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  • WPF: Menu Items only bind command parameters once.

    - by Aran Mulholland
    Ive noticed this a couple of times when using menus with commands, they are not very dynamic, check this out. I am creating a menu from a collection of colours, I use it to colour a column in a datagrid. Anyway when i first bring up the menu (its a context menu) the command parameter binding happens and it binds to the column that the context menu was opened on. However the next time i bring it up it seems wpf caches the menu and it doesnt rebind the command parameter. so i can set the colour only on the initial column that the context menu appeared on. I have got around this situation in the past by making the menu totally dynamic and destroying the collection when the menu closed and forcing a rebuild the next time it opened, i dont like this hack. anyone got a better way? <MenuItem Header="Colour" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type local:ResultEditorGrid}}, Path=ColumnColourCollection}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource colourHeader}" > <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="{StaticResource ColumnShowIcon16}" /> </MenuItem.Icon> <MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="MenuItem" BasedOn="{StaticResource systemMenuItemStyle}"> <!--Warning dont change the order of the following two setters otherwise the command parameter gets set after the command fires, not mush use eh?--> <Setter Property="CommandParameter"> <Setter.Value> <MultiBinding> <MultiBinding.Converter> <local:ColumnAndColourMultiConverter/> </MultiBinding.Converter> <Binding RelativeSource="{RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type DataGridColumnHeader}}" Path="Column"/> <Binding Path="."/> </MultiBinding> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Command" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type local:ResultEditorGrid}}, Path=ColourColumnCommand}" /> </Style> </MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle> </MenuItem>

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  • ASP Classic Session Variable Not Always Getting Set

    - by Mike at KBS
    I have a classic ASP site I'm maintaining and recently we wanted to do special rendering actions if the visitor was coming from one specific set of websites. So in the page where those visitors have to come through to get to our site, I put a simple line setting a session variable: <!-- #include virtual="/clsdbAccess.cs"--> <% set db = new dbAccess %> <html> <head> ... <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> ... </script> </head> <body> <% Session("CAME_FROM_NEWSPAPER") = "your local newspaper" ... %> ... html stuff ... </body> </html> Then, in all the following pages, whenever I need to put up nav links, menus, etc., that we don't want to show to those visitors, I test for if that session variable is "" or not, then render accordingly. My problem is that it seems to work great for me in development, then I get it out into Production and it works great sometimes, and other times it doesn't work at all. Sometimes the session variable gets set, sometimes it doesn't. Everything else works great. But our client is seeing inconsistent results on pages rendered to their visitors and this is a problem. I've tried logging on from different PC's and I confirm that I get different, and unpredictable, results. The problem is I can't reproduce it at will, and I can't troubleshoot/trace Production. For now I've solved this by just creating duplicate pages with the special rendering, and making sure those visitors go there. But this is a hack and will eventually be difficult to maintain. Is there something special or inconsistent about session variables in Classic ASP? Is there a better way to approach the problem? TIA.

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  • Problem using ‘useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy’ & supportedRuntime in an application

    - by Notre
    Hello, I've modified a couple of different applications' .config file like this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0"/> </startup> When I did this for devenv.exe.config (VS 2005 - don't ask :) ), things work great - most of the Visual Studio used .NET 2.0 but I was able to make use of an assembly targeting .NET 4.0 framework. I tried to do the same thing for a custom .exe, which happens to be based on MS CAB (slightly modified) and has a hybrid mix of WPF and WinForms content. As soon as I modified this application's app config file, I started getting this exception, sometime during application startup: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). System.InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). There's a big long stack trace that doesn't show anything in my application code directly (just a bunch of MS assemblies). If I modify the application's .config file to this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> </startup> i.e.I remove the supportedRuntime element, then the application doesn't throw this exception. But when I go to the point in my code where I try to load my .NET 4 assembly, if fails with this: System.BadImageFormatException: Could not load file or assembly '' or one of its dependencies. This assembly is built by a runtime newer than the currently loaded runtime and cannot be loaded. I guess this is expected. I have two questions: 1) Any idea why I'm getting the System.InvalidOperationException exception when I modify this application's configuration file to include the supportedRuntime element, adding .NET 4 support and any suggestions on what I can do about it? 2) If the answer is "no idea why/don't know what you can do about it", then is possible for my .NET 3.5 SP1 code (C#) to provide more fine grain support for conditionally adding .NET 4 runtime support for a certain assembly(ies) without converting my entire application to target .NET 4, or without using the declarative config file approach? At some point I would convert the entire application to target .NET 4, but for the short term this is daunting task and I'm hope for some short term solution/hack. Thank you very much for any advice you can give!

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  • How can you add a UIGestureRecognizer to a UIBarButtonItem as in the common undo/redo UIPopoverContr

    - by SG
    Problem In my iPad app, I cannot attach a popover to a button bar item only after press-and-hold events. But this seems to be standard for undo/redo. How do other apps do this? Background I have an undo button (UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo) in the toolbar of my UIKit (iPad) app. When I press the undo button, it fires it's action which is undo:, and that executes correctly. However, the "standard UE convention" for undo/redo on iPad is that pressing undo executes an undo but pressing and holding the button reveals a popover controller where the user selected either "undo" or "redo" until the controller is dismissed. The normal way to attach a popover controller is with presentPopoverFromBarButtonItem:, and I can configure this easily enough. To get this to show only after press-and-hold we have to set a view to respond to "long press" gesture events as in this snippet: UILongPressGestureRecognizer *longPressOnUndoGesture = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleLongPressOnUndoGesture:)]; //Broken because there is no customView in a UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo item [self.undoButtonItem.customView addGestureRecognizer:longPressOnUndoGesture]; [longPressOnUndoGesture release]; With this, after a press-and-hold on the view the method handleLongPressOnUndoGesture: will get called, and within this method I will configure and display the popover for undo/redo. So far, so good. The problem with this is that there is no view to attach to. self.undoButtonItem is a UIButtonBarItem, not a view. Possible solutions 1) [The ideal] Attach the gesture recognizer to the button bar item. It is possible to attach a gesture recognizer to a view, but UIButtonBarItem is not a view. It does have a property for .customView, but that property is nil when the buttonbaritem is a standard system type (in this case it is). 2) Use another view. I could use the UIToolbar but that would require some weird hit-testing and be an all around hack, if even possible in the first place. There is no other alternative view to use that I can think of. 3) Use the customView property. Standard types like UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo have no customView (it is nil). Setting the customView will erase the standard contents which it needs to have. This would amount to re-implementing all the look and function of UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo, again if even possible to do. Question How can I attach a gesture recognizer to this "button"? More specifically, how can I implement the standard press-and-hold-to-show-redo-popover in an iPad app? Ideas? Thank you very much, especially if someone actually has this working in their app (I'm thinking of you, omni) and wants to share...

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  • PHP-FPM High Memory Usage

    - by Ruel
    I have a wordpress blog, that uses WP-SuperCache, and normally I get 100 visitors per day. With nginx + php-fpm it's blazing fast, and I have no regrets. One thing i noticed, php-fpm takes a lot of memory: top - 09:20:43 up 5 days, 15:53, 1 user, load average: 0.00, 0.00, 0.00 Tasks: 26 total, 1 running, 25 sleeping, 0 stopped, 0 zombie Cpu(s): 0.0%us, 0.0%sy, 0.0%ni,100.0%id, 0.0%wa, 0.0%hi, 0.0%si, 0.0%st Mem: 1048576k total, 329956k used, 718620k free, 0k buffers Swap: 0k total, 0k used, 0k free, 0k cached PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ COMMAND 10226 www-data 15 0 145m 52m 4584 S 0.0 5.1 0:07.55 php-fpm 10223 www-data 16 0 141m 48m 4692 S 0.0 4.8 0:08.70 php-fpm 20277 www-data 15 0 138m 46m 4368 S 0.0 4.5 0:07.55 php-fpm 20259 www-data 15 0 133m 41m 4600 S 0.0 4.0 0:06.68 php-fpm 12201 www-data 15 0 133m 41m 4632 S 0.0 4.0 0:08.31 php-fpm 11586 www-data 15 0 132m 40m 4292 S 0.0 3.9 0:03.27 php-fpm 29822 www-data 15 0 128m 36m 4356 S 0.0 3.6 0:05.26 php-fpm 28427 mysql 15 0 200m 7300 4764 S 0.0 0.7 0:47.89 mysqld 10202 root 18 0 98.3m 4320 1204 S 0.0 0.4 0:03.80 php-fpm 22524 root 18 0 86064 3396 2652 S 0.0 0.3 0:16.74 sshd 9882 www-data 18 0 42052 2572 804 S 0.0 0.2 0:27.52 nginx 9884 www-data 18 0 42052 2560 804 S 0.0 0.2 0:26.26 nginx 9881 www-data 18 0 42064 2524 804 S 0.0 0.2 0:29.24 nginx 9879 www-data 18 0 42032 2480 804 S 0.0 0.2 0:29.58 nginx 23771 root 15 0 12176 1820 1316 S 0.0 0.2 0:00.08 bash 28344 root 22 0 11932 1416 1184 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 mysqld_safe 18167 root 16 0 62628 1208 648 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.55 sshd 25941 root 15 0 12612 1192 928 R 0.0 0.1 0:02.21 top 11573 root 15 0 20876 1168 592 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.67 crond 9878 root 18 0 41000 1112 284 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 nginx 21736 root 23 0 21648 936 716 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 xinetd 11585 root 18 0 46748 816 428 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 saslauthd 14125 root 12 -4 12768 768 452 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 udevd 1 root 18 0 10352 728 616 S 0.0 0.1 0:17.93 init 24564 root 15 0 5912 680 544 S 0.0 0.1 0:01.90 syslogd 11618 root 18 0 46748 548 160 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 saslauthd Here's my php-fpm config: [global] pid = run/php-fpm.pid error_log = log/php-fpm.log log_level = notice [www] listen = 127.0.0.1:9000 user = www-data group = www-data pm = dynamic pm.max_children = 50 pm.start_servers = 3 pm.min_spare_servers = 3 pm.max_spare_servers = 10 pm.max_requests = 500 Sometimes it goes up to 400MB. And I'm planning to add a new website on my VPS. Is this normal?

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  • Using FFMPEG to reliably convert videos to mp4 for iphone/ipod and flash players

    - by Jake Stevenson
    I need to convert videos for use in both a flash player and the iphone/ipod touch. I'm using the following batch script with ffmpeg: @echo off ffmpeg.exe -i %1 -s qvga -acodec libfaac -ar 22050 -ab 128k -vcodec libx264 -threads 0 -f ipod %2 This always outputs an mp4 file, and I can always play it on my PC. The videos also seem to play fine on my iphone 3GS. But with some input files it won't work for older iphone versions (3G and iPod touch). Here's the ffmpeg output from one such file: D:\ffmpeg>encode.bat d:\temp\recording.flv d:\temp\out.m4v FFmpeg version SVN-r18709, Copyright (c) 2000-2009 Fabrice Bellard, et al. configuration: --enable-memalign-hack --prefix=/mingw --cross-prefix=i686-ming w32- --cc=ccache-i686-mingw32-gcc --target-os=mingw32 --arch=i686 --cpu=i686 --e nable-avisynth --enable-gpl --enable-zlib --enable-bzlib --enable-libgsm --enabl e-libfaac --enable-libfaad --enable-pthreads --enable-libvorbis --enable-libtheo ra --enable-libspeex --enable-libmp3lame --enable-libopenjpeg --enable-libxvid - -enable-libschroedinger --enable-libx264 libavutil 50. 3. 0 / 50. 3. 0 libavcodec 52.27. 0 / 52.27. 0 libavformat 52.32. 0 / 52.32. 0 libavdevice 52. 2. 0 / 52. 2. 0 libswscale 0. 7. 1 / 0. 7. 1 built on Apr 28 2009 04:04:42, gcc: 4.2.4 [flv @ 0x187d650]skipping flv packet: type 18, size 164, flags 0 Input #0, flv, from 'd:\temp\recording.flv': Duration: 00:00:07.17, start: 0.001000, bitrate: N/A Stream #0.0: Video: flv, yuv420p, 320x240, 1k tbr, 1k tbn, 1k tbc Stream #0.1: Audio: nellymoser, 44100 Hz, mono, s16 [libx264 @ 0x13518b0]using cpu capabilities: MMX2 SSE2Fast SSSE3 FastShuffle SSE 4.2 [libx264 @ 0x13518b0]profile Baseline, level 4.2 Output #0, ipod, to 'd:\temp\out.m4v': Stream #0.0: Video: libx264, yuv420p, 320x240, q=2-31, 200 kb/s, 1k tbn, 1k tbc Stream #0.1: Audio: libfaac, 22050 Hz, mono, s16, 128 kb/s Stream mapping: Stream #0.0 -> #0.0 Stream #0.1 -> #0.1 Press [q] to stop encoding frame= 90 fps= 0 q=-1.0 Lsize= 128kB time=6.87 bitrate= 152.4kbits/s video:92kB audio:32kB global headers:1kB muxing overhead 2.620892% [libx264 @ 0x13518b0]slice I:8 Avg QP:29.62 size: 7047 [libx264 @ 0x13518b0]slice P:82 Avg QP:30.83 size: 467 [libx264 @ 0x13518b0]mb I I16..4: 17.9% 0.0% 82.1% [libx264 @ 0x13518b0]mb P I16..4: 0.6% 0.0% 0.0% P16..4: 23.1% 0.0% 0.0% 0.0% 0.0% skip:76.3% [libx264 @ 0x13518b0]final ratefactor: 57.50 [libx264 @ 0x13518b0]SSIM Mean Y:0.9544735 [libx264 @ 0x13518b0]kb/s:8412.6 My suspicion is that it has something to do with the audio encoding. If so, does anyone know how to force it to reencode the audio to the proper format? Any other ideas?

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  • When -exactly- does the Rails3 application get initialized?

    - by bergyman
    I've been fighting left and right with rails 3 and bundler. There are a few gems out there that don't work properly if the rails application hasn't been loaded yet. factory_girl and shoulda are both examples, even on the rails3 branch. Taking shoulda as an example, when trying to run rake test:units I get the following error: DEPRECATION WARNING: RAILS_ROOT is deprecated! Use Rails.root instead. (called from autoload_macros at c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:40) c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'join': can't convert #<Class:0x232b7c0> into String (TypeError) from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'block in autoload_macros' from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'map' from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'autoload_macros' from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/rails.rb:17:in '<top (required)>' Digging a bit deeper into lib/shoulda/rails, I see this: root = if defined?(Rails.root) && Rails.root Rails.root else RAILS_ROOT end # load in the 3rd party macros from vendorized plugins and gems Shoulda.autoload_macros root, File.join("vendor", "{plugins,gems}", "*") So...what's happening here is while Rails.root is defined, Rails.root == nil, so RAILS_ROOT is used, and RAILS_ROOT==nil, which is then being passed on to Shoulda.autoload_macros. Obviously the rails app has yet to be initialized. With Rails3 using Bundler now, there's been some hubub over on the Bundler side about being able to specify an order in which the gems are required, but I'm not sure whether or not this would solve the problem at hand. Ultimately my questions is this: When exactly does the environment.rb file (which actually initializes the application) get pulled in? Is there any harm to bumping up when the app is initialized and have it happen before the Bundler.require line in config/application.rb? I've tried to hack bundler to specify the order myself, and have the rails gem pulled in first, but it doesn't appear to me that requiring the rails gem actually initializes the application. As this line (in config/application.rb) is being called before the app is initialized, any gem in the bundler Gemfile that requires rails to be initialized is going to tank. # Auto-require default libraries and those for the current Rails environment. Bundler.require :default, Rails.env

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  • Semi-complex aggregate select statement confusion

    - by Ian Henry
    Alright, this problem is a little complicated, so bear with me. I have a table full of data. One of the table columns is an EntryDate. There can be multiple entries per day. However, I want to select all rows that are the latest entry on their respective days, and I want to select all the columns of said table. One of the columns is a unique identifier column, but it is not the primary key (I have no idea why it's there; this is a pretty old system). For purposes of demonstration, say the table looks like this: create table ExampleTable ( ID int identity(1,1) not null, PersonID int not null, StoreID int not null, Data1 int not null, Data2 int not null, EntryDate datetime not null ) The primary key is on PersonID and StoreID, which logically defines uniqueness. Now, like I said, I want to select all the rows that are the latest entries on that particular day (for each Person-Store combination). This is pretty easy: --Figure 1 select PersonID, StoreID, max(EntryDate) from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) Where dbo.dayof() is a simple function that strips the time component from a datetime. However, doing this loses the rest of the columns! I can't simply include the other columns, because then I'd have to group by them, which would produce the wrong results (especially since ID is unique). I have found a dirty hack that will do what I want, but there must be a better way -- here's my current solution: select cast(null as int) as ID, PersonID, StoreID, cast(null as int) as Data1, cast(null as int) as Data2, max(EntryDate) as EntryDate into #StagingTable from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) update Target set ID = Source.ID, Data1 = Source.Data1, Data2 = Source.Data2, from #StagingTable as Target inner join ExampleTable as Source on Source.PersonID = Target.PersonID and Source.StoreID = Target.StoreID and Source.EntryDate = Target.EntryDate This gets me the correct data in #StagingTable but, well, look at it! Creating a table with null values, then doing an update to get the values back -- surely there's a better way to do this? A single statement that will get me all the values the first time? It is my belief that the correct join on that original select (Figure 1) would do the trick, like a self-join or something... but how do you do that with the group by clause? I cannot find the right syntax to make the query execute. I am pretty new with SQL, so it's likely that I'm missing something obvious. Any suggestions? (Working in T-SQL, if it makes any difference)

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  • XmlReader throws on an RSS feed, when the RSS document includes an embedded <script> block.

    - by Cheeso
    The code: using (XmlReader xmlr = XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(allXml))) { var items = from item in SyndicationFeed.Load(xmlr).Items select item; } The exception: Exception: System.Xml.XmlException: Unexpected node type Element. ReadElementString method can only be called on elements with simple or empty content. Line 11, position 25. at System.Xml.XmlReader.ReadElementString() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadXml(XmlReader reader, SyndicationFeed result) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadFeed(XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadFrom(XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.SyndicationFeed.Load[TSyndicationFeed](XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.SyndicationFeed.Load(XmlReader reader) at Ionic.ToolsAndTests.ReadRss.Run() in c:\dev\dotnet\ReadRss.cs:line 90 The XML content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/roller-ui/styles/rss.xsl" media="screen"?><rss version="2.0" xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:atom="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" > <channel> <title>Software architecture, software engineering, and Renaissance Jazz</title> <link>https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/gradybooch</link> <atom:link rel="self" type="application/rss+xml" href="https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/gradybooch/feed/entries/rss?lang=en" /> <description>Software architecture, software engineering, and Renaissance Jazz</description> <language>en-us</language> <copyright>Copyright <script type='text/javascript'> document.write(blogsDate.date.localize (1273534889181));</script></copyright> <lastBuildDate>Mon, 10 May 2010 19:41:29 -0400</lastBuildDate> As you can see, on line 11, at position 25, there's a script block inside the <copyright> element. Other people have reported similar errors with other XML documents. The way I worked around this was to do a StreamReader.ReadToEnd, then do Regex.Replace on the result of that to yank out the script block, before passing the modified string to XmlReader.Create(). Feels like a hack. Has anyone got a better approach? I don't like this because I have to read in a 125k string into memory. Is it valid rss to include "complex content" like that - a script block inside an element? Thanks.

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  • jQueryUI autocomplete - when no results are returned

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I'm wondering how one can catch and add a custom handler when empty results are returned from the server when using jQueryUI autocomplete. There seem to be a few questions on this point related to the various jQuery plugins (e.g. jQuery autocomplete display “No data” error message when results empty), but I am wondering if there's a better/simpler way to achieve the same with the jQueryUI autocomplete. It seems to me this is a common use case, and I thought perhaps that jQueryUI had improved on the jQuery autocomplete by adding the ability to cleanly handle this situation. However I've not been able to find documentation of such functionality, and before I hack away at it I'd like to throw out some feelers in case others have seen this before. While probably not particularly influential, I can have the server return anything - e.g. HTTP 204: No Content to a 200/JSON empty list - whatever makes it easiest to catch the result in jQueryUI's autocomplete. My first thought is to pass a callback with two arguments, namely a request object and a response callback to handle the code, per the documentation: The third variation, the callback, provides the most flexibility, and can be used to connect any data source to Autocomplete. The callback gets two arguments: A request object, with a single property called "term", which refers to the value currently in the text input. For example, when the user entered "new yo" in a city field, the Autocomplete term will equal "new yo". A response callback, which expects a single argument to contain the data to suggest to the user. This data should be filtered based on the provided term, and can be in any of the formats described above for simple local data (String-Array or Object-Array with label/value/both properties). When the response callback receives no data, it inserts returns a special one-line object-array that has a label and an indicator that there's no data (so the select/focus recognize it as the indicator that no-data was returned). This seems overcomplicated. I'd prefer to be able to use a source: "http://...", and just have a callback somewhere indicating that no data was returned. Thank you for reading. Brian

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  • ISAPI filter with LDAP over SSL only works as administrator

    - by Zac
    I have created an ISAPI filter for IIS 6.0 that tries to authenticate against Active directory using LDAP. The filter works fine when authenticating regularly over port 389, but when I try to use SSL, I always get the 0x51 Server Down error at the ldap_connect() call. Even skipping the connect call and using ldap_simple_bind_s() results in the same error. The weird thing is that if I change the app pool identity to the local admin account, then the filter works fine and LDAP over SSL is successful. I created an exe with the same code below and ran it on the server as admin and it works. Using the default NETWORK SERVICE identity for the site's app pool is what seems to be the problem. Any thoughts as to what is happening? I want to use the default identity since I don't want the website to have elevated admin privileges. The server is in a DMZ outside the network and domain where our DCs are that run AD. We have a valid certificate on our DCs for AD as well. Code: // Initialize LDAP connection LDAP * ldap = ldap_sslinit(servers, LDAP_SSL_PORT, 1); ULONG version = LDAP_VERSION3; if (ldap == NULL) { strcpy(error_msg, ldap_err2string(LdapGetLastError())); valid_user = false; } else { // Set LDAP options ldap_set_option(ldap, LDAP_OPT_PROTOCOL_VERSION, (void *) &version); ldap_set_option(ldap, LDAP_OPT_SSL, LDAP_OPT_ON); // Make the connection ldap_response = ldap_connect(ldap, NULL); // <-- Error occurs here! // Bind and continue... } UPDATE: I created a new user without admin privileges and ran the test exe as the new user and I got the same Server Down error. I added the user to the Administrators group and got the same error as well. The only user that seems to work with LDAP over SSL authentication on this particular server is administrator. The web server with the ISAPI filter (and where I've been running the test exe) is running Windows Server 2003. The DCs with AD on them are running 2008 R2. Also worth mentioning, we have a WordPress site on the same server that authenticates against LDAP over SSL using PHP (OpenLDAP) and there's no problem there. I have an ldap.conf file that specifies TLS_REQCERT never and the user running the PHP code is IUSR.

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  • Is MVVM pointless?

    - by joebeazelman
    Is orthodox MVVM implementation pointless? I am creating a new application and I considered Windows Forms and WPF. I chose WPF because it's future-proof and offer lots of flexibility. There is less code and easier to make significant changes to your UI using XAML. Since the choice for WPF is obvious, I figured that I may as well go all the way by using MVVM as my application architecture since it offers blendability, separation concerns and unit testability. Theoretically, it seems beautiful like the holy grail of UI programming. This brief adventure; however, has turned into a real headache. As expected in practice, I’m finding that I’ve traded one problem for another. I tend to be an obsessive programmer in that I want to do things the right way so that I can get the right results and possibly become a better programmer. The MVVM pattern just flunked my test on productivity and has just turned into a big yucky hack! The clear case in point is adding support for a Modal dialog box. The correct way is to put up a dialog box and tie it to a view model. Getting this to work is difficult. In order to benefit from the MVVM pattern, you have to distribute code in several places throughout the layers of your application. You also have to use esoteric programming constructs like templates and lamba expressions. Stuff that makes you stare at the screen scratching your head. This makes maintenance and debugging a nightmare waiting to happen as I recently discovered. I had an about box working fine until I got an exception the second time I invoked it, saying that it couldn’t show the dialog box again once it is closed. I had to add an event handler for the close functionality to the dialog window, another one in the IDialogView implementation of it and finally another in the IDialogViewModel. I thought MVVM would save us from such extravagant hackery! There are several folks out there with competing solutions to this problem and they are all hacks and don’t provide a clean, easily reusable, elegant solution. Most of the MVVM toolkits gloss over dialogs and when they do address them, they are just alert boxes that don’t require custom interfaces or view models. I’m planning on giving up on the MVVM view pattern, at least its orthodox implementation of it. What do you think? Has it been worth the trouble for you if you had any? Am I just a incompetent programmer or does MVVM not what it's hyped up to be?

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  • Compress with Gzip or Deflate my CSS & JS files

    - by muhammad usman
    i ve a fashion website & using wordpress. I want to Compress or Gzip or Deflate my CSS & JS files. i have tried many codes with .htaccess to compress but not working. Would any body help me please? My phpinfo is http://deemasfashion.co.uk/1.php below are the codes i have tried not not working. Few of them might be same but there is a difference in the syntax. <ifModule mod_gzip.c> mod_gzip_on Yes mod_gzip_dechunk Yes mod_gzip_item_include file .(html?|txt|css|js|php|pl)$ mod_gzip_item_include handler ^cgi-script$ mod_gzip_item_include mime ^text/.* mod_gzip_item_include mime ^application/x-javascript.* mod_gzip_item_exclude mime ^image/.* mod_gzip_item_exclude rspheader ^Content-Encoding:.*gzip.* </ifModule> other code I have tried but not working... <files *.css> SetOutputFilter DEFLATE </files> <files *.js> SetOutputFilter DEFLATE </files> I have also tried this code as well but no success. <ifModule mod_gzip.c> mod_gzip_on Yes mod_gzip_dechunk Yes mod_gzip_item_include file \.(html?|txt|css|js|php|pl)$ mod_gzip_item_include handler ^cgi-script$ mod_gzip_item_include mime ^text/.* mod_gzip_item_include mime ^application/x-javascript.* mod_gzip_item_exclude mime ^image/.* mod_gzip_item_exclude rspheader ^Content-Encoding:.*gzip.* </ifModule> This code is also not working <FilesMatch "\.(html?|txt|css|js|php|pl)$"> SetOutputFilter DEFLATE </FilesMatch> Here is another code not working. <ifmodule mod_deflate.c> AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE text/text text/html text/plain text/xml text/css application/x- javascript application/javascript </ifmodule> Here is another code not working. <IFModule mod_deflate.c> <filesmatch "\.(js|css|html|jpg|png|php)$"> SetOutputFilter DEFLATE </filesmatch> </IFModule> Here is another code not working. <IfModule mod_deflate.c> AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE text/html text/plain text/xml text/css application/x-javascript text/javascript application/javascript application/json <FilesMatch "\.(css|js)$" > SetOutputFilter DEFLATE </FilesMatch> </IfModule> Here is another code not working. #Gzip - compress text, html, javascript, css, xml <ifmodule mod_deflate.c> AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE text/plain AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE text/html AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE text/xml AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE text/css AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE application/xml AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE application/xhtml+xml AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE application/rss+xml AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE application/javascript AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE application/x-javascript </ifmodule> #End Gzip Here is another code not working. <Location /> SetOutputFilter DEFLATE SetEnvIfNoCase Request_URI \.(?:gif|jpe?g|png)$ no-gzip dont-vary SetEnvIfNoCase Request_URI \.(?:exe|t?gz|zip|gz2|sit|rar)$ no-gzip dont-vary </Location>

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  • Enable real fixed positioning on Samsung Android browsers

    - by Mr. Shiny and New ??
    The Android browser, since 2.2, supports fixed positioning, at least under certain circumstances such as when scaling is turned off. I have a simple HTML file with no JS, but the fixed positioning on three Samsung phones I've tried is simply wrong. Instead of true fixed positioning, the header scrolls out of view then pops back into place after the scrolling is done. This doesn't happen on the Android SDK emulator for any configuration I've tested (2.2, 2.3, 2.3 x86, 4.0.4). It also doesn't happen when using the WebView in an app on the Samsung phones: in those cases the positioning works as expected. Is there a way to make the Samsung Android "stock" browser use real fixed positioning? I've tested: 1. Samsung Galaxy 551, Android 2.2 2. Samsung Galaxy S, Android 2.3 3. Samsung Galaxy S II, Android 2.3 Sample code: <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=1.0,user-scalable=no,width=device-width,height=device-height"> <style> h1 { position: fixed; top: 0; left: 0; height: 32px; background-color: #CDCDCD; color: black; font-size: 32px; line-height: 32px; padding: 2px; width: 100%; margin: 0;} p { margin-top: 36px; } </style> </head> <body> <h1>Header</h1> <p>Long text goes here</p> </body> </html> The expected behaviour is that the grey header fills the top of the screen and stays put no matter how much you scroll. On Samsung Android browsers it seems to scroll out of view then pop back into place once the scrolling is done, as if the fixed-positioning is being simulated using Javascript, which it isn't. Edit Judging by the comments and "answers" it seems that maybe I wasn't clear on what I need. I am looking for a meta tag or css rule/hack or javascript toggle which turns off Samsung's broken fixed-positioning and turns on the Android browser's working fixed-positioning. I am not looking for a Javascript solution that adds broken fixed-positioning to a browser that has no support whatsoever; the Samsung fixed-positioning does that already, it just looks stupid.

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  • How to redirect http requests to http (nginx)

    - by spuder
    There appear to be many questions and guides out there that instruct how to setup nginx to redirect http requests to https. Many are outdated, or just flat out wrong. server { listen *:80; server_name <%= @fqdn %>; #root /nowhere; #rewrite ^ https://$server_name$request_uri? permanent; #rewrite ^ https://$server_name$request_uri permanent; #return 301 https://$server_name$request_uri; #return 301 http://$server_name$request_uri; #return 301 http://192.168.33.10$request_uri; return 301 http://$host$request_uri; } server { listen *:443 ssl default_server; server_name <%= @fqdn %>; server_tokens off; root <%= @git_home %>/gitlab/public; ssl on; ssl_certificate <%= @gitlab_ssl_cert %>; ssl_certificate_key <%= @gitlab_ssl_key %>; ssl_protocols SSLv3 TLSv1 TLSv1.1 TLSv1.2; ssl_ciphers AES:HIGH:!ADH:!MDF; ssl_prefer_server_ciphers on; location / { # serve static files from defined root folder;. # @gitlab is a named location for the upstream fallback, see below try_files $uri $uri/index.html $uri.html @gitlab; } # if a file, which is not found in the root folder is requested, # then the proxy pass the request to the upsteam (gitlab puma) location @gitlab { proxy_read_timeout 300; # https://github.com/gitlabhq/gitlabhq/issues/694 proxy_connect_timeout 300; # https://github.com/gitlabhq/gitlabhq/issues/694 proxy_redirect off; ect.... I've restarted after every configuration change, and yet I still only get the 'Welcome to nginx' page when visiting http://192.168.33.10. whereas https://192.168.33.10 works perfectly. Why will nginx still not redirect http requests to https? tailf /var/log/nginx/access.log 192.168.33.1 - - [22/Oct/2013:03:41:39 +0000] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 304 0 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; Intel Mac OS X 10.8; rv:24.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/24.0" 192.168.33.1 - - [22/Oct/2013:03:44:43 +0000] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 200 133 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; Intel Mac OS X 10.8; rv:24.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/24.0" tailf /var/log/nginx/gitlab_error.lob 2013/10/22 02:29:14 [crit] 27226#0: *1 connect() to unix:/home/git/gitlab/tmp/sockets/gitlab.socket failed (2: No such file or directory) while connecting to upstream, client: 192.168.33.1, server: gitlab.localdomain, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", upstream: "http://unix:/home/git/gitlab/tmp/sockets/gitlab.socket:/", host: "192.168.33.10" Resources http://wiki.nginx.org/Pitfalls How to make nginx redirect How to force or redirect to SSL in nginx? nginx ssl redirect Nginx & Https Redirection https://www.tinywp.in/301-redirect-wordpress/ How to force or redirect to SSL in nginx?

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  • How to show server errors in Rails 2.3.5 with JSON and jQuery

    - by Fortuity
    I've got in-place editing on a page in my app (using Rails 2.3.5 and jQuery). I want to know how to display an error on the page when the update fails. I'm using ajax (an XMLHttpRequest) to save an update to a Comment object. The controller has an update method like this: def update @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| # if @comment.update_attributes!(params[:comment]) if false #deliberately forcing a fail here to see what happens format.json { render :nothing => true } else format.json { render :json => @comment.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end In Firebug, I can see the server returns a "422" (an appropriate validation error status code). But it's a response to an XMLHttpRequest so there is no redirect to an error page. I think I actually want to do this: format.json { render :json => @comment.errors} or maybe this: format.json {render :json => { :status => :error, :message => "Could not be saved" }.to_json, :status => 400 } and trigger some Javascript function that iterates through (and displays) any errors. I'm using a rails plugin http://github.com/janv/rest_in_place/ to implement the in-place editing. It doesn't appear to have any callback function to handle a failure. What are my options? Can I write some Javascript to respond to a failure condition without hacking the plugin? Do I have to hack the rest_in_place plugin to handle a failure condition? Is there a better plugin (for Rails or jQuery) that handles in-place editing, including failure conditions? UPDATE This post from Peter Bui (http://paydrotalks.com/posts/45-standard-json-response-for-rails-and-jquery) was helpful in showing how to handle an error message from the server using XMLHttpRequest.status. I looked at his implementation of a blog using ajax (http://github.com/paydro/talks). I'm surprised at the complexity required to handle a simple error condition. Usually Rails has all the goodness baked in but it seems server errors with JSON are out of scope. Can that be? I also looked at grimen's validatious-on-rails (http://github.com/grimen/validatious-on-rails/) which accommodates models validations when ajax XMLHttpRequest is used. It's not clear to me how I'd use it to handle the general case of a "save" failing when validations succeed. P.S. Please vote me up... so I can use more than one HTML link when I ask my question :-)

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  • VSTS test deployment and invalid assembly culture

    - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham
    I have a DLL that I'm testing, which links to a DLL that has what I think is an invalid value for AssemblyCulture. The value is "Neutral" (notice the upper-case "N"), whereas the DLL I'm testing, and every other DLL in my project, has a value of "neutral" (because they specify AssemblyCulture("")). When I try to deploy the DLL that links to the problem DLL, I get this error in VSTS: Failed to queue test run '...': Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. <Exception>System.Globalization.CultureNotFoundException: Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name, Boolean useUserOverride) at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(RuntimeAssembly assembly) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.ProcessChildren(Assembly assembly) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadStrategy.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyHelper.GetDependentAssemblies(String path, DependentAssemblyOptions options, String configFile) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.GetDependencies(String master, String configFile, TestRunConfiguration runConfig, DeploymentItemOrigin dependencyOrigin, List`1 dependencyDeploymentItems, Dictionary`2 missingDependentAssemblies) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.DoDeployment(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupTestRun(TestRun run, Boolean isNewTestRun, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupRunAndListener(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker(Object state)</Exception> Even if I don't link to the DLL (in my VSTS wrapper test, or in the NUnit test), as soon as I add it in my GenericTest file (I'm wrapping NUnit tests), I get that exception. We don't have the source for the problem DLL, and it is also code signed, so I can't solve this by recompiling. Is there a way to skip deploying the dependencies of a DLL DeploymentItem, to fix or disable the culture check, or to work around this by convoluted means (maybe somehow embed the assembly)? Is there a way to override the value for the culture, short of hacking the DLL (and removing code signing so the hack works)? Maybe with an external manifest? Any correct solution must work without weird changes to production code. We can't deploy a hacked DLL, for example. It also must allow the DLL to be instrumented for code coverage. Additional note: I do get a linker warning when compiling the DLL under test that links to the problem DLL, but this hasn't broken anything but VSTS, and multiple versions have shipped.

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  • Soon to be PhD in Computer Science - Which Path to Follow?

    - by mttr
    I am going to submit my PhD thesis within the next six months. My PhD is on managing the availabiity of large-scale distributed systems, so I have some experience actually building non-trivial systems (+ I have four years experience working as a programmer). I am now trying to figure out what I should do following the PhD. I enjoy research (a quick definition: identify problem, come up with solution, ask interesting questions, find ways to answer them, build system, experiment, contribute some new knowledge and publish). I also like teaching and supervising students. It would seem that a career in academia is the ideal thing to do (can work on non-trivial problems and contribute something of use to some or more people). However, a career in academia has two significant drawbacks. First, it can be difficult to gain access to real systems with real users which then display real problems. This creates the danger that you do work that seems important (to you and maybe to some of your colleagues), but is not really relevant to anything or anyone. Second, the pay is pretty sad. Apparently, you have to sacrifice this for the privilege of doing research. I enjoy programming, but don't just want to hack some web-based system for the rest of my life. That is, working in IT for a bank is not a future I see myself enjoying. I want to work on interesting problms (that's difficult to define clearly): things where you don't know how to start, that take some time to figure out and attack, that require a rigorous approach to demonstrate that the problem has been solved, and problems that need a solution in the real world. Give the experience of people on stackoverflow, what do you think suitable options are and why (or alternatively, what gaps in my thinking does the above reveal)? Is industrial research (aka IBM Research, Microsoft Research) the only alternative avenue to a career in academia? What other areas, companies, occupations, etc. could provide me with stimulating, inspiring work? Which regions, countries am I most likely to find such work? Please share your experience.

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  • PyGTK: dynamic label wrapping

    - by detly
    It's a known bug/issue that a label in GTK will not dynamically resize when the parent changes. It's one of those really annoying small details, and I want to hack around it if possible. I followed the approach at 16 software, but as per the disclaimer you cannot then resize it smaller. So I attempted a trick mentioned in one of the comments (the set_size_request call in the signal callback), but this results in some sort of infinite loop (try it and see). Does anyone have any other ideas? (You can't block the signal just for the duration of the call, since as the print statements seem to indicate, the problem starts after the function is left.) The code is below. You can see what I mean if you run it and try to resize the window larger and then smaller. (If you want to see the original problem, comment out the line after "Connect to the size-allocate signal", run it, and resize the window bigger.) The Glade file ("example.glade"): <?xml version="1.0"?> <glade-interface> <!-- interface-requires gtk+ 2.16 --> <!-- interface-naming-policy project-wide --> <widget class="GtkWindow" id="window1"> <property name="visible">True</property> <signal name="destroy" handler="on_destroy"/> <child> <widget class="GtkLabel" id="label1"> <property name="visible">True</property> <property name="label" translatable="yes">In publishing and graphic design, lorem ipsum[p][1][2] is the name given to commonly used placeholder text (filler text) to demonstrate the graphic elements of a document or visual presentation, such as font, typography, and layout. The lorem ipsum text, which is typically a nonsensical list of semi-Latin words, is a hacked version of a Latin text by Cicero, with words/letters omitted and others inserted, but not proper Latin[1][2] (see below: History and discovery). The closest English translation would be "pain itself" (dolorem = pain, grief, misery, suffering; ipsum = itself).</property> <property name="wrap">True</property> </widget> </child> </widget> </glade-interface> The Python code: #!/usr/bin/python import pygtk import gobject import gtk.glade def wrapped_label_hack(gtklabel, allocation): print "In wrapped_label_hack" gtklabel.set_size_request(allocation.width, -1) # If you uncomment this, we get INFINITE LOOPING! # gtklabel.set_size_request(-1, -1) print "Leaving wrapped_label_hack" class ExampleGTK: def __init__(self, filename): self.tree = gtk.glade.XML(filename, "window1", "Example") self.id = "window1" self.tree.signal_autoconnect(self) # Connect to the size-allocate signal self.get_widget("label1").connect("size-allocate", wrapped_label_hack) def on_destroy(self, widget): self.close() def get_widget(self, id): return self.tree.get_widget(id) def close(self): window = self.get_widget(self.id) if window is not None: window.destroy() gtk.main_quit() if __name__ == "__main__": window = ExampleGTK("example.glade") gtk.main()

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  • Web Site Serving, Cloud-Computing, oh, my

    - by Frank
    I'm planning a software based service. To give it a bit of context (type of traffic), assume it similar to facebook in nature (with a little GitHub thrown in). I've been trying to understand my different hosting options. I've been using a shared host with GoDaddy for years just fine. I currently host a Wordpress web site there and I've not had any problems. Quite frankly, they've taken good care of me. However, the nature of a shared hosting environment is limited in nature. For example, I can't do anything but host a web site there. For example, I can not run a Mercurial server. Last time I attempted to build a web application with the intention of eventually launching it via GoDaddy, I ran in to all sorts of troubles because it was shared-hosted. Assembly issues, etc. At the time, the cost and time sank my project. (The lack of direct access was also frustrating.) (to be fair to godaddy, this was over 3 years ago) I've been looking at Rackspace or Amazon as a possible cloud solution but it seems to be just processing power and bandwidth (and an OS). From what I understand, I'd need to get Apache and MySQL Working on my own. The way cloud hosting is priced, however, seems appealing. I figure my final option might be to use a virtual private host. I think this would be more flexible than a shared-host site but less scalable than a cloud based server. So, I guess my question is what is an appropriate solution for someone who intends to build a web application service? I figure that I need to establish a hosting environment now rather than later so I can plan to effectively use the environment. I'd prefer to be fairly economical to start out with. I really can't afford to pay $999 (or even $99) while I build up the site and get the core functionality online but at the same time, I'd like to have the selected environment grow as needed. Thank you.

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  • Django : presenting a form very different from the model and with multiple field values in a Django-

    - by sebpiq
    Hi ! I'm currently doing a firewall management application for Django, here's the (simplified) model : class Port(models.Model): number = models.PositiveIntegerField(primary_key=True) application = models.CharField(max_length=16, blank=True) class Rule(models.Model): port = models.ForeignKey(Port) ip_source = models.IPAddressField() ip_mask = models.IntegerField(validators=[MaxValueValidator(32)]) machine = models.ForeignKey("vmm.machine") What I would like to do, however, is to display to the user a form for entering rules, but with a very different organization than the model : Port 80 O Not open O Everywhere O Specific addresses : --------- delete field --------- delete field + add address field Port 443 ... etc Where Not open means that there is no rule for the given port, Everywhere means that there is only ONE rule (0.0.0.0/0) for the given port, and with specific addresses, you can add as many addresses as you want (I did this with JQuery), which will make as many rules. Now I did a version completely "handmade", meaning that I create the forms entirely in my templates, set input names with a prefix, and parse all the POSTed stuff in my view (which is quite painful, and means that there's no point in using a web framework). I also have a class which aggregates the rules together to easily pre-fill the forms with the informations "not open, everywhere, ...". I'm passing a list of those to the template, therefore it acts as an interface between my model and my "handmade" form : class MachinePort(object): def __init__(self, machine, port): self.machine = machine self.port = port @property def fully_open(self): for rule in self.port.rule_set.filter(machine=self.machine): if ipaddr.IPv4Network("%s/%s" % (rule.ip_source, rule.ip_mask)) == ipaddr.IPv4Network("0.0.0.0/0"): return True else : return False @property def partly_open(self): return bool(self.port.rule_set.filter(machine=self.machine)) and not self.fully_open @property def not_open(self): return not self.partly_open and not self.fully_open But all this is rather ugly ! Do anyone of you know if there is a classy way to do this ? In particular with the form... I don't know how to have a form that can have an undefined number of fields, neither how to transform these fields into Rule objects (because all the rule fields would have to be gathered from the form), neither how to save multiple objects... Well I could try to hack into the Form class, but seems like too much work for such a special case. Is there any nice feature I'm missing ?

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  • Robust LINQ to XML query for sibling key-value pairs

    - by awshepard
    (First post, please be gentle!) I am just learning about LINQ to XML in all its glory and frailty, trying to hack it to do what I want to do: Given an XML file like this - <list> <!-- random data, keys, values, etc.--> <key>FIRST_WANTED_KEY</key> <value>FIRST_WANTED_VALUE</value> <key>SECOND_WANTED_KEY</key> <value>SECOND_WANTED_VALUE</value> <!-- wanted because it's first --> <key>SECOND_WANTED_KEY</key> <value>UNWANTED_VALUE</value> <!-- not wanted because it's second --> <!-- nonexistent <key>THIRD_WANTED_KEY</key> --> <!-- nonexistent <value>THIRD_WANTED_VALUE</value> --> <!-- more stuff--> </list> I want to extract the values of a set of known "wanted keys" in a robust fashion, i.e. if SECOND_WANTED_KEY appears twice, I only want SECOND_WANTED_VALUE, not UNWANTED_VALUE. Additionally, THIRD_WANTED_KEY may or may not appear, so the query should be able to handle that as well. I can assume that FIRST_WANTED_KEY will appear before other keys, but can't assume anything about the order of the other keys - if a key appears twice, its values aren't important, I only want the first one. An anonymous data type consisting of strings is fine. My attempt has centered around something along these lines: var z = from y in x.Descendants() where y.Value == "FIRST_WANTED_KEY" select new { first_wanted_value = ((XElement)y.NextNode).Value, //... } My question is what should that ... be? I've tried, for instance, (ugly, I know) second_wanted_value = ((XElement)y.ElementsAfterSelf() .Where(w => w.Value=="SECOND_WANTED_KEY") .FirstOrDefault().NextNode).Value which should hopefully allow the key to be anywhere, or non-existent, but that hasn't worked out, since .NextNode on a null XElement doesn't seem to work. I've also tried to add in a .Select(t => { if (t==null) return new XElement("SECOND_WANTED_KEY",""); else return t; }) clause in after the where, but that hasn't worked either. I'm open to suggestions, (constructive) criticism, links, references, or suggestions of phrases to Google for, etc. I've done a fair share of Googling and checking around S.O., so any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Have problems designing input and output for a calculator app

    - by zoul
    Hello! I am writing a button calculator. I have the code split into model, view and a controller. The model knows nothing about formatting, it is only concerned with numbers. All formatting is done in the view. The model gets its input as keypresses, each keypress is a part of an enum: typedef enum { kButtonUnknown = 0, kButtonMemoryClear = 100, kButtonMemoryPlus = 112, kButtonMemoryMinus = 109, kButtonMemoryRecall = 114, kButtonClear = 99, … }; When the user presses a button (say 1), the model receives a button code (kButtonNum1), adds the corresponding number to a string input buffer ("1") and updates the numeric output value (1.0). The controller then passes the numeric output value to the view that formats it (1). This is all plain, simple and clean, but does not really work. The problem is that when user enters a part of a number (say 0.00, going to enter 0.001), the input does not survive the way through model to view and the display says 0 instead of 0.00. I know why this happens ("0.00"::string parses to 0::double and that gets formatted as 0). What I don’t know is how to design the calculator so that the code stays clean and simple and the numbers will show up on screen exactly as the user types them. I’ve already come with some kind of solution, but that’s essentially a hack and breaks the beautiful and simple flow from the calculator model to the display. Ideas? Current solution keeps track of the calculator state. If the calculator is building a number, I take the calculator input buffer (a string) and directly set the display contents (also a string). Otherwise I take the proper path, ie. take the numeric calculator output, pass it to the view as a double and the view uses its internal formatter to create a string for the display. Example input: input | display | mode ------+---------+------------ 0 | 0 | from string 0. | 0. | from string 0.0 | 0.0 | from string 0.0+ | 0 | from number This is ugly. (1) The calculator has to expose its input buffer and state. (2) The view has to expose its display and allow setting its contents directly using a string. (3) I have to duplicate some of the formatting code to format the string I got from the calculator input buffer. If user enters 12345.000, I have to display 12,345.000 and therefore I’ve got to have a commification code for strings. Yuck.

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  • Translating itunes affiliate rss via xslt

    - by jd
    I can't get this working for the life of me. Here is a snippet of the xml I get from an RSS feed from itunes affiliate. I want top print the values within tags but I cannot for some reason: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <feed xmlns:im="http://itunes.apple.com/rss" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" xml:lang="en"> <id>http://ax.itunes.apple.com/WebObjects/MZStoreServices.woa/ws/RSS/toppaidapplications/sf=143441/limit=100/genre=6014/xml</id><title>iTunes Store: Top Paid Applications</title><updated>2010-03-24T15:36:42-07:00</updated><link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://itunes.apple.com/WebObjects/MZStore.woa/wa/viewTop?id=25180&amp;popId=30"/><link rel="self" href="http://ax.itunes.apple.com/WebObjects/MZStoreServices.woa/ws/RSS/toppaidapplications/sf=143441/limit=100/genre=6014/xml"/><icon>http://phobos.apple.com/favicon.ico</icon><author><name>iTunes Store</name><uri>http://www.apple.com/itunes/</uri></author><rights>Copyright 2008 Apple Inc.</rights> <entry> <updated>date</updated> <id>someID</id> <title>a</title> <im:name>b</im:name> </entry> <entry> <updated>date2/updated> <id>someID2</id> <title>a2</title> <im:name>b2</im:name> </entry> </feed> If I try <xsl:apply-templates match="entry"/> it spits out the entire contents of file. If I use <xsl:call-template name="entry"> it will show only one entry and I have to use <xsl:value-of select="//*[local-name(.)='name']"/> to get name but that's a hack. I've used xslt before for xml without namespaces and xml that has proper parent child relationships but not like this RSS feed. Notice entry is not wrapped in entries or anything. Any help is appreciated. I want to use xslt because I want to alter the itunes link to go through my affiliate account - so something automated wouldn't work for me.

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  • Using XSLT, how do I separate nodes based on their value?

    - by Will Goring
    I have a pretty flat XML structure that I need to reorder into categorised sections and, for the life of me, I can't figure out how to do it in XSLT (not that I'm by any means an expert.) Basically, the original XML looks kinda like: <things> <thing> <value>one</value> <type>a</type> </thing> <thing> <value>two</value> <type>b</type> </thing> <thing> <value>thee</value> <type>b</type> </thing> <thing> <value>four</value> <type>a</type> </thing> <thing> <value>five</value> <type>d</type> </thing> </things> And I need to output something like: <data> <a-things> <a>one</a> <a>four</a> </a-things> <b-things> <b>two</b> <b>three</b> </b-things> <d-things> <d>five</d> </d-things> </data> Note that I can't output <c-things> if there aren't any <c> elements, but I do know ahead of time what the complete list of types is, and it's fairly short so handcoding templates for each type is definitely possible. It feels like I could probably hack something together using <xsl:if> and <xsl:for-each> but it also feels like there must be a more ... 'templatey' way to do it. Can anyone help? Cheers.

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