error information Failed to find configuration section 'log4net' in the application's .config file. Check your .config file for the and elements. The configuration section should look like: I moved the configuration from logger.config to web.config and everything seems to work fine. I don't want the log4net configuration in web.config but have it logger.config as a cleaner approach. The goal is to make other projects use this library and not have to worry about configuration in every project. Now the question is, How do I do this? What am I doing wrong? Any suggestion with code example will be beneficial to everyone. FYI, I am using structure map IOC to reslove the logger before logging to it.

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• What should I use to increase performance. View/Query/Temporary Table

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I want to know the performance of using Views, Temp Tables and Direct Queries Usage in a Stored Procedure. I have a table that gets created every time when a trigger gets fired. I know this trigger will be fired very rare and only once at the time of setup. Now I have to use that created table from triggers at many places for fetching data and I confirms it that no one make any changes in that table. i.e ReadOnly Table. I have to use this tables data along with multiple tables to join and fetch result for further queries say select * from triggertable By Using temp table select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on select a,b, c from #tx --do something select d,e,f from #tx ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. By Using Views create view viewname ( select ... from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on ) select a,b, c from viewname --do something select d,e,f from viewname ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. This View can be used in other places as well. So I will be creating at database rather than at sp By Using Direct Query select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something . . --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. Now I can create a view/temporary table/ directly query usage in all upcoming queries. What would be the best to use in this case.

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• What causes markup-controls to be null?

  - by Earlz

  Ok, I have a very strange problem. I have a regular UserControl with some controls in the markup. At Page_Load these controls are still null. And I have tried EnsureChildControls It is laid out like this: Masterpage - Page - mycontrol1 - mycontrol2 - problemcontrol ProblemControl is where the controls are null. MyControl1 contains MyControl2. MyControl2 is another UserControl which contains ProblemControl in it's markup. Masterpage is nothing special and Page contains MyControl1 in it's markup. The only oddity is that ProblemControl is created dynamically at Page_Init. Everything works fine until I get to ProblemControl where none of the controls are being created. ProblemControl has the proper things all set such as the Page and Parent property. I do not see any problems. The source code for all of these(except ProblemControl) is pretty extensive, so I'm hoping someone can just give me some troubleshooting tips for this problem and if anyone has encountered it before. Also, I can place ProblemControl on another Page control and it will work fine, it's something about mycontrol1 and/or mycontrol2. But we've never had any problems with mycontrol1 and mycontrol2 doesn't have anything I can see wrong with it. (which I've been tediously analyzing for the past few hours). Has anyone else had this same problem? Are there any common things to check for?

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• Python parsing error message functions

  - by user1716168

  The code below was created by me with the help of many SO veterans: The code takes an entered math expression and splits it into operators and operands for later use. I have created two functions, the parsing function that splits, and the error function. I am having problems with the error function because it won't display my error messages and I feel the function is being ignored when the code runs. An error should print if an expression such as this is entered: 3//3+4,etc. where there are two operators together, or there are more than two operators in the expression overall, but the error messages dont print. My code is below: def errors(): numExtrapolation,opExtrapolation=parse(expression) if (len(numExtrapolation) == 3) and (len(opExtrapolation) !=2): print("Bad1") if (len(numExtrapolation) ==2) and (len(opExtrapolation) !=1): print("Bad2") def parse(expression): operators= set("*/+-") opExtrapolate= [] numExtrapolate= [] buff=[] for i in expression: if i in operators: numExtrapolate.append(''.join(buff)) buff= [] opExtrapolate.append(i) opExtrapolation=opExtrapolate else: buff.append(i) numExtrapolate.append(''.join(buff)) numExtrapolation=numExtrapolate #just some debugging print statements print(numExtrapolation) print("z:", len(opExtrapolation)) return numExtrapolation, opExtrapolation errors() Any help would be appreciated. Please don't introduce new code that is any more advanced than the code already here. I am looking for a solution to my problem... not large new code segments. Thanks.

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• Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

  - by Daniel Rose

  I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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• C#. Saving information about events and event handlers and removing handlers using this information

  - by Philipp

  I have an object which is creating several event handlers using lambda expressions, and I need to remove all handlers created in that object in one time. I'm trying to create some unified static object which will 'know' which handler relates to which object and event if event handler was created through this static object. I tried something like code below, but I don't understand how to save events and event handlers objects, to be able remove handlers in one time. class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var EventSender = new EventSender(); var EventReceiver = new EventReceiver(EventSender); EventSender.Invoke(" some var "); LinkSaver.RemoveEvent(EventReceiver); // ?? Console.ReadKey(); } } public class ObjLink{ public object Event; public object Action; } public static class LinkSaver { public static void SetEvent<T>(object obj, Action<T> Event, T Action) { Event(Action); var objLink = new ObjLink{Event = Event, Action = Action}; if (!Links.ContainsKey(obj)) Links.Add(obj, new List<ObjLink>{objLink}); else Links[obj].Add(objLink); } static Dictionary<object,List<ObjLink>> Links = new Dictionary<object, List<ObjLink>>(); public static void RemoveEvent(object obj){ foreach(var objLink in Links[obj]){ // objLink.Event -= objLink.Action; ??? } } } public class EventReceiver { public EventReceiver(EventSender obj) { LinkSaver.SetEvent<EventSender.TestDelegate>(this, obj.SetEvent, str => Console.WriteLine(str + " test event!")); } } public class EventSender { public void Invoke(string var) { if (eventTest != null) eventTest(var); } public void SetEvent(TestDelegate Action) { eventTest += Action; } public delegate void TestDelegate(string var); private event TestDelegate eventTest; // by the way public void RemoveFromEvent() { foreach (var handler in eventTest.GetInvocationList()) eventTest -= (TestDelegate)handler; } }

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• What would be a better implementation of shared variable among subclass

  - by Churk

  So currently I have a spring unit testing application. And it requires me to get a session cookie from a foreign authentication source. Problem what that is, this authentication process is fairly expensive and time consuming, and I am trying to create a structure where I am authenticate once, by any subclass, and any subsequent subclass is created, it will reuse this session cookie without hitting the authentication process again. My problem right now is, the static cookie is null each time another subclass is created. And I been reading that using static as a global variable is a bad idea, but I couldn't think of another way to do this because of Spring framework setting things during run time and how I would set the cookie so that all other classes can use it. Another piece of information. The variable is being use, but is change able during run time. It is not a single user being signed in and used across the board. But more like a Sub1 would call login, and we have a cookie. Then multiple test will be using that login until SubX will come in and say, I am using different credential, so I need to login as something else. And repeats. Here is a outline of my code: public class Parent implements InitializingBean { protected static String BASE_URL; public static Cookie cookie; ... All default InitializingBean methods ... afterPropertiesSet() { cookie = // login process returns a cookie } } public class Sub1 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomething() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } } public class Sub2 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomethingElse() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } }

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• Django Many-to-Many Question

  - by DZ

  My questions seems like a common problem that when I have seen any questions on it is never really asked right or not answered. So Im going to try to get the question right, and maybe someone knows how to resolve the issue, or correct my understanding. The problem: When you have a many-to-many relation ship (related_name not through) and you are trying to use the admin interface you are required to input one of the rleationships even though it does not have to exsist for you to create the first entry. Meaning you have to assign a group to an event to create the group. Wow that sounds complicated. So I can see why the question is not getting answered. Lets try the non code explanation example... First and important versions: Django 1.1.1 Phython 2.6 So I have a model where I created a many-to-many realtionship and Im using the related_name Im creating an app that is an event organizer, for simplicty lets say events although they could be anytype). For this first post Im going to stay away from the code and just try to explain. A few keys: (explaining comment) ** - many-to-many So in the model we have 1) The Main Event (this is main model) 2) Groups (link to events and their can be many events for a group) a) Events** I have simplified this example a little becuase I recognize that what does it matter. Just create the event first... But there are specific varations where that will not work. What the many-to-many related_name does it created another table with the indecies of the two other tables. Nothing says that this extra table HAS to be populated. Becuase if I look in the database and work within myPHPadmin I can create a group with out registering an event, since the connection between the two is a seperate table the DB does not care. How do I make the admin interface this realize it? Ok I know thats a lot so I hope I have explained it clearly. Thank you anyone for your comments/thoughts/advice

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• How to hide an dom element after creating it on the fly with Jquery ?

  - by ismaelsow

  I am trying to build a form where users can add a text field by clicking on a "add option" button. They can also remove added fields by a "remove option" link created on the fly by Jquery, along with the text field. My code looks like this : $(document).ready(function(){ $("#add_option").click(function(){ var form = $("form"); var input_field = '<input type="text" />'; var delete_link = '<a href="#">remove</a>'; form.append(input_field + delete_link); return false; }); $("a").click(function(){ alert('clicked'); return false; }); }); This code is not working : when I click on the "add_option" button, a new text field and the "delete_link" appear. But when clicking on the "delete_link" created by JQuery, the browser follows the link instead of launching a pop-up displaying "clicked". Any idea ? Thanks !

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• SharePoint Lists.asmx's UpdateListItems() returns too much data

  - by Philipp Schmid

  Is there a way to prevent the UpdateListItems() web service call in SharePoint's Lists.asmx endpoint from returning all of the fields of the newly created or updated list item? In our case an event handler attached to our custom list is adding some rather large field values which are turned to the client unnecessarily. Is there a way to tell it to only return the ID of the newly created (or updated) list item? For example, currently the web service returns something like this: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" ows_Title="Title" ows_Modified="2003-06-19 20:31:21" ows_Created="2003-06-18 10:15:58" ows_Author="3;#User1_Display_Name" ows_Editor="7;#User2_Display_Name" ows_owshiddenversion="3" ows_Attachments="-1" ows__ModerationStatus="0" ows_LinkTitleNoMenu="Title" ows_LinkTitle="Title" ows_SelectTitle="4" ows_Order="400.000000000000" ows_GUID="{4962F024-BBA5-4A0B-9EC1-641B731ABFED}" ows_DateColumn="2003-09-04 00:00:00" ows_NumberColumn="791.00000000000000" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" /> </Result> ... </Results> where as I am looking for a trimmed response only containing for example the ows_ID attribute: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" /> </Result> ... </Results> I have unsuccessfully looked for a resource that documents all of the valid attributes for both the <Batch> and <Method> tags in he updates XmlNode parameter of UpdateListItems() in the hope that I will find a way to specify the fields to return. A solution for WSS 3.0 would be preferable over an SP 2010-only solution.

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• How to sort a multidimensional array by a certain key?

  - by Eelke

  This should be really simple, but what is the way to go on this. I want to sort an multidimensional array by a key, like this: Array ( [0] => Array ( [iid] => 1 [invitee] => 174 [nid] => 324343 [showtime] => 2010-05-09 15:15:00 [location] => 13 [status] => 1 [created] => 2010-05-09 15:05:00 [updated] => 2010-05-09 16:24:00 ) [1] => Array ( [iid] => 1 [invitee] => 220 [nid] => 21232 [showtime] => 2010-05-09 15:15:00 [location] => 12 [status] => 0 [created] => 2010-05-10 18:11:00 [updated] => 2010-05-10 18:11:00 )) Say i want to sort this by [status], how would I achieve this? Thanks in advance!

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• How do I avoid a race condition in my Rails app?

  - by Cathal

  Hi, I have a really simple Rails application that allows users to register their attendance on a set of courses. The ActiveRecord models are as follows: class Course < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :scheduled_runs ... end class ScheduledRun < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :course has_many :attendances has_many :attendees, :through => :attendances ... end class Attendance < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :scheduled_run, :counter_cache => true ... end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :attendances has_many :registered_courses, :through => :attendances, :source => :scheduled_run end A ScheduledRun instance has a finite number of places available, and once the limit is reached, no more attendances can be accepted. def full? attendances_count == capacity end attendances_count is a counter cache column holding the number of attendance associations created for a particular ScheduledRun record. My problem is that I don't fully know the correct way to ensure that a race condition doesn't occur when 1 or more people attempt to register for the last available place on a course at the same time. My Attendance controller looks like this: class AttendancesController < ApplicationController before_filter :load_scheduled_run before_filter :load_user, :only => :create def new @user = User.new end def create unless @user.valid? render :action => 'new' end @attendance = @user.attendances.build(:scheduled_run_id => params[:scheduled_run_id]) if @attendance.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully created attendance." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end protected def load_scheduled_run @run = ScheduledRun.find(params[:scheduled_run_id]) end def load_user @user = User.create_new_or_load_existing(params[:user]) end end As you can see, it doesn't take into account where the ScheduledRun instance has already reached capacity. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated.

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• What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

  - by Curtis White

  This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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• Micrsoft Silverlight 3 cannot create service reference to localhost:port

  - by Monte

  Windows Server 2003 (IIS 6) Visual Studio 2008 .NET FrameWork 3.5 SP1 I am a .NET developer for a living and I have over 40 hours in the problem Project type = "Silverlight Navigation Application", "APS.NET Web Site" (when I tried it as "ASP.NET Web Application Project" I could not copy it to the production web site - well I could copy it but I could not make it run) Created a service.cs on the .Web side of the application. Created a reference to that service.cs on the Silverlight side. For a time all is good as I can reference the service as localhost:port (e.g. localhost:1374) in Visual Studio and debug both Silverlight side and service.cs To access the application in production mode (from IE) I update the service refrence and replace localhost:port with the IP address. The problem with the IP address is I cannot debug the service.cs so I have to change it back to localhost:port to debug. Now to the problem. After a period of time localhost:port just plain breaks. I get an error message no service at the other end Yes I know the port can change - that is not the problem - the port on the service side just plain breaks! For example from Visual Studio from the Silverlight side of the project right click "Service Reference", "Add Service Reverence". It finds 1 service in the application on a port. But when I click that service under "Services:" in the modal dialog box "Add Service Reference" I get an error: There was an error downloading 'http://localhost:1377/SehaleCSS.Web/Service.svc'. The request failed with the error message: -- Could not load file or assembly 'App_Web_tipnndfq, If I go back to the IP address the service is repsponding (with the right answer) The service just plain goes a while responding to localhost:port and then fails Even making NO change to service.cs it go a while then fails as a localhost:port It is not IIS environmental as I can go back to a prior saved version of the code and it works Something is happening that the .web side of the application is failing. It still works as an IP and it still exposes itself as a localhost:port but it fails to properly repsonde as a localhost:port.

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• Legacy application creates dialogs in non-ui thread.

  - by Frater

  I've been working support for a while on a legacy application and I've noticed a bit of a problem. The system is an incredibly complex client/server with standard and custom frameworks. One of the custom frameworks built into the application involves validating workflow actions. It finds potential errors, separates them into warnings and errors, and passes the results back to the client. The main difference between warnings and errors is that warnings ask the user if they wish to ignore the error. The issue I have is that the dialog for this prompt is created on a non-ui thread, and thus we get cross-threading issues when the dialog is shown. I have attempted to invoke the showing of the dialog, however this fails because the window handle has not been created. (InvokeRequired returns false, which I assume in this case means it cannot find a decent handle in its parent tree, rather than that it doesn't require it.) Does anyone have any suggestions for how I can create this dialog and get the UI thread to set it up and call it?

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