Search Results

Search found 52506 results on 2101 pages for 'multiple value'.

Page 169/2101 | < Previous Page | 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176  | Next Page >

  • Can WD SmartWare be used on multiple computers?

    - by Matt
    I am wondering if I can use my portable Western Digital 1 tb drive and it's WD Smartware on 2 different computers (I have a desktop and a laptop) at the same time. So in essence, could it run two separate backups? I would even be happy if the portable external combined both data, as long as I had backups of each computer. Can anyone share some insight? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • multiple monitor, ATI EyeFinity vs NVidia Mosaic on HDMI

    - by user1531897
    i have been googling much for answer but only someone with real experience can help here. my aim is to have 5 monitors connected to one computer in 2x2 full screen on all 4 monitors (video wall) with same resolution, 4xfullHD for example, plus one -5th monitor as controling. Ati have example picture of this configuration here. I have no gaming nor 3d needs here. Simple desktop applications plus video streams. So because graphic cards for this are expensive, i need to find out before buying pros and cons of 2 possible solutions (1) Ati Eyefinity capable card(s) ...and (2) Nvidia Quadro/NVS card(s) with mosaic and/or nvidia surround technology. For example i can find that current good cards for this can be: Ati's 7870 eyefinity6 card, link here pros: one card can handle all 5 displays, cons: active DP adapters needed (sometimes with aditional usb-powering complication) Nvidia Qudro NVS 450, link here Both cards have DisplayPorts as outputs (my targets are HDMI displays), but as far i saw information is that Eyefinity needs "active DP-DVI/hdmi adapters" for outputs and they are little expensive...? Does nvidia have this limitation (active adapters) ??? And final question, is Ati Eyefinity still better for this purpose than Nvidia-mosaic by someone's real experience there.

    Read the article

  • Batch file script for Enable & disable the "use automatic Configuration Script"

    - by Tijo Joy
    My intention is to create a .bat file that toggles the check box of "use automatic Configuration Script" in Internet Settings. The following is my script @echo OFF setlocal ENABLEEXTENSIONS set KEY_NAME="HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings" set VALUE_NAME=AutoConfigURL FOR /F "usebackq skip=1 tokens=1-3" %%A IN (`REG QUERY %KEY_NAME% /v %VALUE_NAME% 2^>nul`) DO ( set ValueName=%%A set ValueType=%%B set ValueValue=%%C ) @echo Value Name = %ValueName% @echo Value Type = %ValueType% @echo Value Value = %ValueValue% IF NOT %ValueValue%==yyyy ( reg add "HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings" /v AutoConfigURL /t REG_SZ /d "yyyy" /f echo Proxy Enabled ) else ( echo Hai reg add "HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings" /v AutoConfigURL /t REG_SZ /d "" /f echo Proxy Disabled ) The output i'm getting for the Proxy Enabled part is Value Name = AutoConfigURL Value Type = REG_SZ **Value Value =yyyy** Hai The operation completed successfully. Proxy Disabled But the Proxy Enable part isn't working fine the output i get is : Value Name = AutoConfigURL Value Type = REG_SZ **Value Value =** ( was unexpected at this time. The variable "Value Value" is not getting set when we try to do the Proxy enable

    Read the article

  • IIS, multiple CPU cores, application pools and worker processes - best configuration for a single si

    - by Egghead Design
    Hi We use Kentico CMS and I've exchanged emails with them about a web garden deployment. We have a single site running on a server with 8 cpu cores. In line with Kentico's advice, we have not altered the application pool web garden setting from the default i.e. it is set to a maximum number of worker processes of 1. Our experience is that the site only uses one of the cpu cores - the others are idling. When I emailed them about this, their response was that the OS/IIS would handle this and use other cores as necessary even though the application pool only has a single worker process. Now, I've a lot of respect for the guys at Kentico, but this doesn't seem right to me? Surely, if we want to use all cores, we need to permit eight worker processes (and implement session state storage in SQL server)? Many thanks Tony

    Read the article

  • Multiple git repos in plesk virtual hosts

    - by icc97
    Each plesk vhost only has one user access that httpdocs directory. I want to manage a whole bunch of separate virtual hosts using Git. Does this mean installing a separate Git repository with a separate user / ssh public key combination for each virtual host or is there a way of centralising it at all? Gitosis sounds like it might help - but I'm not sure if it gets round pushing the files to each virtual host.

    Read the article

  • Backup multiple Exchange Accounts without direct access to exchange server

    - by Mike Wallace
    For e-mail, we use Microsoft Exchange and it is hosted by 1and1.com. We have about 30 Exchange accounts that I would like to backup to a PST file. That is, for each account that we have (all 30), I would like to create a single PST file (1.pst thru 30.pst). I do not have direct access to the Exchange server. Basically, for each Exchange account, I can supply: The IP address for the Exchange server or the URL to the OWA. The Username The Password Is there a tool out there that can do this for me? It seems that Microsoft's "Online Services Migration Tools" comes awfully close, but it appears that its geared to pull data out of any Exchange server and push it into Microsoft Online. I don't believe it can be used to simply pull the data out and generate PST's.

    Read the article

  • IIS 7.5, Multiple Application Pools, and URL Rewriting (403.18 -- Forbidden)

    - by Jerry Hewett
    Is there any way to configure IIS 7.5 to perform URL rewrites to different application pools on the same site without running into a 403.18 error? We're using Helicon ISAPI Rewrite 3 on IIS 6 and it's working like a charm. The root-level "application" is running under it's own application pool, and on IIS 6 we have no problems doing URL rewrites from that application pool to any one of the other four application pools. But when I copy the same server configuration information over to IIS 7.5 the URL rewrites to any of the other application pools fail with a "403.18 -- Forbidden" error. The weird bit is that the IIS 6 is not (at least as far as I can tell, by looking at the site Service configuration dialog) running under IIS 5 emulation mode, so somehow the rewrites aren't throwing 403.18 errors. So something must be different... but whatever it is, I sure haven't been able to figure it out. Btw, we're not married to Helicon ISAPI Rewrite. If there's another way to preserve our current rewrite configuration rules using another module or method I'd be more than happy to use it.

    Read the article

  • DNS Query.log - Multiple query’s for ripe.net

    - by Christopher Wilson
    Currently I run a DNS server (bind9) that handles queries from clients over the internet lately I have noticed hundreds of queries from all different address's that look like this (Server IP removed) client 216.59.33.210#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 216.59.33.204#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 208.64.127.5#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 184.107.255.202#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 208.64.127.5#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 208.64.127.5#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 205.204.65.83#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 69.162.110.106#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 216.59.33.210#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 69.162.110.106#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 216.59.33.204#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 208.64.127.5#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) Can someone please explain why there are so many clients querying for ripe.net ?

    Read the article

  • IIS 7.5, Multiple Application Pools, and URL Rewriting (403.18 -- Forbidden)

    - by Jerry Hewett
    Is there any way to configure IIS 7.5 to perform URL rewrites to different application pools on the same site without running into a 403.18 error? We're using Helicon ISAPI Rewrite 3 on IIS 6 and it's working like a charm. The root-level "application" is running under it's own application pool, and on IIS 6 we have no problems doing URL rewrites from that application pool to any one of the other four application pools. But when I copy the same server configuration information over to IIS 7.5 the URL rewrites to any of the other application pools fail with a "403.18 -- Forbidden" error. The weird bit is that the IIS 6 is not (at least as far as I can tell, by looking at the site Service configuration dialog) running under IIS 5 emulation mode, so somehow the rewrites aren't throwing 403.18 errors. So something must be different... but whatever it is, I sure haven't been able to figure it out. Btw, we're not married to Helicon ISAPI Rewrite. If there's another way to preserve our current rewrite configuration rules using another module or method I'd be more than happy to use it.

    Read the article

  • Using jquery validate with multiple fields of the same name

    - by Matt H
    I am trying to get jquery validate to work on multiple fields. Reason being I have dynamically generated fields added and they are simply a list of numbers. So I thought I'd put together a basic example and followed the concept from the accepted answer in the following link: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/931687/using-jquery-validate-plugin-to-validate-multiple-form-fields-with-identical-name However, it's not doing anything useful. Why is it not working? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://dev.jquery.com/view/trunk/plugins/validate/lib/jquery.delegate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://dev.jquery.com/view/trunk/plugins/validate/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script> $("#submit").click(function(){ $("field").each(function(){ $(this).rules("add", { required: true, email: true, messages: { required: "Specify a valid email" } }); }) }); $(document).ready(function(){ $("#myform").validate(); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="myform"> <label for="field">Required, email: </label> <input class="left" id="field" name="field" /> <input class="left" id="field" name="field" /> <input class="left" id="field" name="field" /> <input class="left" id="field" name="field" /> <br/> <input type="submit" value="Validate!" id="submit" name="submit" /> </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Loading not-so-well-formed XML into XDocument (multiple DTD)

    - by Gart
    I have got a problem handling data which is almost well-formed XHTML document except for it has multiple DTD declarations in the beginning: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 3.2 Final//EN"> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 3.2 Final//EN"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> ... </head> <body> ... </body> </html> I need load this data into XDocument object using only the first DTD and ignoring the rest declarations. It is not possible to completely ignore DTD processing because the document may have unusual characters like &acirc; or &euro; etc. The text is retrieved from external source and I have no idea why it comes like this. Obviously my naive attempt to load this document fails with System.Xml.XmlException : Cannot have multiple DTDs: var xmlReaderSettings = new XmlReaderSettings { DtdProcessing = DtdProcessing.Parse XmlResolver = new XmlPreloadedResolver(), ConformanceLevel = ConformanceLevel.Document, }; using (var xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(stream, xmlReaderSettings)) { return XDocument.Load(xmlReader); } What would be the best way to handle this kind of data?

    Read the article

  • Need additional help with binding multiple CommandParameters using MultiBinding

    - by Dave
    I need to have a command handler for a ToggleButton that can take multiple parameters, namely the IsChecked property of said ToggleButton, along with a constant value, which could be a string, byte, int... doesn't matter. I found this great question on SO and followed the answer's link and read up on MultiBinding and IMultiValueConverter. It went really smoothly until I had to write the MultiBinding, when I realized that I also need to pass a constant value and couldn't do something like <Binding Value="1" /> I then came across another similar question that Kent Boogaart answered, and then I started to think about ways that I could get around this. One possible way is to not use MVVM and simply add the Tag property to my ToggleButton, in which case my MultiBinding would look like this: <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource MyConverter}"> <MultiBinding.Bindings> <Binding Path="IsChecked" /> <Binding Path="Tag" /> </MultiBinding.Bindings> </MultiBinding> Kent had made a comment along the lines of, "if you're using MVVM you should be able to get around this issue". However, I'm not sure that's an option for me, even though I have adopted MVVM as my WPF pattern of necessity choice. The reason why I say this is that I have wayyyy more than one ToggleButton in the UserControl, and each of the ToggleButtons' Commands need to call the same function. But since they are ToggleButtons, I can't use the property bound to IsChecked in the ViewModel, because I don't know which one was last clicked. I suppose I could add another private property to keep track of this, but it seems a little silly. As far as the constant goes, I could probably get rid of this if I did the tracking idea, but not sure of any other way to get around it. Does anyone have good suggestions for me here? :) EDIT -- ok, so I need to update my bindings, which still don't work quite right: <ToggleButton Tag="1" Command="{Binding MyCommand}" Style="{StaticResource PassFailToggleButtonStyle}" HorizontalContentAlignment="Center" Background="Transparent" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="0"> <ToggleButton.CommandParameter> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource MyConverter}"> <MultiBinding.Bindings> <Binding Path="IsChecked" RelativeSource="{RelativeSource Mode=Self}" /> <Binding Path="Tag" RelativeSource="{RelativeSource Mode=Self}" /> </MultiBinding.Bindings> </MultiBinding> </ToggleButton.CommandParameter> </ToggleButton> IsChecked was working, but not Tag. I just realized that Tag is a string... duh. It's working now! The key was to use a RelativeSource of Self.

    Read the article

  • how get value from smartgwt Custom FilterEditorType ?

    - by Ehsan Khodarahmi
    Hi I've developed a custom widget (a persian calendar consist of a base textbox & image widget on a gwt grid which look likes smartgwt calendar) & putted it in a CanvasItem because i want to add it as a filter editor for a listGrid : ListGridField regDateTimeField = new ListGridField("regDateTime", ????? ? ????", 120"); regDateTimeField.setFilterEditorType(new PersianCalendarItem()); now list grid displays it successfully, but when i click on filter button, nothing happend even when it value changes. I think i have to override some canvas item methods to return internal textbox value, but i don't know how should i do this ???

    Read the article

  • Serializing a list of Key/Value pairs to XML

    - by Slauma
    I have a list of key/value pairs I'd like to store in and retrieve from a XML file. So this task is similar as described here. I am trying to follow the advice in the marked answer (using a KeyValuePair and a XmlSerializer) but I don't get it working. What I have so far is a "Settings" class ... public class Settings { public int simpleValue; public List<KeyValuePair<string, int>> list; } ... an instance of this class ... Settings aSettings = new Settings(); aSettings.simpleValue = 2; aSettings.list = new List<KeyValuePair<string, int>>(); aSettings.list.Add(new KeyValuePair<string, int>("m1", 1)); aSettings.list.Add(new KeyValuePair<string, int>("m2", 2)); ... and the following code to write that instance to a XML file: XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Settings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter("c:\\testfile.xml"); serializer.Serialize(writer, aSettings); writer.Close(); The resulting file is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Settings xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <simpleValue>2</simpleValue> <list> <KeyValuePairOfStringInt32 /> <KeyValuePairOfStringInt32 /> </list> </Settings> So neither key nor value of the pairs in my list are stored though the number of elements is correct. Obviously I am doing something basically wrong. My questions are: How can I store the key/value pairs of the list in the file? How can I change the default generated name "KeyValuePairOfStringInt32" of the elements in the list to some other name like "listElement" I'd like to have?

    Read the article

  • Flex 3 color picker no color value

    - by kha.ya.ru
    I need "no color" value in flex 3/4 color picker component. Here are some options I've investigated: 1) External componet. Searched a lot but didn't managed to find a suitable one. There is a great color picker that meets my needs completely, but it is in action script 2 format. I need as3. 2) Enhance the existing built-in color picker component. So here I need your help. Do you have any ideas how the built-in color picker component can be enhanced in order to support "no color" value?

    Read the article

  • Changing PerformancePoint Time Intelligence Post Formula Default Value

    - by Gabriel Guimarães
    Is there a way to change the default value of the Time Intelligence Post Formula?? I have a Dashboard where I use From Date and To Date filters, to calculate the values between the user selected period, for those filters I use the Time Intelligence Post Formula,however the default when the user enters the page is always today's date on both filters. (and from today to today analysis doesn't make sense for this) What I would like to to is have a From Date be something like 30 days before today's date, but not forced on the report receiving the filters, I just want the filter to have a default value and then let the user choose whatever he wants. Anybody knows of something that can be done, or this just can't be done?

    Read the article

  • multiple puppet masters

    - by Oli
    I would like to set up an additional puppet master but have the CA server handled by only 1 puppet master. I have set this up as per the documentation here: http://docs.puppetlabs.com/guides/scaling_multiple_masters.html I have configured my second puppet master as follows: [main] ... ca = false ca_server = puppet-master1.test.net I am using passenger so I am a bit confused how the virtual-host.conf file should look for my second puppet-master2.test.net. Here is mine (updated as per Shane Maddens answer): LoadModule passenger_module /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-3.0.18/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so PassengerRoot /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-3.0.18 PassengerRuby /usr/bin/ruby Listen 8140 <VirtualHost *:8140> ProxyPassMatch ^/([^/]+/certificate.*)$ https://puppet-master1.test.net:8140/$1 SSLEngine on SSLProtocol -ALL +SSLv3 +TLSv1 SSLCipherSuite ALL:!ADH:RC4+RSA:+HIGH:+MEDIUM:-LOW:-SSLv2:-EXP SSLCertificateFile /var/lib/puppet/ssl/certs/puppet-master2.test.net.pem SSLCertificateKeyFile /var/lib/puppet/ssl/private_keys/puppet-master2.test.net.pem #SSLCertificateChainFile /var/lib/puppet/ssl/ca/ca_crt.pem #SSLCACertificateFile /var/lib/puppet/ssl/ca/ca_crt.pem # If Apache complains about invalid signatures on the CRL, you can try disabling # CRL checking by commenting the next line, but this is not recommended. #SSLCARevocationFile /var/lib/puppet/ssl/ca/ca_crl.pem SSLVerifyClient optional SSLVerifyDepth 1 # The `ExportCertData` option is needed for agent certificate expiration warnings SSLOptions +StdEnvVars +ExportCertData # This header needs to be set if using a loadbalancer or proxy RequestHeader unset X-Forwarded-For RequestHeader set X-SSL-Subject %{SSL_CLIENT_S_DN}e RequestHeader set X-Client-DN %{SSL_CLIENT_S_DN}e RequestHeader set X-Client-Verify %{SSL_CLIENT_VERIFY}e DocumentRoot /etc/puppet/rack/public/ RackBaseURI / <Directory /etc/puppet/rack/> Options None AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> I have commented out the #SSLCertificateChainFile, #SSLCACertificateFile & #SSLCARevocationFile - this is not a CA server so not sure I need this. How would I get passenger to work with these? I would like to use ProxyPassMatch which I have configured as per the documentation. I don't want to specify a ca server in every puppet.conf file. I am getting this error when trying to get create a cert from a puppet client pointing to the second puppet master server (puppet-master2.test.net): [root@puppet-client2 ~]# puppet agent --test Error: Could not request certificate: Could not intern from s: nested asn1 error Exiting; failed to retrieve certificate and waitforcert is disabled On the puppet client I have this [main] server = puppet-master2.test.net What have I missed? -- update Here is a new virtual host file on my secondary puppet master. Is this correct? I have SSL turned off? LoadModule passenger_module /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-3.0.18/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so PassengerRoot /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-3.0.18 PassengerRuby /usr/bin/ruby # you probably want to tune these settings PassengerHighPerformance on PassengerMaxPoolSize 12 PassengerPoolIdleTime 1500 # PassengerMaxRequests 1000 PassengerStatThrottleRate 120 RackAutoDetect Off RailsAutoDetect Off Listen 8140 <VirtualHost *:8140> SSLEngine off ProxyPassMatch ^/([^/]+/certificate.*)$ https://puppet-master1.test.net:8140/$1 # Obtain Authentication Information from Client Request Headers SetEnvIf X-Client-Verify "(.*)" SSL_CLIENT_VERIFY=$1 SetEnvIf X-SSL-Client-DN "(.*)" SSL_CLIENT_S_DN=$1 DocumentRoot /etc/puppet/rack/public/ RackBaseURI / <Directory /etc/puppet/rack/> Options None AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> Cheers, Oli

    Read the article

  • Exchange ActiveSync with multiple email addresses

    - by Martin Robins
    I have Exchange 2007 SP2, and I have successfully connected my Windows Mobile phone via Exchange ActiveSync and can send and receive emails. I have two addresses within my Exchange mailbox, [email protected] and [email protected], with the second being set as the reply address. When I view my email addresses on my device, I see both of these email addresses, however when I send new messages it always selects the first email address as the reply address and not the second. It is probably worth pointing out that, like in the example provided above, the email addresses are shown alphabetically and the address being selected is the first alphabetically (just in case that matters). I would like to set the device to always select the reply address specified in the mailbox, or at least be able to ensure that the address I want is selected if I have to select it manually on the device, but cannot find any way to make this happen. Can anybody help?

    Read the article

  • Multiple IP addresses on one NIC register twice in DNS server

    - by Brad B.
    Hi, We've got a build server (Windows Server 2008 SP2, 64-bit) which has one NIC and two IP addresses registered to that NIC (192.168.1.30 and 192.168.1.31). The build server is registering two identical Host (A) records for itself in our DNS server: buildserver.example.com = 192.168.1.30 buildserver.example.com = 192.168.1.31 I know in the "Advanced TCP/IP Settings" window for the build server's NIC, under the "DNS" tab, there is a check box labeled "Register this connection's addresses in DNS". I only want ONE of the IP addresses (ending in .30) to be registered in DNS not both of them. Can that be done? My best guess is to disable the "Register this connection's addresses in DNS" and manually add the Host (A) record to our DNS server. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • How to run multiple instances of Tor?

    - by Ed
    I'm trying to set up a special proxy server (running Windows). It will have several instances of Privoxy and Tor running and my app will choose which Privoxy instance to send HTTP requests to depending on the load. Privoxy will then forward them to Tor. I'm using srvany.exe to create the services. At the moment I'm running 3 Privoxy and 3 Tor services (I copied the binaries to different folders). Each Privoxy service is listening to its own port (8118, 8119, 8120). I can see them listening in a port scanner. This is the application path (for srvany in registry) for the 1st service: C:\Anonymiser\Privoxy 01\privoxy.exe --service I've also configured the Tor services to listen to different ports (9050, 9052, 9054). This is the application path for the 1st service: C:\Anonymiser\Tor 01\tor.exe -f "C:\Anonymiser\Tor 01\torrc" The problem is, when I start the Tor services, only the first service I start is listening to its port. The others aren't listening. They listen if I run them separately. Any ideas what could be wrong? How can I make all 3 services listen on their assigned ports? This is one of my Privoxy configs: confdir . logdir . logfile privoxy.log debug 1 # show each GET/POST/CONNECT request debug 4096 # Startup banner and warnings debug 8192 # Errors - we highly recommended enabling this listen-address localhost:8118 toggle 0 enable-remote-toggle 0 enable-remote-http-toggle 0 enable-edit-actions 1 buffer-limit 4096 forwarded-connect-retries 0 forward-socks4a / localhost:9050 . This is one of my Tor configs: ControlPort 9051 Log notice stdout SocksListenAddress localhost SocksPort 9050 EDIT: Found a workaround. The Tor binary wants a lock on a file in the AppData folder. Because all of them want a lock on the same file, only the first one I start will be working. The workaround is to run each Tor instance under a different account. Not the best solution, but it works.

    Read the article

  • Google Apps for Domains, Multiple Domains

    - by belliez
    I have a primary google apps for domains account which I use for my personal email, calender, docs etc and is great. I also receive my pop3 company email via settings-Get mail from other accounts in my account. Due to spam I want to make use of gmail servers for my company email and have two options: [1] Add my second domain as a domain alias [2] Create a new apps for domains account If I do [1] above do I access (send and receive) my company email as if it was a separate account or is it merged into my primary domain. I want the two seperated. If I perform [2] can I share my contacts / calender between the two? I also have Act! contact manager which syncs to my primary domain and it is getting messy now with personal and work contacts being changed / sync'd to my Act CM software. I want to try and separate my personal and work contacts (but make the work them avaiable in my primary domain). Hope this makes sense! Your suggestions are gratefully accepted. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Sendmail - Multiple Domains, One Box - Blocking One Or Two Domains

    - by TangoOversway
    I have a number of domains hosted at a web hosting service. They use sendmail to handle incoming email. I have six domains on this service (which we can call aaa.com, bbb.com and so on). Each email account has the same name and one email box. In other words, [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] and all the others go into one box, /var/spool/mail/tango, where my email program on my desktop picks it up. I have done very little work in sendmail. I haven't had to, and I've been warned it's a steep learning curve. But now I'm running into an issue. I was in a business situation where, for years, my email address was on the website for aaa.com. (We won't go into why this was necessary - it wasn't my preference and it's in the past.) Now I'm using [email protected] instead of [email protected]. I was getting about 1,000 or more pieces of spam a day, but SpamAssassin and my own email program caught about 75% of that. (Which still left stuff to delete.) Now, after checking, I see that 90% or more goes to [email protected], the one that was on the web for years. I'd like to deactivate [email protected] and possibly [email protected] and [email protected], but want to keep using [email protected]. Remember, email to tango at any of these domains will go into one email box. I've had people tell me that sendmail can be configured so I can deactivate [email protected] (and other domains) and still use [email protected] (and others, if I want to). In other words, I can configure sendmail to use this account on some domains and not others. One of the people who was teling me this was in tech support at the hosting service. But I wrote to tech support with a work order to do this and now I'm told it can't be done. I can modify config files myself on this account if needed, but I was hoping to just let them do it. (I love delegation -- it means I spend more time doing my stuff.) Is it possible to keep an email account active on one domain and not others with sendmail, when all domains are hosted on the same server? Is there a name for this process or setting? Any information would be helpful - either pointers to instructions so I can do it, or enough info so I can tell tech support, "This is where to look, and it can be done, so please pass my request on to someone who works with sendmail and knows how to do it." Is this something sendmail can do?

    Read the article

  • Updating onclick's string value with Greasemonkey

    - by Devin McCabe
    I'm trying to write a Greasemonkey script to update the onclick value of a bunch of links on a page. The HTML looks like this: <a onclick="OpenGenericPopup('url-99.asp','popup',500,500,false)" href="javascript:void(0)">text</a> I need to update the url-99.asp part of the Javascript into something like urlB-99.asp. In my script, I'm collecting all the links with an XPath expression and iterating through them: var allEl = document.evaluate( 'td[@class="my-class"]/a', document, null, XPathResult.UNORDERED_NODE_SNAPSHOT_TYPE, null); for (var i = 0; i < allEl.snapshotLength; i++) { var el = allEl.snapshotItem(i); //something here; } If I try to alert(el.onclick), I get an error in the console: Component is not available I've read up on unsafeWindow and other Greasemonkey features, and I understand how to set an event handler for that link with a new onClick event, but how do I read the current onclick value into a string so I can manipulate it and update the element?

    Read the article

  • Multiple authoritative DNS server on same IPv4 address

    - by Adrien Clerc
    I'd like to maintain a DNS tunnel on my self-hosted server at example.com. I also have a DNS server on it, which serves everything for example.com. I'm currently using dns2tcp for DNS tunneling, on the domain tunnel.example.com. NSD3 is used for serving authoritative zones, because it is both simple and secure. However, I have only one public IPv4 address, which means that NSD and dns2tcp can't listen on the same IP/port. So I'm currently using PowerDNS Recursor using the forward-zones parameter like this: forward-zones-recurse=tunnel.example.com=1.2.3.4:5354 forward-zones=example.com=1.2.3.4:5353 This enables request for authoritative zone to be asked to the correct server, as well as for tunnel requests. NSD is listening on port 5353 and dns2tcp on port 5354. However, this is bad, because the recursor needs to be open. And it actually answers to any recursive query. Do you have any solution for that? I really prefer a solution that doesn't involve setting up BIND, but if you are in the mood to convince me, don't hesitate to do so ;) EDIT: I change the title to be clearer.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176  | Next Page >