Search Results

Search found 21317 results on 853 pages for 'address bar'.

Page 180/853 | < Previous Page | 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187  | Next Page >

  • Python server open all ports

    - by user1670178
    I am trying to open all ports using this code, why can I not create a loop to perform this function? http://www.kellbot.com/2010/02/tutorial-writing-a-tcp-server-in-python/ #!/usr/bin/python # This is server.py file ##server.py from socket import * #import the socket library n=1025 while n<1050: ##let's set up some constants HOST = '' #we are the host PORT = n #arbitrary port not currently in use ADDR = (HOST,PORT) #we need a tuple for the address BUFSIZE = 4096 #reasonably sized buffer for data ## now we create a new socket object (serv) ## see the python docs for more information on the socket types/flags serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) ##bind our socket to the address serv.bind((ADDR)) #the double parens are to create a tuple with one element serv.listen(5) #5 is the maximum number of queued connections we'll allow serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) ##bind our socket to the address serv.bind((ADDR)) #the double parens are to create a tuple with one element serv.listen(5) #5 is the maximum number of queued connections we'll allow print 'listening...' n=n+1 conn,addr = serv.accept() #accept the connection print '...connected!' conn.send('TEST') conn.close() How do I make this work so that I can specify input range and have the server open all ports up to 65535? #!/usr/bin/python # This is server.py file from socket import * #import the socket library startingPort=input("\nPlease enter starting port: ") startingPort=int(startingPort) #print startingPort def connection(): ## let's set up some constants HOST = '' #we are the host PORT = startingPort #arbitrary port not currently in use ADDR = (HOST,PORT) #we need a tuple for the address BUFSIZE = 4096 #reasonably sized buffer for data def socketObject(): ## now we create a new socket object (serv) serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) def bind(): ## bind our socket to the address serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) serv.bind((ADDR)) #the double parens are to create a tuple with one element serv.listen(5) #5 is the maximum number of queued connections we'll allow serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) print 'listening...' def accept(): conn,addr = serv.accept() #accept the connection print '...connected!' conn.send('TEST') def close(): conn.close() ## Main while startingPort<65535: connection() socketObject() bind() accept() startingPort=startingPort+1

    Read the article

  • mysql - How select a akin records?

    - by zeroonea
    I have a table with name varchar address varchar country varchar city varchar ..... to store address of location example: name|address|country HaLong hotel|156 blahblah street|Vietnam Hotel Ha Long|156 blah blah|Vietnam Two rows above is duplicate data. I have a form, when user submit new location. The code need to find akin records to give a message (ex: This location already in db, use it or create new?) How to make a query to get akin record like this?

    Read the article

  • java packets byte

    - by user303289
    Guys, I am implementing a protocol in one of the wireless project. I am stucked at one point. In of the java file i am suppose to receive a packet and that packet is 12 byte packet and I have to write different functions for reading different parts of packets and convert it to diferent type. Like I want first four byte in one of the function and convert it to int, next two bytes in string. and again next two in string, last two hop in string and followed by last two int. I want follwing function to implement: // here is the interface /* FloodingData should use methods defined in this class. */ class FloodingPacket{ public static void main(String arg[]){ byte FloodingPack[]; // just for example to test in code FloodingPack=new byte[12]; interface IFloodingPacket { // Returns the unique sequence number for the packet int getSequenceNumber() ; // Returns the source address for the packet String getSourceAddress(); // Returns the destination address for the packet String getDestinationAddress(); // Returns the last hop address for the packet String getLastHopAddress(); // Sets the last hop address to the address of the node // which the packet was received from void updateLastHopAddress(); // Returns the entire packet in bytes (for sending) byte[] getBytes(); // Sets the bytes of the packet (for receiving) void setBytes(byte[] packet); }

    Read the article

  • Three customer addresses in one table or in separate tables?

    - by DR
    In my application I have a Customer class and an Address class. The Customer class has three instances of the Address class: customerAddress, deliveryAddress, invoiceAddress. Whats the best way to reflect this structure in a database? The straightforward way would be a customer table and a separate address table. A more denormalized way would be just a customer table with columns for every address (Example for "street": customer_street, delivery_street, invoice_street) What are your experiences with that? Are there any advantages and disadvantages of these approaches?

    Read the article

  • Is this data set in third normal form?

    - by user2980802
    UNF: (Customer-name, Customer-id, Customer-address, (Unit-price, Order-id, Quantity, Product-id, Delivery-date) (Supplier-name, Supplier-id, Supplier-Address) 3NF: CUSTOMER (Customer-id, Order-id, Customer-name, Customer-address) ORDER (Order-id, Customer-id) ORDER/PRODUCT (Order-id, Quantity, Product-id) PRODUCT (Order-id, Product-id, Delivery-date, Supplier-id, Unit-price,) SUPPLIER (Supplier-name, Supplier-id, Supplier-Address, Product-id) Basically, the UNF is the un-normalised form. The information should have EXACTLY five tables, it's a hint we were given. The tables listed are the definite table names. We were told to make assumptions based on this information: Customer Invoice is generated from customer orders (Order & Order/Product entities) Supplier Order is generated for products that are low in stock (Product entity) Assumptions A customer can place many orders but an order is placed by only one customer An order can be for many products and a product can be ordered many times A product is supplied by only one supplier, a supplier may supply many products This is one of my modules in university and my lecturer is all but useful, I'm really struggling so any help is really appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Applying jQuery attr value to new DOM elements (result of AJAX query)

    - by Daniel
    Hello everyone, I have a div on a page whose contents is replaced by an AJAX request when the user selects an option from a select list. When the page loads, I issue a command to disable the autocomplete feature for all of the pages text input elements: //Stop that pesky browser autocomplete $('input[type=text]').attr("autocomplete", "off"); However, when new elements appear in the div after an AJAX call, this line of code does not reference them because they were not part of the original DOM (when the page was loaded). I have tried appending the autocomplete line to the end of the post function: //AJAX Post request that changes the fields in the address div for each different country $("div#address select#country").live("change", function() { $.post("<?php print($_SERVER['PHP_SELF']); ?>", { country: $(this).val() }, function(data) { $('div#address').html(data); }, "text"); $('div#address input[type=text]').attr("autocomplete", "off"); }); But for some reason it does not work and the autocomplete pops up when text is entered into any of the address fields. As far as I am aware I cannot use .live() to select the input elements because changing an attribute is not classed as an event. So can anyone advise me how to modify the attributes of a newly created DOM element?

    Read the article

  • Transform a listbox to textbox.

    - by trikalos
    I want to transform a listbox to textbox when I'm clicking a checkbox. To explain, i have a listbox that contains addresses and if an address does't belong in the list someone can click to a checkbox called 'another address';so he can put another address.Thanx for your answer...

    Read the article

  • Name hiding from inherited classes

    - by Mercerbearman
    I have the following sample code and I wanted to know the correct way to get access to the Pass method in the CBar class. Currently I have found 3 ways to get access to this method and they are as follows: Casting the object, ((CBar *) &foo)-Pass(1, 2, 3); Using this syntax, foo.CBar::Pass(1,2,3); Use the "using" syntax in the CFoo class declaration, using CBar::Pass. The following is an example of a simple project to test this capability. Foo.h #include "bar.h" class CFoo : public CBar { private: double m_a; double m_b; public: CFoo(void); ~CFoo(void); void Pass(double a, double b); }; Foo.cpp #include "Foo.h" CFoo::CFoo(void) { m_a = 0.0; m_b = 0.0; } CFoo::~CFoo(void) { } void CFoo::Pass(double a, double b) { m_a = a; m_b = b; } Bar.h class CBar { int m_x; int m_y; int m_z; public: CBar(void); ~CBar(void); void Pass(int x, int y, int z); }; Bar.cpp #include "Bar.h" CBar::CBar(void) { m_x = 0; m_y = 0; m_z = 0; } CBar::~CBar(void) { } void CBar::Pass(int x, int y, int z) { m_x = x; m_y = y; m_z = z; } And my main class DoStuff.cpp #include "DoStuff.h" #include "Foo.h" CDoStuff::CDoStuff(void) { } CDoStuff::~CDoStuff(void) { } int main() { CFoo foo, foo1, foo2; //This only gets to the Pass method in Foo. foo.Pass(2.5, 3.5); //Gets access to Pass method in Bar. foo1.CBar::Pass(5,10,15); //Can also case and access by location for the same result?? ((CBar *) &foo2)->Pass(100,200,300); return 0; } Are each of these options viable? Are some preferred? Are there pitfalls with using any one of the methods listed? I am especially curious about the foo.CBar::Pass(1,2,3) syntax. Thanks, B

    Read the article

  • How can I write this in a shorter way?

    - by oaziz
    This code repeats itself. How can I make it shorter? Maybe by using anonymous function or something? foreach ($value as $wrong) { if (starts_with($wrong, '%') and ends_with($wrong, '%')) { $wrong = trim($wrong, '%'); if (contains($address, $wrong)) { $corrected_address = str_replace($wrong, $key, $address); break; } } else { $wrong = trim($wrong, '%'); if (ends_with($address, $wrong)) { $corrected_address = str_replace($wrong, $key, $address); break; } } } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Configuring Cisco 877W router from scratch for DHCP, WiFi, ADSL2+, NAT

    - by David M Williams
    Hi all, I apologise if this is a BIG question but I am quite lost with the Cisco IOS. I know what I want to achieve just not how to do it :( I have a Cisco 877W router with 4 FastEthernet interfaces, 1 ATM interface and 1 802.11 Radio. I want to set it up for a small network and am trying to construct a configuration below. I was using Google to try and flesh it out but I think I need help and guidance from actual experts! If it helps, output from show ver says Cisco IOS software, C870 software (C870-ADVSECURITYK9-M), version 12.4(4)T7, release software (fc1) ROM: System bootstrap, version 12.3(8r)YI4, release software Here's what I have so far, which hopefully outlines clearly enough what I am wanting to do. The bits in angle brackets are placeholders (eg the secret password). ! ! Set router hostname ! hostname Shazam ! ! Set usernames and passwords ! username david privilege 15 secret 0 <PASSWORD> enable secret <SECRETPASSWORD> ! ! Configure SSH and telnet access ! line vty 0 4 privilege level 15 login local transport input telnet ssh ! ! Local logging ! logging buffered 51200 warning ! ! Set date and time for NSW, Australia (GMT +10h) ! ! ! Set router IP address to 192.168.1.1 on FastEthernet0 port ! interface FastEthernet0 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 no shut ip nat inside ! ! Forward any unknown DNS requests to Google ! ip dns server ip name-server 8.8.8.8 ip name-server 8.8.4.4 ! ! Set up DHCP ! DHCP pool covers 192.168.1.100 - .199 ! Set gateway and DNS server to be the router, ie 192.168.1.1 ! service dhcp ip routing ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.1.1 192.168.1.99 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.1.200 192.168.1.255 ip dhcp pool <DHCPPOOLNAME> network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 default-router 192.168.1.1 dns-server 192.168.1.1 lease 7 ! ! DHCP reservations ! ! Assign IP address 192.168.1.105 to MAC address 00-21-5D-2F-58-04 ! ! Configure ADSL2 connection details ! interface atm dsl operating-mode adsl2+ ! ! Set up NAT rules ! ! Forward port 35394 to 192.168.1.105 ! ! Set up WiFi ! ! SSID visible, WPA2 security, Pre-shared key I'm hoping most of this is boiler-plate stuff to you guys. I'm keen to not just get a working script but to actually understand it also. Unfortunately, I'm finding the Cisco reference material online very complex. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Tunnel is up but cannot ping directly connected network

    - by drmanalo
    We configured a site-to-site VPN and here is the topology. I control the network on the left but not the one on the right. All devices in our network has public IPs. Server---ASA5505---Cisco887======Internet=====ASA5510---devices I can see the tunnel is up and can do extended ping using a loopback interface. From the 10.175 and 10.165 networks, they can also ping my loopback address. I can also dial in using a Cisco VPN client, and can connect to the devices on the right. #show crypto session Crypto session current status Interface: Vlan3 Profile: xxx-profile Session status: UP-ACTIVE Peer: 213.121.x.x port 500 IKEv1 SA: local 77.245.x.x/500 remote 213.121.x.x/500 Active IPSEC FLOW: permit ip 10.0.20.0/255.255.255.240 10.175.0.0/255.255.128.0 Active SAs: 0, origin: crypto map IPSEC FLOW: permit ip 10.0.20.0/255.255.255.240 10.165.0.0/255.255.192.0 Active SAs: 2, origin: crypto map #ping 10.165.29.39 source loopback 2 Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.165.29.39, timeout is 2 seconds: Packet sent with a source address of 10.0.20.1 !!!!! Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 16/17/20 ms My problem is the devices on the right cannot reach my server. They could only ping the loopback address and nothing else. I'm pasting some diagnostics related to routing thinking perhaps routing is my issue. I can paste all the running-config on my side of network if needed. #show ip int brief Interface IP-Address OK? Method Status Protocol ATM0 unassigned YES NVRAM administratively down down Ethernet0 unassigned YES NVRAM administratively down down FastEthernet0 unassigned YES unset up up connected to ASA FastEthernet1 unassigned YES unset administratively down down FastEthernet2 unassigned YES unset administratively down down FastEthernet3 unassigned YES unset up up Loopback1 10.0.20.65 YES NVRAM up up Loopback2 10.0.20.1 YES NVRAM up up Virtual-Template1 77.245.x.x YES unset up down Virtual-Template2 77.245.x.x YES unset up down Vlan1 unassigned YES unset down down Vlan3 77.245.x.x YES NVRAM up up connected to the Internet #show run | section ip route ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 77.245.x.x ip route 213.121.240.36 255.255.255.255 Vlan3 #show access-list Extended IP access list 102 10 permit ip 10.0.20.0 0.0.0.15 10.175.0.0 0.0.127.255 (3332 matches) 20 permit ip 10.0.20.0 0.0.0.15 10.165.0.0 0.0.63.255 (3498 matches) #show vlan-switch VLAN Name Status Ports ---- -------------------------------- --------- ------------------------------- 1 default active 3 VLAN0003 active Fa0, Fa1, Fa2, Fa3 1002 fddi-default act/unsup 1003 token-ring-default act/unsup 1004 fddinet-default act/unsup 1005 trnet-default act/unsup #show ip route Codes: L - local, C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route, H - NHRP, l - LISP + - replicated route, % - next hop override Gateway of last resort is 77.245.x.x to network 0.0.0.0 S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 77.245.x.x 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 3 masks C 10.0.20.0/28 is directly connected, Loopback2 L 10.0.20.1/32 is directly connected, Loopback2 C 10.0.20.64/28 is directly connected, Loopback1 L 10.0.20.65/32 is directly connected, Loopback1 S 10.165.0.0/18 [1/0] via 213.121.x.x 77.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 3 masks S 77.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 77.245.x.x C 77.245.x.x/29 is directly connected, Vlan3 L 77.245.x.x/32 is directly connected, Vlan3 213.121.x.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets S 213.121.x.x is directly connected, Vlan3 I read some of the posts here which lead to NATing issue but I'not sure of my next step. Should I translate my public address to private and route it to the loopback address? (only guessing) CISCO VPN site to site Site-to-Site VPN between two ASA 5505s only working in one direction Hope someone could help. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • eth0 and eth1 both assigned same IP on boot

    - by Banjer
    I have a physical SLES 11 SP2 server on a Sun Fire x4140 that is giving me problems with networking upon reboot. The NICs are onboard. The networking appears successful during boot, but network services such as nfs fail hard. This is because eth0 and eth1 are both receiving the same configuration and are both ifup-ed. Once everything times out and I'm at the console, ifconfig shows that eth0 and eth1 are UP and running with the same IP. Attempting to ping anything in that subnet fails. Restarting the network service fixes the issue. eth0 is the correct NIC that should be configured as primary, per the MAC address. Question: Whats causing eth1 to be brought up with the same config as eth0?? I do not have a config script set up for eth1: banjer@harp:~> ls -la /etc/sysconfig/network/ total 104 drwxr-xr-x 6 root root 4096 Jun 11 12:21 . drwxr-xr-x 6 root root 4096 Apr 10 09:46 .. -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 13916 Apr 10 09:32 config -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 9952 Apr 10 09:36 dhcp -rw------- 1 root root 180 Jun 11 12:21 ifcfg-eth0 -rw------- 1 root root 180 Jun 11 12:21 ifcfg-eth3 -rw------- 1 root root 172 Feb 1 08:32 ifcfg-lo -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 29333 Feb 1 08:32 ifcfg.template drwxr-xr-x 2 root root 4096 Apr 10 09:32 if-down.d -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 239 Feb 1 08:32 ifroute-lo drwxr-xr-x 2 root root 4096 Apr 10 09:33 if-up.d drwx------ 2 root root 4096 May 5 2010 providers -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 25 Nov 16 2010 routes drwxr-xr-x 2 root root 4096 Apr 10 09:36 scripts On a side note, eth3 is also configured with an IP in a different subnet, but this has not posed any problems. FYI the kernel module being used is forcedeth. banjer@harp:~> sudo cat /etc/sysconfig/network/ifcfg-eth0 BOOTPROTO='static' BROADCAST='' ETHTOOL_OPTIONS='' IPADDR='172.21.64.25/20' MTU='' NAME='MCP55 Ethernet' NETWORK='' REMOTE_IPADDR='' STARTMODE='auto' USERCONTROL='no' ONBOOT="yes" Here's eth3 in case you need to see it: banjer@harp:~> sudo cat /etc/sysconfig/network/ifcfg-eth3 BOOTPROTO='static' BROADCAST='' ETHTOOL_OPTIONS='' IPADDR='172.11.200.4/24' MTU='' NAME='MCP55 Ethernet' NETWORK='' REMOTE_IPADDR='' STARTMODE='auto' USERCONTROL='no' ONBOOT="yes" Perhaps is something related to udev? 70-persistent-net-rules looks OK to me, but I may not understand it completely. banjer@harp:~> cat /etc/udev/rules.d/70-persistent-net.rules # This file was automatically generated by the /lib/udev/write_net_rules # program, run by the persistent-net-generator.rules rules file. # # You can modify it, as long as you keep each rule on a single # line, and change only the value of the NAME= key. # PCI device 0x10de:0x0373 (forcedeth) SUBSYSTEM=="net", ACTION=="add", DRIVERS=="?*", ATTR{address}=="00:18:4f:8d:85:4c", ATTR{dev_id}=="0x0", ATTR{type}=="1", KERNEL=="eth*", NAME="eth2" # PCI device 0x10de:0x0373 (forcedeth) SUBSYSTEM=="net", ACTION=="add", DRIVERS=="?*", ATTR{address}=="00:18:4f:8d:85:4a", ATTR{dev_id}=="0x0", ATTR{type}=="1", KERNEL=="eth*", NAME="eth0" # PCI device 0x10de:0x0373 (forcedeth) SUBSYSTEM=="net", ACTION=="add", DRIVERS=="?*", ATTR{address}=="00:18:4f:8d:85:4b", ATTR{dev_id}=="0x0", ATTR{type}=="1", KERNEL=="eth*", NAME="eth1" # PCI device 0x10de:0x0373 (forcedeth) SUBSYSTEM=="net", ACTION=="add", DRIVERS=="?*", ATTR{address}=="00:18:4f:8d:85:4d", ATTR{dev_id}=="0x0", ATTR{type}=="1", KERNEL=="eth*", NAME="eth3" # PCI device 0x1077:0x3032 (qla3xxx) SUBSYSTEM=="net", ACTION=="add", DRIVERS=="?*", ATTR{address}=="00:c1:dd:0e:34:6c", ATTR{dev_id}=="0x0", ATTR{type}=="1", KERNEL=="eth*", NAME="eth4" Any other thoughts on what would cause this?

    Read the article

  • Cannot connect to MySQL Server on RHEL 5.7

    - by Jeffrey Wong
    I have a standard MySQL Server running on Red hat 5.7. I have edited /etc/my.cnf to specify the bind address as my server's public IP address. [mysqld] datadir=/var/lib/mysql socket=/var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock user=mysql # Default to using old password format for compatibility with mysql 3.x # clients (those using the mysqlclient10 compatibility package). old_passwords=1 # Disabling symbolic-links is recommended to prevent assorted security risks ; # to do so, uncomment this line: # symbolic-links=0 [mysqld_safe] log-error=/var/log/mysqld.log pid-file=/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.pid bind-address=171.67.88.25 port=3306 And I have also restarted my firewall sudo /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --destination-port 3306 -j ACCEPT /sbin/service iptables save The network administrator has already opened port 3306 for this box. When connecting from a remote computer (running Ubuntu 10.10, server is running RHEL 5.7), I issue mysql -u jeffrey -p --host=171.67.88.25 --port=3306 --socket=/var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock but receive a ERROR 2003 (HY000): Can't connect to MySQL server on '171.67.88.25' (113). I've noticed that the socket file /var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock is blank. Should this be the case? UPDATE The result of netstat -an | grep 3306 tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:3306 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN Result of sudo netstat -tulpen Active Internet connections (only servers) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State User Inode PID/Program name tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:2208 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 0 7602 3168/hpiod tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:3306 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 27 7827 3298/mysqld tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:111 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 0 5110 2802/portmap tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:8787 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 0 8431 3326/rserver tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:915 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 0 5312 2853/rpc.statd tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:22 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 0 7655 3188/sshd tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:631 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 0 7688 3199/cupsd tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:25 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 0 8025 3362/sendmail: acce tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:2207 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 0 7620 3173/python udp 0 0 0.0.0.0:909 0.0.0.0:* 0 5300 2853/rpc.statd udp 0 0 0.0.0.0:912 0.0.0.0:* 0 5309 2853/rpc.statd udp 0 0 0.0.0.0:68 0.0.0.0:* 0 4800 2598/dhclient udp 0 0 0.0.0.0:36177 0.0.0.0:* 70 8314 3476/avahi-daemon: udp 0 0 0.0.0.0:5353 0.0.0.0:* 70 8313 3476/avahi-daemon: udp 0 0 0.0.0.0:111 0.0.0.0:* 0 5109 2802/portmap udp 0 0 0.0.0.0:631 0.0.0.0:* 0 7691 3199/cupsd Result of sudo /sbin/iptables -L -v -n Chain INPUT (policy ACCEPT 0 packets, 0 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 6373 2110K RH-Firewall-1-INPUT all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 Chain FORWARD (policy ACCEPT 0 packets, 0 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 0 0 RH-Firewall-1-INPUT all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT 1241 packets, 932K bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination Chain RH-Firewall-1-INPUT (2 references) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 572 861K ACCEPT all -- lo * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 1 28 ACCEPT icmp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 icmp type 255 0 0 ACCEPT esp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 0 0 ACCEPT ah -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 46 6457 ACCEPT udp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 224.0.0.251 udp dpt:5353 0 0 ACCEPT udp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:631 0 0 ACCEPT tcp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:631 782 157K ACCEPT all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state RELATED,ESTABLISHED 2 120 ACCEPT tcp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state NEW tcp dpt:22 0 0 ACCEPT tcp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state NEW tcp dpt:443 0 0 ACCEPT tcp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state NEW tcp dpt:23 0 0 ACCEPT tcp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state NEW tcp dpt:80 4970 1086K REJECT all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 reject-with icmp-host-prohibited Result of nmap -P0 -p3306 171.67.88.25 Host is up (0.027s latency). PORT STATE SERVICE 3306/tcp filtered mysql Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 0.09 seconds Solution When everything else fails, go GUI! system-config-securitylevel and add port 3306. All done!

    Read the article

  • Apache sends plain-text response when accessing SSL-enabled site without HTTPS

    - by animuson
    I've never encountered something such as this before. I was attempting to simply redirect the page to the HTTPS version if it determined that HTTPS was off, but instead it's displaying an HTML page rather than actually redirecting; and even odder, it's displaying it as text/plain! The VirtualHost Declaration (Sort of): ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot "/path/to/files" ServerName example.com SSLEngine On SSLCertificateFile /etc/ssh/certify/example.com.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/ssh/certify/example.com.key SSLCertificateChainFile /etc/ssh/certify/sub.class1.server.ca.pem <Directory "/path/to/files/"> AllowOverride All Options +FollowSymLinks DirectoryIndex index.php Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteRule .* https://example.com:6161 [R=301] The Page Output: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//IETF//DTD HTML 2.0//EN"> <html><head> <title>301 Moved Permanently</title> </head><body> <h1>Moved Permanently</h1> <p>The document has moved <a href="https://example.com:6161">here</a>.</p> <hr> <address>Apache/2.2.21 (Unix) mod_ssl/2.2.21 OpenSSL/1.0.0e DAV/2 Server at example.com Port 443</address> </body></html> I've tried moving the Rewrite stuff up above the SSL stuff hoping it'd do something and nothing happens. If I view the page with via HTTPS, it displays fine like it should. It's obviously detecting that I'm trying to rewrite the path, but it's not acting. The Apache error log does not indicate anything to me that might have gone wrong. When I remove the RewriteRules: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//IETF//DTD HTML 2.0//EN"> <html><head> <title>400 Bad Request</title> </head><body> <h1>Bad Request</h1> <p>Your browser sent a request that this server could not understand.<br /> Reason: You're speaking plain HTTP to an SSL-enabled server port.<br /> Instead use the HTTPS scheme to access this URL, please.<br /> <blockquote>Hint: <a href="https://example.com/"><b>https://example.com/</b></a></blockquote></p> <p>Additionally, a 404 Not Found error was encountered while trying to use an ErrorDocument to handle the request.</p> <hr> <address>Apache/2.2.21 (Unix) mod_ssl/2.2.21 OpenSSL/1.0.0e DAV/2 Server at example.com Port 443</address> </body></html> I get the standard "you can't do this because you're not using SSL" response, which is also provided in text/plain rather than being rendered as HTML. This would make sense, it should only work for HTTPS-enabled connections, but I still want to redirect them to the HTTPS connection when it determines that it is not enabled. Thinking I could circumvent the system: I tried adding a ErrorDocument 400 https://example.com:6161 to the config file instead of using RewriteRules, and that just gave me a new message, still no cheese. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//IETF//DTD HTML 2.0//EN"> <html><head> <title>302 Found</title> </head><body> <h1>Found</h1> <p>The document has moved <a href="https://example.com:6161">here</a>.</p> <hr> <address>Apache/2.2.21 (Unix) mod_ssl/2.2.21 OpenSSL/1.0.0e DAV/2 Server at example.com Port 443</address> </body></html> How can I force Apache to actually redirect rather than displaying a "301" page that shows HTML in plain-text format?

    Read the article

  • JBoss https on port other than 8080 not working

    - by MilindaD
    We have a server with two JBoss instances where one runs on 8080, the other on 8081. We need to have HTTPS enabled for the 8081 server, firstly we tried enabling https on the 8080 port instance by generating the keystore and editing the server.xml and it successfully worked. However when we tried the same thing for 8081 it did not, note that we removed https for the 8080 server first before enabling it for 8081. This is what was used for both server.xml for 8080 and 8081. The only difference was that the port was changed from 8080 to 8081 when trying to enable https for 8081 port instance. What am I doing wrong and what needs to be changed? NOTE : When I meant enabled for 8080 I meant when you visit https:// URL:8484 you will actually be visiting the 8080 port instance. However when ssl is enabled for 8081 and I visit https:// URL:8484 I get that the web page is unavailable. COMMENTLESS VERSION <Server> <Listener className="org.apache.catalina.core.AprLifecycleListener" SSLEngine="on" /> <Listener className="org.apache.catalina.core.JasperListener" /> <Service name="jboss.web"> <!-- https --> <Connector port="8080" address="${jboss.bind.address}" maxThreads="350" maxHttpHeaderSize="8192" emptySessionPath="true" protocol="HTTP/1.1" enableLookups="false" redirectPort="8443" acceptCount="100" connectionTimeout="20000" disableUploadTimeout="true" compression="on" ompressableMimeType="text/html,text/css,text/javascript,application/json,text/xml,text/plain,application/x-javascript,application/javascript"/> <Connector port="8443" protocol="HTTP/1.1" SSLEnabled="true" maxThreads="150" scheme="https" secure="true" clientAuth="false" sslProtocol="TLS" address="${jboss.bind.address}" keystoreFile="${jboss.server.home.dir}/conf/supun1.keystore" keystorePass="aaaaaa" truststoreFile="${jboss.server.home.dir}/conf/supun1.keystore" truststorePass="aaaaaa" /> <!-- https1 --> <Connector port="8009" address="${jboss.bind.address}" protocol="AJP/1.3" emptySessionPath="true" enableLookups="false" redirectPort="8443" /> <Engine name="jboss.web" defaultHost="localhost" jvmRoute="khms1"> <Realm className="org.jboss.web.tomcat.security.JBossSecurityMgrRealm" certificatePrincipal="org.jboss.security.auth.certs.SubjectDNMapping" allRolesMode="authOnly" /> <Host name="localhost" autoDeploy="false" deployOnStartup="false" deployXML="false" configClass="org.jboss.web.tomcat.security.config.JBossContextConfig" > <Valve className="org.jboss.web.tomcat.service.sso.ClusteredSingleSignOn" /> <Valve className="org.jboss.web.tomcat.service.jca.CachedConnectionValve" cachedConnectionManagerObjectName="jboss.jca:service=CachedConnectionManager" transactionManagerObjectName="jboss:service=TransactionManager" /> </Host> </Engine> </Service> </Server> WITH COMMENTS VERSION <Server> <!--APR library loader. Documentation at /docs/apr.html --> <Listener className="org.apache.catalina.core.AprLifecycleListener" SSLEngine="on" /> <!--Initialize Jasper prior to webapps are loaded. Documentation at /docs/jasper-howto.html --> <Listener className="org.apache.catalina.core.JasperListener" /> <!-- Use a custom version of StandardService that allows the connectors to be started independent of the normal lifecycle start to allow web apps to be deployed before starting the connectors. --> <Service name="jboss.web"> <!-- A "Connector" represents an endpoint by which requests are received and responses are returned. Documentation at : Java HTTP Connector: /docs/config/http.html (blocking & non-blocking) Java AJP Connector: /docs/config/ajp.html APR (HTTP/AJP) Connector: /docs/apr.html Define a non-SSL HTTP/1.1 Connector on port 8080 --> <Connector port="8080" address="${jboss.bind.address}" maxThreads="350" maxHttpHeaderSize="8192" emptySessionPath="true" protocol="HTTP/1.1" enableLookups="false" redirectPort="8443" acceptCount="100" connectionTimeout="20000" disableUploadTimeout="true" compression="on" ompressableMimeType="text/html,text/css,text/javascript,application/json,text/xml,text/plain,application/x-javascript,application/javascript"/> <!-- Define a SSL HTTP/1.1 Connector on port 8443 This connector uses the JSSE configuration, when using APR, the connector should be using the OpenSSL style configuration described in the APR documentation --> <!-- <Connector port="8443" protocol="HTTP/1.1" SSLEnabled="true" maxThreads="150" scheme="https" secure="true" keystoreFile="${jboss.server.home.dir}/conf/zara.keystore" keystorePass="zara2010" clientAuth="false" sslProtocol="TLS" compression="on" /> --> <Connector port="8443" protocol="HTTP/1.1" SSLEnabled="true" maxThreads="150" scheme="https" secure="true" clientAuth="false" sslProtocol="TLS" address="${jboss.bind.address}" keystoreFile="${jboss.server.home.dir}/conf/supun1.keystore" keystorePass="aaaaaa" truststoreFile="${jboss.server.home.dir}/conf/supun1.keystore" truststorePass="aaaaaa" /> <!-- Define an AJP 1.3 Connector on port 8009 --> <Connector port="8009" address="${jboss.bind.address}" protocol="AJP/1.3" emptySessionPath="true" enableLookups="false" redirectPort="8443" /> <Engine name="jboss.web" defaultHost="localhost" jvmRoute="khms1"> <!-- The JAAS based authentication and authorization realm implementation that is compatible with the jboss 3.2.x realm implementation. - certificatePrincipal : the class name of the org.jboss.security.auth.certs.CertificatePrincipal impl used for mapping X509[] cert chains to a Princpal. - allRolesMode : how to handle an auth-constraint with a role-name=*, one of strict, authOnly, strictAuthOnly + strict = Use the strict servlet spec interpretation which requires that the user have one of the web-app/security-role/role-name + authOnly = Allow any authenticated user + strictAuthOnly = Allow any authenticated user only if there are no web-app/security-roles --> <Realm className="org.jboss.web.tomcat.security.JBossSecurityMgrRealm" certificatePrincipal="org.jboss.security.auth.certs.SubjectDNMapping" allRolesMode="authOnly" /> <!-- A subclass of JBossSecurityMgrRealm that uses the authentication behavior of JBossSecurityMgrRealm, but overrides the authorization checks to use JACC permissions with the current java.security.Policy to determine authorized access. - allRolesMode : how to handle an auth-constraint with a role-name=*, one of strict, authOnly, strictAuthOnly + strict = Use the strict servlet spec interpretation which requires that the user have one of the web-app/security-role/role-name + authOnly = Allow any authenticated user + strictAuthOnly = Allow any authenticated user only if there are no web-app/security-roles <Realm className="org.jboss.web.tomcat.security.JaccAuthorizationRealm" certificatePrincipal="org.jboss.security.auth.certs.SubjectDNMapping" allRolesMode="authOnly" /> --> <Host name="localhost" autoDeploy="false" deployOnStartup="false" deployXML="false" configClass="org.jboss.web.tomcat.security.config.JBossContextConfig" > <!-- Uncomment to enable request dumper. This Valve "logs interesting contents from the specified Request (before processing) and the corresponding Response (after processing). It is especially useful in debugging problems related to headers and cookies." --> <!-- <Valve className="org.apache.catalina.valves.RequestDumperValve" /> --> <!-- Access logger --> <!-- <Valve className="org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve" prefix="localhost_access_log." suffix=".log" pattern="common" directory="${jboss.server.log.dir}" resolveHosts="false" /> --> <!-- Uncomment to enable single sign-on across web apps deployed to this host. Does not provide SSO across a cluster. If this valve is used, do not use the JBoss ClusteredSingleSignOn valve shown below. A new configuration attribute is available beginning with release 4.0.4: cookieDomain configures the domain to which the SSO cookie will be scoped (i.e. the set of hosts to which the cookie will be presented). By default the cookie is scoped to "/", meaning the host that presented it. Set cookieDomain to a wider domain (e.g. "xyz.com") to allow an SSO to span more than one hostname. --> <!-- <Valve className="org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn" /> --> <!-- Uncomment to enable single sign-on across web apps deployed to this host AND to all other hosts in the cluster. If this valve is used, do not use the standard Tomcat SingleSignOn valve shown above. Valve uses a JBossCache instance to support SSO credential caching and replication across the cluster. The JBossCache instance must be configured separately. By default, the valve shares a JBossCache with the service that supports HttpSession replication. See the "jboss-web-cluster-service.xml" file in the server/all/deploy directory for cache configuration details. Besides the attributes supported by the standard Tomcat SingleSignOn valve (see the Tomcat docs), this version also supports the following attributes: cookieDomain see above treeCacheName JMX ObjectName of the JBossCache MBean used to support credential caching and replication across the cluster. If not set, the default value is "jboss.cache:service=TomcatClusteringCache", the standard ObjectName of the JBossCache MBean used to support session replication. --> <Valve className="org.jboss.web.tomcat.service.sso.ClusteredSingleSignOn" /> <!-- Check for unclosed connections and transaction terminated checks in servlets/jsps. Important: The dependency on the CachedConnectionManager in META-INF/jboss-service.xml must be uncommented, too --> <Valve className="org.jboss.web.tomcat.service.jca.CachedConnectionValve" cachedConnectionManagerObjectName="jboss.jca:service=CachedConnectionManager" transactionManagerObjectName="jboss:service=TransactionManager" /> </Host> </Engine> </Service> </Server>

    Read the article

  • SEO: many stackoverflow users' pages have got no Google PR and they are not indexed, why?

    - by Marco Demaio
    If you go to my user page on Stack Overflow and you check it with the Gogle bar you can see has got no PR at all (this does happen for almost any user page, even people with much higher reputation, the only exceptions seem to be the users in page 1, and some other users they have PR). My user page's Page Rank is not only zero, but not calculated at all. When PR is 0 or less than 1, but calculated the Google bar shows white, but when the PR is not even calculated like in my user page the Google bar shows in grey. I further more discovered that my user page is NOT EVEN INDEXED on Google, simple test is searching on Google for the exact page url: "http://stackoverflow.com/users/260080/marco-demaio" and you will see no result. The question is how can this be??? This is really weird to me because of the following reason: If you search on Google for "Marco Demaio" on stackoverflow site only (you can do this by searching "site:stackoverflow.com Marco Demaio") the search result shows hundreds of 'asking/answering questions' pages where I was 'tagged'!!! Let's check one of these: the 1st one that appears now (shows one of the question I asked). We can be sure this page is indexed in Google because comes out in a search moreover its PR is calculated, it's probably nearly zero, but still some PR flows there, the PR bar is not grey, but white: The page shown above has got links to my own user page. I checked the source code of the page shown above and the links are not hidden or set with a rel="nofollow", moreover I can't see any meta character excluding the links on the page from being followed. So what's happening? Why Google does not see my user page at all. Did stackoverflow do something to achieve this? If yes what did they do? Any explantion really appreciates (as always). P.S. obviously I checked also the code of my user page, but I could not find meta tags excluding Google search for the page. P.S. 2 in a desperate adventure I also checked StackOverflow robots but it does not seem to exclude user pages. UPDATE 1 following up on some answers, I did some more research. Excluding for a while the PR problem (since PR is not science), and looking only at the user page on StackOverflow NOT BEING INDEXED problem: pages do not seem to be indexed by Google because of the user reputation, this user for instance has got NOW 200 points less reputation than me and his page is indexed (while mine not). It does not seem even to be connected with months you have been on Stackoverflow, this user (almost my same reputation) has been there for 3 months only and his page is indexed (while mine not and I have been a user for 7 months). It's bizzarre! UPDATE February/2011 As of today the page got indexed by Google at least when you search for "site:stackoverflow.com Marco Demaio" it's the 1st page. The amazing thing is that it has still got NO PageRank at all: Google toolbar states loud and clear "No PageRank information available". It's odd!

    Read the article

  • Site Review: Facebook.com and Blockbuster.com - Navigation Schemes

    After cycling through a list of my favorite sites I decided to select Facebook.com and Blockbuster.com for this  post because I found their navigation schemes very intuitive. Facebook in my opinion took a very simplistic and minimalistic approach when they designed their site and its navigation. For example, when you login to your account you will find on the upper left hand side a generic section of the site common areas to all users like news, messages, events, photos and friends. Below this in a separate navigation menu is a list of applications that a user has elected to access through bookmarks. Finally in the upper right hand corner of the site contains links to administer the user’s account like account settings, public profile, and a link back to the users’ home page. Blockbuster on the other had tried to make site navigation a little more slick by using a menu-submenu approach to navigation where user can click on things like Rent, Buy, On Demand, Games, Stores, and Gifts and a submenu of corresponding items appears below the original menu item. In addition they also took this approach and added categorized lists of movies that they offer on the homepage so that users can click on an item like “DVD Spotlight” and a list of movies represented as actual DVD box cases appear on the user’s screen so they can scroll through the list by using left and right arrows on either side of the images displayed. Both Facebook and Blockbuster have more than one navigation groupings because their respected sites are so large and offer an absorbent amount of features. Because of this reason they have to group the main functionality of information in to logical groups based on their actions they perform and the access to specific information. For example it would not make sense for Facebook to include a particular game you like to play within your account with a section pertaining to account administration. The game link would be completely out of place and really confuse the users experience because the groupings where not logically grouped. In addition I think that Facebook users would benefit if Facebook allowed its users to specify what they want on the general navigation from within their site or at least create a section to show frequently accessed pages or favorite sections. Finally regarding additional navigation, I think blockbuster users really benefit from the submenu system of categorizing data, and if fact Blockbuster even allows them to refine the information they are looking for through the use of secondary submenu systems allowing users to really drill down in to what they are looking for to learn more on. I do not think that having more than one navigation bar on a web page is not confusing for the user. For example if you have a navigation bar at the top of your page and at the bottom will allow users to move around the website easier because they can utilize the navigation closest to where their cursor is on the page. In regards to designers forcing all the navigation in to one navigation bar, I think it would be hard for the user to fully understand what is going on based on the size and complexity of the site they are dealing with. For example Blockbuster has a ton of content that could not easily be put in to one navigation bar. From my experience with both Facebook and Blockbuster, they both do a good job with cross browser compatibility. I have had no issues with either site in IE, Firefox, Chrome, and Safari over the years. In addition, I do not believe that either Facebook or Blockbuster require any additional plug-in to utilize their navigation bars.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight ProgressBar issues with Binding

    - by Chris Skardon
    The ProgressBar pretty much does what it says on the tin, displays progress, in a bar form (well, by default anyhow). It’s pretty simple to use: <ProgressBar Minimum="0" Maximum="100" Value="50"/> Gives you a progress bar with 50% of it filled: Easy! But of course, we’re wanting to use binding to change the value, again, pretty easy, have a ViewModel with a ‘Value’ in it, and bind: <ProgressBar Minimum="0" Maximum="100" Value="{Binding Value}"/> Spiffy, and whilst we’re at it, why not bind the Maximum value as well – after all, we can’t be sure of the size of the progress, and it’s a pain to have to work out the percentage (when the progress bar can do it for us): <ProgressBar Minimum="0" Maximum="MaximumValue" Value="{Binding Value}"/> Right, this will work absolutely fine. Or will it??? On the face of it, it looks good, and testing it shows no issues, until at one point we go from: Maximum = 100; Value = 90; to Maximum=60; Value=50; On the face of it not unreasonable. The problem is more obvious if we look at the states of the properties after each set (initially Maximum is set at 1, Value = 0): Code Maximum Value Value < Maximum Maximum = 100; 100 0 True Value = 90; 100 90 True Maximum = 60; 60 90 False Value = 50; 60 50 True Everything is good until the Value is less than the Maximum, at this point the Progress Bar breaks. That’s right, it no longer updates itself, it will always look 100% full. The simple solution – always ensuring you set Value before Maximum is fine unless you’re using a ProgressBar in a less controlled environment – where for example you’re setting a ‘container’ with both values at the same time. The example I have is in a DataTemplate, I have a DataTemplate for a BusyIndicator, (specifically the BusyContentTemplate). The binding works this way: <BusyIndicator BusyContent="{Binding BusyContent}" BusyContentTemplate="{Binding ProgressTemplate}"/> With the template as the ProgressBar defined above… I was setting my BusyContent like this: BusyContent = content; aaaaaand finally, ‘content’ is a class: public class ContentClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //Obviously this is properly implemented… public double Maximum { get;set;} public double Value { get;set;} } Soooo… As I was replacing the BusyContent wholesale, the order of the binding being set was outside of my control, so – how to go about it? Basically? Fudge it. Modify the ContentClass to include a method: public void Update(double value, double max) { Value = value; Maximum = max; } and change where the setting is to be: BusyContent.Update(content.Value, content.Maximum); Thereby getting the order correct.. Obvious really. Meh :|

    Read the article

  • RewriteRule not working for certain URLs

    - by keiki
    There are a few domains pointing towards the same server, and of course I need them all redirect to only one of them. Redirects work, but only for certain URLs. What works: http://www.domain.com, http://domain.com, domain.com/index.html, domain.com/index.php, , domain.com/nonExistentDirectory, and if I click in the menu the following URLs are also redirected correctly: domain.com/foo/bar, domain.com/foo/bar.html or .php or other extension. What doesn't work: domain.com/existentDirectory, domain.com/foo/bar (if I type the URL in the address bar). If anyone will have the time and skill and will to tell me where's the mistake, I'll be deeply grateful. Here's my .htaccess file: AddHandler x-httpd-php .html .htm <ifModule mod_gzip.c> mod_gzip_on Yes mod_gzip_dechunk Yes mod_gzip_item_include file \.(html?|txt|css|js|php|pl)$ mod_gzip_item_include handler ^cgi-script$ mod_gzip_item_include mime ^text/.* mod_gzip_item_include mime ^application/x-javascript.* mod_gzip_item_exclude mime ^image/.* mod_gzip_item_exclude rspheader ^Content-Encoding:.*gzip.* </ifModule> <ifModule mod_expires.c> ExpiresActive On ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 seconds" ExpiresByType text/html "access plus 1 seconds" ExpiresByType image/gif "access plus 2592000 seconds" ExpiresByType image/jpeg "access plus 2592000 seconds" ExpiresByType image/png "access plus 2592000 seconds" ExpiresByType text/css "access plus 2592000 seconds" ExpiresByType text/javascript "access plus 216000 seconds" ExpiresByType application/x-javascript "access plus 216000 seconds" </ifModule> <ifModule mod_headers.c> <filesMatch "\\.(ico|pdf|flv|jpg|jpeg|png|gif|swf)$"> Header set Cache-Control "max-age=2592000, public" </filesMatch> <filesMatch "\\.(css)$"> Header set Cache-Control "max-age=2592000, public" </filesMatch> <filesMatch "\\.(js)$"> Header set Cache-Control "max-age=216000, private" </filesMatch> <filesMatch "\\.(xml|txt)$"> Header set Cache-Control "max-age=216000, public, must-revalidate" </filesMatch> <filesMatch "\\.(html|htm|php)$"> Header set Cache-Control "max-age=1, private, must-revalidate" </filesMatch> </ifModule> <ifModule mod_headers.c> Header unset ETag </ifModule> FileETag None <ifModule mod_headers.c> Header unset Last-Modified </ifModule> # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^foo\.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.foo\.com$ RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.com/$1 [R=301,L,QSA] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^foo1\.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.foo1\.com$ RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.com/$1 [R=301,L,QSA] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^foo2\.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.foo2\.com$ RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.com/$1 [R=301,L,QSA] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^foo3\.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.foo3\.com$ RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.com/$1 [R=301,L,QSA] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^foo8\.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.foo8\.com$ RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.com/$1 [R=301,L,QSA] Thinking that the above version was overkill, I've also tried to redirect all the requests for domains different than the main on to be redirected to it like this: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://domain.com [L,R=301] Is it also wrong? Because it doesn't work either! P.S. @Sodved I've tried that and it doesn't help (I comment here because I can't seem to be able to comment your answer.) Removing the following piece of code didn't solve the issue either, so the problem must be somewhere else: # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress New details: using this tool for checking the redirects I got the following results for the URLs that are not redirected: Checked link: http://domain.com/aDirectory/ Type of link: direct link (note the trailing slash above) and: Checked link: http://domain.com/aDirectory Type of redirect: 301 Moved Permanently Redirected to: http://domain.com/aDirectory/ (no trailing slash here) I hope/suspect I'm getting closer to the cause of this behavior.

    Read the article

  • Update iPhone UIProgressView during NSURLConnection download.

    - by Scott Pendleton
    I am using this code: NSURLConnection *oConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:oRequest delegate:self]; to download a file, and I want to update a progress bar on a subview that I load. For that, I use this code: - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { [oReceivedData appendData:data]; float n = oReceivedData.length; float d = self.iTotalSize; NSNumber *oNum = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:n/d]; self.oDPVC.oProgress.progress = [oNum floatValue]; } The subview is oDPVC, and the progress bar on it is oProgress. Setting the progress property does not update the control. From what I have read on the Web, lots of people want to do this and yet there is not a complete, reliable sample. Also, there is much contradictory advice. Some people think that you don't need a separate thread. Some say you need a background thread for the progress update. Some say no, do other things in the background and update the progress on the main thread. I've tried all the advice, and none of it works for me. One more thing, maybe this is a clue. I use this code to load the subview during applicationDidFinishLaunching: self.oDPVC = [[DownloadProgressViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DownloadProgressViewController" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview:self.oDPVC.view]; In the XIB file (which I have examined in both Interface Builder and in a text editor) the progress bar is 280 pixels wide. But when the view opens, it has somehow been adjusted to maybe half that width. Also, the background image of the view is default.png. Instead of appearing right on top of the default image, it is shoved up about 10 pixels, leaving a white bar across the bottom of the screen. Maybe that's a separate issue, maybe not.

    Read the article

  • Add a sub-view to a DetailView UIView in iPad

    - by Elisabeth
    I'm creating a split view controller app, the detail view has a segmented control in a navigation bar at the top. Clicking on a segment will add a new view to the detail view with the appropriate information on it (covering up the DetailViewController's default UIView). I've created two new UIViews, corresponding to each segment, and I'm trying to add them to the view like this (in DetailViewController.m): if (exerciseSegmentControl.selectedSegmentIndex == UISegmentedControlNoSegment) { NSLog(@"No segment selected"); } UIView *viewToShow; if (selectedView == 0 && exerciseSegmentControl.selectedSegmentIndex == 1) { viewToShow = exerciseSolutionView; } else { viewToShow = exerciseView; } [self.view addSubview:viewToShow]; I see the view appear, but it's in the wrong place, it is placed at the very top of the window, instead of below the navigation bar. In IB, I've created instances of the views, and I've used the Attributes inspector to specify "Navigation Bar" for top bar, which sets the height of the view correctly. But the view is clearly being added too far up in the window - I see the view below it (the DetailViewController's UIView) peaking out at the bottom (I changed the background color so I know which view I'm seeing). Any tips on how to get the subview I'm adding to get placed correctly in the window? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Any Other Ideas for prototyping..

    - by davehamptonusa
    I've used Douglass Crockford's Object.beget, but augmented it slightly to: Object.spawn = function (o, spec) { var F = function () {}, that = {}, node = {}; F.prototype = o; that = new F(); for (node in spec) { if (spec.hasOwnProperty(node)) { that[node] = spec[node]; } } return that; }; This way you can "beget" and augment in one fell swoop. var fop = Object.spawn(bar, { a: 'fast', b: 'prototyping' }); In English that means, "Make me a new object called 'fop' with 'bar' as its prototype, but change or add the members 'a' and 'b'. You can even nest it the spec to prototype deeper elements, should you choose. var fop = Object.spawn(bar, { a: 'fast', b: Object.spawn(quux,{ farple: 'deep' }), c: 'prototyping' }); This can help avoid hopping into an object's prototype unintentionally in a long object name like: foo.bar.quux.peanut = 'farple'; If quux is part of the prototype and not foo's own object, your change to 'peanut' will actually change the protoype, affecting all objects prototyped by foo's prototype object. But I digress... My question is this. Because your spec can itself be another object and that object could itself have properties from it's prototype in your new object - and you may want those properties...(at least you should be aware of them before you decided to use it as a spec)... I want to be able to grab all of the elements from all of the spec's prototype chain, except for the prototype object itself... This would flatten them into the new object. Should I use: Object.spawn = function (o, spec) { var F = function () {}, that = {}, node = {}; F.prototype = o; that = new F(); for (node in spec) { that[node] = spec[node]; } that.prototype = o; return that; }; I would love thoughts and suggestions...

    Read the article

  • Mvc2 validation summary and required metadata

    - by Arnis L.
    source code... Thing is, if i specify required metadata using fluent modelmetadata provider like this= public class Foo { public string Bar { get; set; } } public class FooModelMetadataConfiguration : ModelMetadataConfiguration<Foo> { public FooModelMetadataConfiguration() { Configure(x => x.Bar) .Required("lapsa") ; } } And write this into my view = <% Html.BeginForm(); %> <%= Html.ValidationSummary() %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(x=>x.Bar) %> <% Html.EndForm(); %> And add this to home controller = [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(Foo foo) { ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; return View(foo); } It will output this html = <div class="validation-summary-errors"> <ul> <li>lapsa</li> <li>The Bar field is required.</li> </ul> </div> I can't understand why 2nd error is rendered and how to omit it. Author of System.Web.Mvc.Extensibility framework replied with = I think this is a known issue of asp.net mvc, i could not remember the exact location where I have read it, I suggest you post the issue in asp.net mvc issue tracker over codeplex. But before i post anything on issue tracker - i would like to understand first what exactly is wrong. Any help with that?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187  | Next Page >