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  • Varnish, hide port number

    - by George Reith
    My set up is as follows: OS: CentOS 6.2 running on an OpenVZ virtual machine. Web server: Nginx listening on port 8080 Reverse proxy: Varnish listening on port 80 The problem is that Varnish redirects my requests to port 8080 and this appears in the address bar like so http://mysite.com:8080/directory/, causing relative links on the site to include the port number (8080) in the request and thus bypassing Varnish. The site is powered by WordPress. How do I allow Varnish to use Nginx as the backend on port 8080 without appending the port number to the address? Edit: Varnish is set up like so: I have told the Varnish daemon to listen to port 80 by default. VARNISH_VCL_CONF=/etc/varnish/default.vcl # # # Default address and port to bind to # # Blank address means all IPv4 and IPv6 interfaces, otherwise specify # # a host name, an IPv4 dotted quad, or an IPv6 address in brackets. # VARNISH_LISTEN_ADDRESS= VARNISH_LISTEN_PORT=80 # # # Telnet admin interface listen address and port VARNISH_ADMIN_LISTEN_ADDRESS=127.0.0.1 VARNISH_ADMIN_LISTEN_PORT=6082 # # # Shared secret file for admin interface VARNISH_SECRET_FILE=/etc/varnish/secret # # # The minimum number of worker threads to start VARNISH_MIN_THREADS=1 # # # The Maximum number of worker threads to start VARNISH_MAX_THREADS=1000 # # # Idle timeout for worker threads VARNISH_THREAD_TIMEOUT=120 # # # Cache file location VARNISH_STORAGE_FILE=/var/lib/varnish/varnish_storage.bin # # # Cache file size: in bytes, optionally using k / M / G / T suffix, # # or in percentage of available disk space using the % suffix. VARNISH_STORAGE_SIZE=1G # # # Backend storage specification VARNISH_STORAGE="file,${VARNISH_STORAGE_FILE},${VARNISH_STORAGE_SIZE}" # # # Default TTL used when the backend does not specify one VARNISH_TTL=120 The VCL file that Varnish calls (through an include in default.vcl) consists of: backend playwithbits { .host = "127.0.0.1"; .port = "8080"; } acl purge { "127.0.0.1"; } sub vcl_recv { if (req.http.Host ~ "^(.*\.)?playwithbits\.com$") { set req.backend = playwithbits; set req.http.Host = regsub(req.http.Host, ":[0-9]+", ""); if (req.request == "PURGE") { if (!client.ip ~ purge) { error 405 "Not allowed."; } return(lookup); } if (req.url ~ "^/$") { unset req.http.cookie; } } } sub vcl_hit { if (req.http.Host ~ "^(.*\.)?playwithbits\.com$") { if (req.request == "PURGE") { set obj.ttl = 0s; error 200 "Purged."; } } } sub vcl_miss { if (req.http.Host ~ "^(.*\.)?playwithbits\.com$") { if (req.request == "PURGE") { error 404 "Not in cache."; } if (!(req.url ~ "wp-(login|admin)")) { unset req.http.cookie; } if (req.url ~ "^/[^?]+.(jpeg|jpg|png|gif|ico|js|css|txt|gz|zip|lzma|bz2|tgz|tbz|html|htm)(\?.|)$") { unset req.http.cookie; set req.url = regsub(req.url, "\?.$", ""); } if (req.url ~ "^/$") { unset req.http.cookie; } } } sub vcl_fetch { if (req.http.Host ~ "^(.*\.)?playwithbits\.com$") { if (req.url ~ "^/$") { unset beresp.http.set-cookie; } if (!(req.url ~ "wp-(login|admin)")) { unset beresp.http.set-cookie; } } }

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  • What's the correct way to use Cakephp urls?

    - by Pichan
    Hello all, it's my first post here :) I'm having some difficulties with dealing with urls and parameters. I've gone through the router class api documentation over and over again and found nothing useful. First of all, I'd like to know if there is any 'universal' format in CakePHP(1.3) for handling urls. I'm currently handling all my urls as simple arrays(in the format that Router::url and $html-link accepts) and it's easy as long as I only need to pass them as arguments to cake's own methods. It usually gets tricky if I need something else. Mainly I'm having problems with converting string urls to the basic array format. Let's say I want to convert $arrayUrl to string and than again into url: $arrayUrl=array('controller'=>'SomeController','action'=>'someAction','someValue'); $url=Router::url($arrayUrl); //$url is now '/path/to/site/someController/someAction/someValue' $url=Router::normalize($url); //remove '/path/to/site' $parsed=Router::parse($url); /*$parsed is now Array( [controller] => someController [action] => someAction [named] => Array() [pass] => Array([0] => someValue) [plugin] => ) */ That seems an awful lot of code to do something as simple as to convert between 2 core formats. Also, note that $parsed is still not in the same as $arrayUrl. Of course I could tweak $parsed manually and actually I've done that a few times as a quick patch but I'd like to get to the bottom of this. I also noticed that when using prefix routing, $this-params in controller has the prefix embedded in the action(i.e. [action] = 'admin_edit') and the result of Router::parse() does not. Both of course have the prefix in it's own key. To summarize, how do I convert an url between any of these 3(or 4, if you include the prefix thing) mentioned formats the right way? Of course it would be easy to hack my way through this, but I'd still like to believe that cake is being developed by a bunch of people who have a lot more experience and insight than me, so I'm guessing there's a good reason for this "perceived misbehavior". I've tried to present my problem as good as I can, but due to my rusty english skills, I had to take a few detours :) I'll explain more if needed.

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  • .NET 2.0 Process Elevation for App Installation

    - by Brian Gillespie
    We have an application written in both C++ and .NET that installs for all users in the Program Files folder. This application downloads new versions of itself (as MSI installers) and spawns the new installer process to replace itself. The install process as it exists today: Copy an install manager app (C#, .NET 2.0) to the temp directory. Call this 'Manager' Manager is executed with elevated privs per this article. The original application exits. Manager spawns the MSI installer (with elevated privs, since the copy is elevated) Manager spawns the new version of the app. The bug: The newly installed app is running in an elevated state. This causes problems I won't enumerate here. Ideally, the launch of the newly installed app would be run with the permissions of the original user. I can't figure out how to demote the app back to being the standard user after elevation. An inelegant hack: (yeah, yeah, this whole process is inelegant anyway) Copy the install manager to the temp directory Run the install manager with standard user privs. Lets call this instance 'LowlyManager'. Original application exits. LowlyManager spawns the app again, this time with elevated privs. Let's name this instance 'UpperManagement' UpperManagement spawns the installer UpperManagement exits gracefully, returning the exit code of the installer. LowlyManager interprets the error code from UpperManagement, and spawns the newly installed application. This time as the original invoker. Is there a better way to do this? (I've left out a bunch of other details before and after these steps that make the process smoother for the user, but this should be enough to understand the core of the problem I'm trying to solve.) Other requirements: We can't install as a per-user app The user shouldn't be presented with an authentication dialog box if UAC would have simply asked "are you sure you want to allow this?". I think this might kill a solution using WindowsImpersonationContext, but I'm not sure. The system needs to work on XP, Vista, and Windows 7 (even if there is a separate process for XP).

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  • Queue ExternalInterface calls to Flash Object in UpdatePanel - Needs Improvement?

    - by Laramie
    A Flash (actually Flex) object is created on an ASP.Net page within an Update Panel using a modified version of the embedCallAC_FL_RunContent.js script so it can be written in dynamically. It is re-created with this script with each partial postback to that panel. There are also other Update Panels on the page. With some postbacks (partial and full), External Interface calls such as $get('FlashObj').ExternalInterfaceFunc('arg1', 0, true); are prepared server-side and added to the page using ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript. They're embedded in a function and stuffed into Sys.Application's load event, for example Sys.Application.add_load(funcContainingExternalInterfaceCalls). The problem is that because the Flash object's state state may change with each partial postback, the Flash (Flex) object and/or External Interface may not be ready or even exist yet in the DOM when the JavaScript - Flash External Interface call is made. It results in an "Object doesn't support this property or method" exception. I have a working strategy to make the ExternalInterface calls immediately if Flash is ready or else queue them until such time that Flash announces its readiness. //Called when the Flash object is initialized and can accept ExternalInterfaceCalls var flashReady = false; //Called by Flash when object is fully initialized function setFlashReady() { flashReady = true; //Make any queued ExternalInterface calls, then dequeue while (extIntQueue.length > 0) (extIntQueue.shift())(); } var extIntQueue = []; function callExternalInterface(flashObjName, funcName, args) { //reference to the wrapped ExternalInterface Call var wrapped = extWrap(flashObjName, funcName, args); //only procede with ExternalInterface call if the global flashReady variable has been set if (flashReady) { wrapped(); } else { //queue the function so when flashReady() is called next, the function is called and the aruments are passed. extIntQueue.push(wrapped); } } //bundle ExtInt call and hold variables in a closure function extWrap(flashObjName, funcName, args) { //put vars in closure return function() { var funcCall = '$get("' + flashObjName + '").' + funcName; eval(funcCall).apply(this, args); } } I set the flashReady var to dirty whenever I update the Update Panel that contains the Flash (Flex) object. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(parentContainer, parentContainer.GetType(), "flashReady", "flashReady = false;", true); I'm pleased that I got it to work, but it feels like a hack. I am still on the learning curve with respect to concepts like closures why "eval()" is apparently evil, so I'm wondering if I'm violating some best practice or if this code should be improved, if so how? Thanks.

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  • Why don't my scrollbars work properly when programmatically hiding rows in silverlight Datagrid?

    - by Luke Vilnis
    I have a Silverlight datagrid with custom code that allows for +/- buttons on the lefthand side and can display a table with a tree structure. The +/- buttons are bound to a IsExpanded property on my ViewModelRows, as I call them. The visibility of rows is bound to an IsVisible property on the ViewModelRows which is determined based on whether or not all of the parent rows are expanded. Straightforward enough. This code works fine in that if I scroll up and down the grid with PageUp/PageDown or the arrow keys, all the right rows are hidden and everything has the right structure and I can play with the +/- buttons to my hearts content. However, the vertical scroll bar on the right hand side, although it starts off the correct size and it scrolls through the rows smoothly, when I collapse rows and then re-expand them, doesn't go back to its correct size. The scrollbar can still usually be moved around to scroll through the whole collection, but because it is too big, once the bar moves to the bottom, there are still more rows to go through and it sort of jerkily shoots all the way down to the bottom or sometimes fails to scroll at all. This is pretty hard to describe so I included a screenshot with the black lines drawn on to show the difference in scrollbar length even though the two grids have the same number of rows expanded. I think this might be a bug related to the way the Datagrid does virtualization of rows. It seems to me like it isn't properly keeping track of how tall each row is supposed to be when expansion states change. Is there a way to programmatically "poke" (read hack) it to recalculate its scrollbar size on LoadingRow or something ugly like that? I'd include a code sample but there's 2 c# files and 1 xaml file so I wanted to see if anyone else has heard of this sort of issue before I try to make it reproducible in a self-contained way. Once again, scrolling with the arrow keys works fine so I'm pretty sure the underlying logic and binding is working, there's just some issue with the row height not being calculated properly. Since I'm a new user, it won't let me use image tags so here's the link to a picture of the problem: http://img210.imageshack.us/img210/8760/messedupscrollbars.png

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  • Is this scatter-brained workflow realizable in Git?

    - by Luke Maurer
    This is what I'd like my workflow to look like at a conceptual level: I hack on my new feature for a while I notice a typo in a comment I change it Since the typo is completely unrelated to anything else, I put that change in a pile of comment fixes I keep working on the code I realize I need to flesh out a few utility functions I do so I put that change in its own pile Steps 2, 3, and 4 each repeat throughout the day I finish the new feature and put the changes for that feature in a pile I push nice patches upstream: One with the new feature, a few for the other tweaks, and one with a bunch of comment fixes if enough have accumulated Since I'm both lazy and a perfectionist, I want to be able to do some things out of order: I might correct a typo but forget to put it in the comment fix pile; when I prepare the upstream patches (I'm using git-svn, so I need to be pretty deliberate about these), I'll then pull out the comment fixes at that point. I might forget to separate things altogether until the very end. But I might /also/ have committed some of the piles along the way (sorry, the metaphor is breaking down …). This is all rather like just using Eclipse changesets with SVN, only I can have different changes to the same file in different piles (having to disentangle changes into different commits is what motivated me to move to git-svn, in fact …), and with Git I can have my full discombobulated change history, experimental branches and all, but still make a nice, neat patch. I've just recently started with Git after having wanted to for a good while, and I'm quite happy so far. The biggest way in which the above workflow doesn't really map into Git, though, is that a “bin” can't really be just a local branch, since the working tree only ever reflects the state of a single branch. Or maybe the Git index is a “pile,” and what I want is to have more than one somehow (effectively). I can think of a few ways to approximate what I want (maybe creative use of stash? Intricate stash-checkout-merge dances?), but my grasp on Git isn't solid enough to be sure of how best to put all the pieces together. It's said that Git is more a toolkit than a VCS, so I guess the question comes down to: How do I build this thing with these tools?

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  • My hosting server giving memory allocation error

    - by Usman
    I have hosted my website on shared hosting linux server. As there are atmost 10-15 visitors come to my website daily but My wordpress website most of the times gives 500 Internal Server Error. I accessed my server Error Log following error is showing: [Tue Dec 04 08:57:45 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:45 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:43 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:43 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:42 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:42 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:41 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:41 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:40 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:40 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:32 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:31 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:29 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:29 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php [Tue Dec 04 08:57:26 2012] [error] [client 117.205.74.227] (12)Cannot allocate memory: couldn't create child process: /opt/suphp/sbin/suphp for /home/grasphub/public_html/index.php Is my hosting service really bad. And any solution. Thanks in advance.

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  • Impersonation on Windows 2000 to Windows XP Leaves Connections Open

    - by Tallek
    I'm running on a Windows 2000 Pro SP4 box (off domain) and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box (on domain). I'm using code very similar to the WindowsImpersonationContextFacade in the question posted here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/879704/how-can-i-temporarily-impersonate-a-user-to-open-a-file. I am using impersonation to remotely start and stop windows services as well as access network shares (for some automated integration tests). To get this working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. Everything worked beautifully ( Windows XP on domain to Windows XP on domain, Windows XP on domain to Windows Server 2003 off domain, and even Windows XP on domain to Windows 2000 off domain). The one issue was running on Windows 2000 Pro SP4 off the domain and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box running on the domain. To get the Windows 2000 piece working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50 and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. This seemed to get me 95% of the way there, i could now impersonate the local user on the XP box and start/stop services as well as access a network share using the impersonated credentials. I'm running in to one problem though, calling Undo impersonation and closing the token handle seems to leave the connection to the remote box open. After about 10 or so impersonation calls, further impersonation attempts will fail with an error saying something about too many connections are currently open. If i look at the Computer Management - System Tools - Shared Folders - Sessions on my remote Windows XP box, i can see about 10 sessions open to the Windows 2000 box. I can manually close these (i think they may eventually close themselves, but not very quickly) and then impersonation begins working again few more times. This open session issue doesn't seem to be a problem in any of my other test scenarios, just when running locally on a Windows 2000 box. Any ideas? Edit 1: After some more testing and trying out many different things, this seems to be an issue with open sessions not being reused. On Windows 2000 only, every call to LogonUser to get a token and then using that token to impersonate seems to result in a new session being created. I'm guessing Windows XP & Windows Server 2003 are reusing open sessions since i don't seem to be having any issues with them. If I call LogonUser once, then cache the token, I seem to be able to make as many calls to impersonate as I need using the cached token without running in to the "too many connections" issue. This seems like an ugly work around though since i can't call CloseHandle() on my token every time i perform impersonation. Anybody have any thoughts or ideas, or am i stuck with this ugly hack? Thanks

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  • Undesired "flashing" in Jquery dropdown menu?

    - by Tom
    Hi, I've got the following piece of Jquery: $("#collapse-menu > li > a").click(function() { $(this).toggleClass("expanded").toggleClass("collapsed").find("+ ul").slideToggle("medium"); }); What it basically does is expands or collapses a menu of nested "lists" which contain dropdowns (simplified example): <ul id="collapse-menu"> <li><a class="expanded">Basic Details</a> <ul> <li> <select> .... </select> </li> <li> <select> .... </select> </li> The code works absolutely fine EXCEPT when a large value is selected in any of the dropdowns. At that point, when clicked, the menu will still expand/collapse correctly but "flash" quickly while doing so, as if the entire element was being reset somehow. The data itself is fine but it's the flashing that's unwanted. The strange thing is that if a small value is selected in a dropdown, there's no flashing. When a large value is selected (say, above 30 in an age dropdown of 18-99), the flashing starts happening. Can anyone tell me why this is happening? Or whether there's something not right about the Jquery that's causing this. Thanks. UPDATE: Adding a bounty to this. Have tried a few similar plugins/solutions out there on the net but they all seem to suffer from this "flashing" problem when large dropdown values are selected by default. If it helps, here's a typical similar solution: http://www.i-marco.nl/weblog/jquery-accordion-menu/index_collapsed.html# ... but it suffers from the same problem when dropdowns are added inside the accordion. I hope someone has a clean solution, instead of needing to hack this somehow.

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  • How can I tell groovy/grails not to try to "re-encode" binary data? (Revised title)

    - by ?????
    I have a groovy/grails application that needs to serve images It works fine on my dev box, the image is returned properly. Here's the start of the returned JPEG, as seen by od -cx 0000000 377 330 377 340 \0 020 J F I F \0 001 001 001 001 , d8ff e0ff 1000 464a 4649 0100 0101 2c01 but on the production box, there's some garbage in front, and the d8ff e0ff before the 1000 is missing 0000000 ? ** ** ? ** ** ? ** ** ? ** ** \0 020 J F bfef efbd bdbf bfef efbd bdbf 1000 464a 0000020 I F \0 001 001 001 \0 H \0 H \0 \0 ? ** ** ? 4649 0100 0101 4800 4800 0000 bfef efbd It's the exact same code. I just moved the .war over and run it on a different machine. (Isn't Java supposed to be write once, run everywhere?) Any ideas? An "encoding" problem? The code is sent to the response like this: response.contentType = "image/jpeg"; response.outputStream << out; Here's the code that locates the image on an internal application server and re-serves the image. I've pared down the code a bit to remove the error handling, etc, to make it easier to read. def show = { def address = "http://internal.application.server:9899/img?photoid=${params.id}" def out = new ByteArrayOutputStream() out << new URL(address).openStream() response.contentLength = out.size(); // XXX If you don't do this hack, "head" requests won't work! if (request.method == 'HEAD') { render( text : "", contentType : "image/jpeg" ); } else { response.contentType = "image/jpeg"; response.outputStream << out; } } Update: I tried setting the CharacterEncoding response.setCharacterEncoding("ISO-8859-1"); if (request.method == 'HEAD') { render( text : "", contentType : "image/jpeg" ); } else { response.contentType = "image/jpeg;charset=ISO-8859-1"; response.outputStream << out; } but it made no difference in the output. On my production machine, the binary bytes in the image are re-encoded/escaped as if they were UTF-8 (see Michael's explanation below). It works fine on my development machine.

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  • When does IE7 recompute styles? Doesn't work reliably when a class is added to the body.

    - by Kid A
    I have an interesting problem here. I'm using a class on the element as a switch to drive a fair amount of layout behavior on my site. If the class is applied, certain things happen, and if the class isn't applied, they don't happen. The relevant CSS is roughly like this: .rightSide { display:none; } .showCommentsRight .rightSide { display:block; width:50%; } .showCommentsRight .leftSide { display:block; width:50%; } And the HTML: <body class="showCommentsRight"> <div class="container"></div> <div class="leftSide"></div> <div class="rightSide"></div> </div> <div class="container"></div> <div class="leftSide"></div> <div class="rightSide"></div> </div> <div class="container"></div> <div class="leftSide"></div> <div class="rightSide"></div> </div> </body> I've simplified things but this is essentially the method. The whole page changes layout (hiding the right side in three different areas) when the flag is set on the body. This works in Firefox and IE8. It does not work in IE8 in compatibility mode. What is fascinating is that if you sit there and refresh the page, the results can vary. It will pick a different section's right side to show. Sometimes it will show only the top section's right side, sometimes it will show the middle. I have tried a validator (to look for malformed html), double css formatting, and making sure my IE7 hack sheet wasn't having an effect. So my question is: * Is there a way that this behavior can be made reliable? * When does IE7 decide to re-do styling? Thanks everyone.

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  • How To Create A Download Quota.

    - by snikolov
    I need to create an handy file down loader which will count the amount of bytes downloaded and stop when it has exceed a preset limit. i need to mirror some files but i only have 7 gb per moth of bandwidth and i dont want to exceed the limit. Example limits can be in bytes or number of files, each user has their own limit, as well as a limit for Download Quota itself. So if you set a limit of 2 gigabytes for Download Quota, downloads stop at 2 gigabytes, even if you have 3 users with a limit of 1 gigabyte each. if ($range) { //pass client Range header to rapidshare // _insert($range); $cookie .= "\r\nRange: $range"; $multipart = true; header("X-UR-RANGE-Range: $range"); } //octet-stream + attachment => client always stores file header('Content-type: application/octet-stream'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="' . $fn . '"'); //always included so clients know this script supports resuming header("Accept-Ranges: bytes"); //awful hack to pass rapidshare the premium cookie $user_agent = ini_get("user_agent"); ini_set("user_agent", $user_agent . "\r\nCookie: enc=$cookie"); $httphandle = fopen($url, "r"); $headers = stream_get_meta_data($httphandle); //let's check the return header of rapidshare for range / length indicators //we'll just pass these to the client foreach ($headers["wrapper_data"] as $header) { $header = trim($header); if (substr(strtolower($header), 0, strlen("content-range")) == "content-range") { // _insert($range); header($header); header("X-RS-RANGE-" . $header); $multipart = true; //content-range indicates partial download } elseif (substr(strtolower($header), 0, strlen("Content-Length")) == "content-length") { // _insert($range); header($header); header("X-RS-CL-" . $header); } } //now show the client he has a partial download if ($multipart) header('HTTP/1.1 206 Partial Content'); flush(); $download_rate = 100; while (!feof($httphandle)) { // send the current file part to the browser $var_stat = fread($httphandle, round($download_rate * 1024)); $var12 = strlen($var_stat); ////////////////////////////////// echo $var_stat; ///////////////////////////////// // flush the content to the browser flush(); // sleep one second sleep(1); }

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  • HTML wrapper div over embedded flash object cannot be "clickable" by jQuery

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I've been trying to do as the client requested : redirect to campaign page then to destination page once a customer clicks on the top banner in swf format. You can check what's been done at :http://ausdcf.org If you are using Firefox, Chrome or Safari, I suspect you can reach the destination page. However, if you are using IE or Opera, I doubt it. I think to cause of such a weird problem is: The swf ojbects don't have a link to url, SO I have to hack the theme template file like this : <div id="header">'; /* * A quick and dirty way to put some swf into PHP, and rotate among them ... */ //available banners $banners = array( 'http://localhost/smf/flash/banner_fertalign_1.swf', 'http://localhost/smf/flash/banner_fertalign_2.swf', 'http://localhost/smf/flash/banner_fertalign_3.swf' ); //get random banner srand((double) microtime() * 1000000); $rand = rand(0,count($banners)-1); echo '<div id="top_banner_clickable">'; echo '<div id="top_banner_wrapper">'; echo '<object width="400" height="60">'; echo '<param name="wmode" value="transparent">'; echo '<embed wmode="transparent" src="'.$banners[$rand].'" '; echo 'width="400" height="60" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"'; echo 'pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/shockwave/download/index.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" />'; echo '</object>'; echo '</div>'; echo '</div>'; And the related jQuery code is like this: /* master.js */ $(document).ready(function() { $("#top_banner_clickable").click(function() { window.location ="http://ausdcf.org/campaign/"; }); }); I absolutely know nothing about Flash or embedded objects. I guess that's the cause of this problem. Plus, I don't know why it works with some browsers but not all... I even tried to add a z-index to the wrapper div in css like this: #top_banner_clickable { z-index : 100; } No this wouldn't do, either... Is there a way to go around this issue? Many thanks in advance.

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  • .NET: Is there a way to finagle a default namespace in an XPath 1.0 query?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm building a tool that performs xpath 1.0 queries on XHTML documents. The requirement to use a namespace prefix in the query is killing me. The query looks like this: html/body/div[@class='contents']/div[@class='body']/ div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/h2[a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ul[1]/li/a (all on one line) ...which is bad enough, except because it's xpath 1.0, I need to use an explicit namespace prefix on each QName, so it looks like this: ns1:html/ns1:body/ns1:div[@class='contents']/ns1:div[@class='body']/ ns1:div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/ns1:h2[ns1:a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ns1:ul[1]/ns1:li/ns1:a To set up the query, I do something like this: var xpathDoc = new XPathDocument(new StringReader(theText)); var nav = xpathDoc.CreateNavigator(); var xmlns = new XmlNamespaceManager(nav.NameTable); foreach (string prefix in xmlNamespaces.Keys) xmlns.AddNamespace(prefix, xmlNamespaces[prefix]); XPathNodeIterator selection = nav.Select(xpathExpression, xmlns); But what I want is for the xpathExpression to use the implicit default namespace. Is there a way for me to transform the unadorned xpath expression, after it's been written, to inject a namespace prefix for each element name in the query? I'm thinking, anything between two slashes, I could inject a prefix there. Excepting of course axis names like "parent::" and "preceding-sibling::" . And wildcards. That's what I mean by "finagle a default namespace". Is this hack gonna work? Addendum Here's what I mean. suppose I have an xpath expression, and before passing it to nav.Select(), I transform it. Something like this: string FixupWithDefaultNamespace(string expr) { string s = expr; s = Regex.Replace(s, "^(?!::)([^/:]+)(?=/)", "ns1:$1"); // beginning s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([^/:]+)(?=/)", "/ns1:$1"); // stanza s = Regex.Replace(s, "::([A-Za-z][^/:*]*)(?=/)", "::ns1:$1"); // axis specifier s = Regex.Replace(s, "\\[([A-Za-z][^/:*\\(]*)(?=[\\[\\]])", "[ns1:$1"); // predicate s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([A-Za-z][^/:]*)(?!<::)$", "/ns1:$1"); // end s = Regex.Replace(s, "^([A-Za-z][^/:]*)$", "ns1:$1"); // edge case s = Regex.Replace(s, "([-A-Za-z]+)\\(([^/:\\.,\\)]+)(?=[,\\)])", "$1(ns1:$2"); // xpath functions return s; } This actually works for simple cases I tried. To use the example from above - if the input is the first xpath expression, the output I get is the 2nd one, with all the ns1 prefixes. The real question is, is it hopeless to expect this Regex.Replace approach to work, as the xpath expressions get more complicated?

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  • Programmatically Binding to a Property

    - by M312V
    I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

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  • PHP 5.2 to 5.3 not upgrading, no errors

    - by Webnet
    I'm following this guide: http://atik97.wordpress.com/2010/06/12/how-to-upgrade-to-php-5-3-in-ubuntu-9-10/ I've done all the steps, but it's still showing php 5.2.6 - any ideas? I have also tried -cgi instead of -cli, neither have any effect. update I've tried rebooting the server to see if that would have any effect and unfortunately it didn't update Output of dpkg -l *php*: Desired=Unknown/Install/Remove/Purge/Hold | Status=Not/Inst/Cfg-files/Unpacked/Failed-cfg/Half-inst/trig-aWait/Trig-pend |/ Err?=(none)/Hold/Reinst-required/X=both-problems (Status,Err: uppercase=bad) ||/ Name Version Description +++-=============================================-=============================================-========================================================================================================== un libapache2-mod-php4 <none> (no description available) ii libapache2-mod-php5 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 server-side, HTML-embedded scripting language (Apache 2 module) un libapache2-mod-php5filter <none> (no description available) ii php-pear 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 PEAR - PHP Extension and Application Repository un php4-cli <none> (no description available) un php4-dev <none> (no description available) un php4-mysql <none> (no description available) un php4-pear <none> (no description available) ii php5 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 server-side, HTML-embedded scripting language (metapackage) ii php5-cgi 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 server-side, HTML-embedded scripting language (CGI binary) ii php5-cli 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 command-line interpreter for the php5 scripting language ii php5-common 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 Common files for packages built from the php5 source ii php5-curl 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 CURL module for php5 un php5-dev <none> (no description available) ii php5-gd 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 GD module for php5 ii php5-imap 5.2.6-0ubuntu5.1 IMAP module for php5 un php5-json <none> (no description available) ii php5-mcrypt 5.2.6-0ubuntu2 MCrypt module for php5 ii php5-mysql 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 MySQL module for php5 un php5-mysqli <none> (no description available) ii php5-xsl 5.2.6.dfsg.1-3ubuntu4.6 XSL module for php5 un phpapi-20060613+lfs <none> (no description available) ii phpmyadmin 4:3.1.2-1ubuntu0.2 MySQL web administration tool update The following commands and their outputs: grep php53 /etc/apt/sources.list deb http://php53.dotdeb.org stable all deb-src http://php53.dotdeb.org stable all apt-cache search -f "libapache2-mod-php5" http://pastebin.com/XNXdsXYC update I've updated the question with more details on installed packages.

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  • Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

    - by Mason
    I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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  • How to Fix my jQuery code in IE?? Works in Firefox..

    - by scott jarvis
    I am using jQuery to show/hide a div container (#pluginOptionsContainer), and load a page (./plugin_options.php) inside it with the required POST vars sent. What POST data is sent is based on the value of a select list (#pluginDD) and the click of a button (#pluginOptionsBtn)... It works fine in Firefox, but doesn't work in IE.. The '$("#pluginOptionsContainer").load()' request never seems to finish in IE - I only see the loading message forever... bind(), empty() and append() all seem to work fine in IE.. But not load().. Here is my code: // wait for the DOM to be loaded $(document).ready(function() { // hide the plugin options $('#pluginOptionsContainer').hide(); // This is the hack for IE if ($.browser.msie) { $("#pluginDD").click(function() { this.blur(); this.focus(); }); } // set the main function $(function() { // the button shows hides the plugin options page (and its container) $("#pluginOptionsBtn") .click(function() { // show the container of the plugin options page $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); $('#pluginOptionsContainer').toggle(); }); // set the loading message if user changes selection with either the dropdown or button $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change', function() { $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); }); // then update the page when the plugin is changed when EITHER the plugin button or dropdown or clicked or changed $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change click', function() { // set form fields as vars in js var pid = <?=$pid;?>; var cid = <?=$contentid;?>; var pDD = $("#pluginDD").val(); // add post vars (must use JSON) to be sent into the js var 'dataString' var dataString = {plugin_options: true, pageid: pid, contentid: cid, pluginDD: pDD }; // include the plugin option page inside the container, with the required values already added into the query string $("#pluginOptionsContainer").load("/admin/inc/edit/content/plugin_options.php#pluginTop", dataString); // add this to stop page refresh return false; }); // end submit function }); // end main function }); // on DOM load Any help would be GREATLY appreciated! I hate IE!

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  • Trying to run multiple HTTP requests in parallel, but being limited by Windows (registry)

    - by Nailuj
    I'm developing an application (winforms C# .NET 4.0) where I access a lookup functionality from a 3rd party through a simple HTTP request. I call an url with a parameter, and in return I get a small string with the result of the lookup. Simple enough. The challenge is however, that I have to do lots of these lookups (a couple of thousands), and I would like to limit the time needed. Therefore I would like to run requests in parallel (say 10-20). I use a ThreadPool to do this, and the short version of my code looks like this: public void startAsyncLookup(Action<LookupResult> returnLookupResult) { this.returnLookupResult = returnLookupResult; foreach (string number in numbersToLookup) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(lookupNumber, number); } } public void lookupNumber(Object threadContext) { string numberToLookup = (string)threadContext; string url = @"http://some.url.com/?number=" + numberToLookup; WebClient webClient = new WebClient(); Stream responseData = webClient.OpenRead(url); LookupResult lookupResult = parseLookupResult(responseData); returnLookupResult(lookupResult); } I fill up numbersToLookup (a List<String>) from another place, call startAsyncLookup and provide it with a call-back function returnLookupResult to return each result. This works, but I found that I'm not getting the throughput I want. Initially I thought it might be the 3rd party having a poor system on their end, but I excluded this by trying to run the same code from two different machines at the same time. Each of the two took as long as one did alone, so I could rule out that one. A colleague then tipped me that this might be a limitation in Windows. I googled a bit, and found amongst others this post saying that by default Windows limits the number of simultaneous request to the same web server to 4 for HTTP 1.0 and to 2 for HTTP 1.1 (for HTTP 1.1 this is actually according to the specification (RFC2068)). The same post referred to above also provided a way to increase these limits. By adding two registry values to [HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings] (MaxConnectionsPerServer and MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server), I could control this myself. So, I tried this (sat both to 20), restarted my computer, and tried to run my program again. Sadly though, it didn't seem to help any. I also kept an eye on the Resource Monitor (see screen shot) while running my batch lookup, and I noticed that my application (the one with the title blacked out) still only was using two TCP connections. So, the question is, why isn't this working? Is the post I linked to using the wrong registry values? Is this perhaps not possible to "hack" in Windows any longer (I'm on Windows 7)? Any ideas would be highly appreciated :) And just in case anyone should wonder, I have also tried with different settings for MaxThreads on ThreadPool (everyting from 10 to 100), and this didn't seem to affect my throughput at all, so the problem shouldn't be there either.

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  • jar dependencies in android- no class definition found exception

    - by Dave.B
    I'm trying to use the gdata java client library on android and have managed a decent hack to get it working. However because the jar for gdata had some package discrepancies with android I had to import the source into my project. This source is dependent on the JavaMail API and the JavaBeans Activation Framework as specified here. My issue is that the JavaMail jar throws a class definition not found when seeking a class which is in the Activation Framework jar. A stack trace is listed below. I am working in Eclipse and have both jars in a lib folder and added to my build path. I'm not very experienced dealing with jars in a situation like this so any help or insight would be appreciated. 03-29 09:55:26.204: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): Uncaught handler: thread AsyncTask #3 exiting due to uncaught exception 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): java.lang.RuntimeException: An error occured while executing doInBackground() 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at android.os.AsyncTask$3.done(AsyncTask.java:200) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerSetException(FutureTask.java:273) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.setException(FutureTask.java:124) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:307) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:137) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1068) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:561) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:1096) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): Caused by: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: javax.activation.DataHandler 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at javax.mail.internet.MimeBodyPart.setContent(MimeBodyPart.java:684) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at com.google.gdata.data.media.MediaBodyPart.<init>(MediaBodyPart.java:95) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at com.google.gdata.data.media.MediaMultipart.<init>(MediaMultipart.java:126) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at com.google.gdata.client.media.MediaService.insert(MediaService.java:382) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at android.os.AsyncTask$2.call(AsyncTask.java:185) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:305)

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  • APC PHP cache size does not exceed 32MB, even though settings allow for more

    - by hardy101
    I am setting up APC (v 3.1.9) on a high-traffic WordPress installation on CentOS 6.0 64 bit. I have figured out many of the quirks with APC, but something is still not quite right. No matter what settings I change, APC never actually caches more than 32MB. I'm trying to bump it up to 256 MB. 32MB is a default amount for apc.shm_size, so I am wondering if it's stuck there somehow. I have run the following echo '2147483648' > /proc/sys/kernel/shmmax to increase my system's shared memory to 2G (half of my 4G box). Then ran ipcs -lm which returns ------ Shared Memory Limits -------- max number of segments = 4096 max seg size (kbytes) = 2097152 max total shared memory (kbytes) = 8388608 min seg size (bytes) = 1 Also made a change in /etc/sysctl.conf then ran sysctl -p to make the settings stick on the server. Rebooted, too, for good measure. In my APC settings, I have mmap enabled (which happens by default in recent versions of APC). php.ini looks like: apc.stat=0 apc.shm_size="256M" apc.max_file_size="10M" apc.mmap_file_mask="/tmp/apc.XXXXXX" apc.ttl="7200" I am aware that mmap mode will ignore references to apc.shm_segments, so I have left it out with default 1. phpinfo() indicates the following about APC: Version 3.1.9 APC Debugging Disabled MMAP Support Enabled MMAP File Mask /tmp/apc.bPS7rB Locking type pthread mutex Locks Serialization Support php Revision $Revision: 308812 $ Build Date Oct 11 2011 22:55:02 Directive Local Value apc.cache_by_default On apc.canonicalize O apc.coredump_unmap Off apc.enable_cli Off apc.enabled On On apc.file_md5 Off apc.file_update_protection 2 apc.filters no value apc.gc_ttl 3600 apc.include_once_override Off apc.lazy_classes Off apc.lazy_functions Off apc.max_file_size 10M apc.mmap_file_mask /tmp/apc.bPS7rB apc.num_files_hint 1000 apc.preload_path no value apc.report_autofilter Off apc.rfc1867 Off apc.rfc1867_freq 0 apc.rfc1867_name APC_UPLOAD_PROGRESS apc.rfc1867_prefix upload_ apc.rfc1867_ttl 3600 apc.serializer default apc.shm_segments 1 apc.shm_size 256M apc.slam_defense On apc.stat Off apc.stat_ctime Off apc.ttl 7200 apc.use_request_time On apc.user_entries_hint 4096 apc.user_ttl 0 apc.write_lock On apc.php reveals the following graph, no matter how long the server runs (cache size fluctuates and hovers at just under 32MB. See image http://i.stack.imgur.com/2bwMa.png You can see that the cache is trying to allocate 256MB, but the brown piece of the pie keeps getting recycled at 32MB. This is confirmed as refreshing the apc.php page shows cached file counts that move up and down (implying that the cache is not holding onto all of its files). Does anyone have an idea of how to get APC to use more than 32 MB for its cache size?? **Note that the identical behavior occurs for eaccelerator, xcache, and APC. I read here: http://www.litespeedtech.com/support/forum/archive/index.php/t-5072.html that suEXEC could cause this problem.

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  • Hidden divs for "lazy javascript" loading? Possible security/other issues?

    - by xyld
    I'm curious about people's opinion's and thoughts about this situation. The reason I'd like to lazy load javascript is because of performance. Loading javascript at the end of the body reduces the browser blocking and ends up with much faster page loads. But there is some automation I'm using to generate the html (django specifically). This automation has the convenience of allowing forms to be built with "Widgets" that output content it needs to render the entire widget (extra javascript, css, ...). The problem is that the widget wants to output javascript immediately into the middle of the document, but I want to ensure all javascript loads at the end of the body. When the following widget is added to a form, you can see it renders some <script>...</script> tags: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<script type="text/javascript"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </script>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output What I'm proposing is that if someone uses a <div class=".lazy-js">...</div> with some css (.lazy-js { display: none; }) and some javascript (jQuery('.lazy-js').each(function(index) { eval(jQuery(this).text()); }), you can effectively force all javascript to load at the end of page load: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<div class="lazy-js"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </div>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output Nevermind all the details of my specific implementation (the specific media involved), I'm looking for a consensus on whether the method of using lazy-loaded javascript through hidden a hidden tags can pose issues whether security or other related? One of the most convenient parts about this is that it follows the DRY principle rather well IMO because you don't need to hack up a specific lazy-load for each instance in the page. It just "works". UPDATE: I'm not sure if django has the ability to queue things (via fancy template inheritance or something?) to be output just before the end of the </body>?

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  • Upgrading Entity Framework 1.0 to 4.0 to include foreign keys

    - by duthiega
    Currently I've been working with Entity Framework 1.0 which is located under a service façade. Below is one of the save methods I've created to either update or insert the device in question. This currently works but, I can't help feel that its a bit of a hack having to set the referenced properties to null then re-attach them just to get an insert to work. The changedDevice already holds these values, so why do I need to assign them again. So, I thought I'll update the model to EF4. That way I can just directly access the foreign keys. However, on doing this I've found that there doesn't seem to be an easy way to add the foreign keys except by removing the entity from the diagram and re-adding it. I don't want to do this as I've already been through all the entity properties renaming them from the DB column names. Can anyone help? /// <summary> /// Saves the non network device. /// </summary> /// <param name="nonNetworkDeviceDto">The non network device dto.</param> public void SaveNonNetworkDevice(NonNetworkDeviceDto nonNetworkDeviceDto) { using (var context = new AssetNetworkEntities2()) { var changedDevice = TransformationHelper.ConvertNonNetworkDeviceDtoToEntity(nonNetworkDeviceDto); if (!nonNetworkDeviceDto.DeviceId.Equals(-1)) { var originalDevice = context.NonNetworkDevices.Include("Status").Include("NonNetworkType").FirstOrDefault( d => d.DeviceId.Equals(nonNetworkDeviceDto.DeviceId)); context.ApplyAllReferencedPropertyChanges(originalDevice, changedDevice); context.ApplyCurrentValues(originalDevice.EntityKey.EntitySetName, changedDevice); } else { var maxNetworkDevice = context.NonNetworkDevices.OrderBy("it.DeviceId DESC").First(); changedDevice.DeviceId = maxNetworkDevice.DeviceId + 1; var status = changedDevice.Status; var nonNetworkType = changedDevice.NonNetworkType; changedDevice.Status = null; changedDevice.NonNetworkType = null; context.AttachTo("DeviceStatuses", status); if (nonNetworkType != null) { context.AttachTo("NonNetworkTypes", nonNetworkType); } changedDevice.Status = status; changedDevice.NonNetworkType = nonNetworkType; context.AddToNonNetworkDevices(changedDevice); } context.SaveChanges(); } }

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  • NGINX rewrite rules help. Redirect not working and want to get rid of index.php in urls

    - by Tamerax
    hey! I have 2 questions for nginx users. 1) I'm trying to setup my joomla server onto my new linode running NGINX and after much (like days) of searching and testing, I finally have a config that works with with SEF url plugins...sorta. I was using an apache system on the old server and it used mod_rewrite and life was fine in terms of SEF. Since NGINX doesn't have mod_rewrite, I found something that works BUT it constantly leaves index.php in the urls. ex: http://mysite.com/index.php/forum i want it to be just http://mysite.com/forum but without mod_rewrite it doesn't seem to be possible in joomla that i'm aware of. I know in wordpress it IS possible but I have to use a plugin. Here is my config file: server { listen 80; server_name mysite.com www.mysite.com; access_log /home/public_html/mysite.com/log/access.log; error_log /home/public_html/mysite.com/log/error.log; root /home/public_html/mysite.com/public/; large_client_header_buffers 4 8k; # prevent some 400 errors index index.php index.html; fastcgi_index index.php; location / { expires 30d; error_page 404 = @joomla; log_not_found off; } # Rewrite location @joomla { rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php?q=last; } # Static Files location ~* ^.+.(jpg|jpeg|gif|css|png|js|ico)$ { access_log off; expires 30d; } # PHP location ~ \.php { keepalive_timeout 0; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; include /usr/local/nginx/conf/fastcgi_params; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /home/public_html/mysite.com/public /$fastcgi_script_name; } } 2) second question should be easy but i can't get it to work. I want to use the same config I posted above and have either mysite.com or www.mysite.com both forward to mysite.com/portal. Basically when you hit up the front page with or without the www, it all gets forwarded to a sub directory on the server I called Portal. I have tried several variations of: rewrite ^/(.*) http://www.example.com/portal/$1 permanent; but it usually ends with firefox telling me there is some crazy loop happening the address bar saying something like mysite.com/portalportalportalportalportal.........on and on. So, any help on either of these issues would be awesome!! Thanks!!

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  • MVC EditorFor bind to type in array

    - by BradBrening
    I have a ViewModel that, among other properties, contains an array of 'EmailAddress' objects. EmailAddress itself has properties such as "Address", and "IsPrimary". My view model breakdown is: public class UserDetailsViewModel { public BUser User { get; set; } public string[] Roles { get; set; } public EmailAddress[] EmailAddresses { get; set; } } I am showing a "User Details" page that is pretty standard. For example, I'm displaying data using @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.UserName) and @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.Comment) I also have a section on the page that lists all of the EmailAddress objects associated with the user: @if(Model.EmailAddresses.Length > 0) { foreach (var address in Model.EmailAddresses) { <div> @Html.DisplayFor(model => address.Address) </div> } } else { <div class="center">User does not have any email addresses.</div> } My problem is that I would like to show an "Add Email Address" form above the list of email addresses. I thought I would take the "normal" approach thusly: @using(Html.BeginForm(new { id=Model.User.UserName, action="AddUserEmailAddress" })) { <text>Address:</text> @Html.EditorFor(model => ** HERE I AM STUCK **) <input type="submit" value="Add Email" class="button" /> } As you may be able to tell, I am stuck here. I've tried model => Model.EmailAddresses[0] and model => Model.EmailAddresses.FirstOrDefault(). Both of these have failed horribly. I am sure that I am going about this all wrong. I've even thought of adding a "dummy" property to my ViewModel of type EmailAddress just so that I can bind to that in my EditorFor - but that seems to be a really bad hack. There has to be something simple that I'm overlooking! I would appreciate any help anyone can offer with this matter. Thank you in advance!

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