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  • Error while updating Database record with Entity Framework on ASP.NET MVC Page

    - by Rupa
    Hi I have an ASP.NET Page that updates registered User Address Details for a selected record. Below is the Update method that i am calling from Controller. When i am calling ApplyPropertyChanges method, I am getting the below error. Did anyone run into the same error while updating the record with Entity Framework. Appreciate your responses. Error Message: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. My Update Method Code: [HttpPost] public bool UpdateAddressDetail([Bind(Prefix = "RegUser")] AddressDetail regUserAddress, FormCollection formData) { regUserAddress.AD_Id = 3; regUserAddress.LastUpdated = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; regUserAddress.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; regUserAddress.AddressType = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "Primary"; regUserAddress.Phone = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).Phone; regUserAddress.Country = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "USA"; miEntity.ApplyPropertyChanges(regUserAddress.EntityKey.EntitySetName, regUserAddress); miEntity.SaveChanges(); return true; }

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  • Reading Code - helpful visualizers and browser tools

    - by wishi_
    Hi! I find myself reading 10 times more code than writing. My IDEs all are optimized to make me edit code - with completion, code assist, outlines etc. However if I'm checking out a completely new project: getting into the application's logics isn't optimized with these IDE features. Because I cannot extend what I don't fully understand. If you for example check out a relatively new project, frama-c, you realize that it has got plugins that are helpful to gain insight into "unfamiliar code": http://frama-c.com/plugins.html - However of course the project has a different scope. What I'm fully aware of. I'm looking for something that does helpful things for code-reading. Like: providing a graph, - reverse engineering UML e g., showing variable scopes showing which parts are affected by attempted modifications visualizing data-flow semantics showing tag-lists of heavily utilized functions ... My hope is that something like that exists. - That there're some Eclipse plugins I don't know or that there's a code-browser that has some of these features?

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  • Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

    - by mannish
    So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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  • Java Client .class File Protection

    - by Zac
    I am in the requirements phase of building a JEE application that will most likely run on a GlassFish/JBoss backend (doesn't matter for now). I know I shouldn't be thinking about architecture at requirements time, but one can't help but start to imagine how the components would all snap together :-) Here are some hard, non-flexible requirements on the client-side: (1) The client application will be a Swing box (2) The client is free to download, but will use a subscription model (thus requiring a login mechanism with server-side authentication/authorization, etc.) (3) Yes, Java is the best platform solution for the problem at hand for reasons outside the scope of this post (4) The client-side .class files need safeguarding against decompiling That last (4th) requirement is the basis of this post. I'm not really worried about someone actually decompiling and getting at my source code: in the end, it's just Swing controls driven by some lightweight business logic. I'm worried about a scenario where someone decompiles my code, modifies it to exploit/attack the server, re-compiles, and fires it up. I've envisioned all sorts of nasty solutions, but didn't know if this was a common problem with a common solution for JEE developers. Any thoughts? Not interested in "code obfuscation" techniques! Thanks for any input!

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  • Value objects in DDD - Why immutable?

    - by Hobbes
    I don't get why value objects in DDD should be immutable, nor do I see how this is easily done. (I'm focusing on C# and Entity Framework, if that matters.) For example, let's consider the classic Address value object. If you needed to change "123 Main St" to "123 Main Street", why should I need to construct a whole new object instead of saying myCustomer.Address.AddressLine1 = "123 Main Street"? (Even if Entity Framework supported structs, this would still be a problem, wouldn't it?) I understand (I think) the idea that value objects don't have an identity and are part of a domain object, but can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing? EDIT: My final question here really should be "Can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing as applied to Value Objects?" Sorry for the confusion! EDIT: To clairfy, I am not asking about CLR value types (vs reference types). I'm asking about the higher level DDD concept of Value Objects. For example, here is a hack-ish way to implement immutable value types for Entity Framework: http://rogeralsing.com/2009/05/21/entity-framework-4-immutable-value-objects. Basically, he just makes all setters private. Why go through the trouble of doing this?

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  • Not showing error when calling another function in Spring

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a controller with 2 methods. The first one just add some lists to the model (the lists of my comboboxes) and return a JSP with a form. The second one validates the data and if there aren't errors it saves the data. The code looks like this: public String showForm(Model model){ //load some data into some lists return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } public String save(@Valid @ModelAttribute("MyData") Data data, BindingResult result, Model model){ if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages //(but I need to reload the combobox lists) return showForm(model); } //save data } The problem is that in this way I don't see the error messages in the form (though I see by the debugger that it has found errors). I've thought that the problem comes because the showForm method doesn't have the error messages because it can't see the BindingResult, so I've added BindingResult as a parameter of showForm method, but it still doesn't work. I've added My Model Attribute as well but I get the same problem. If I just return the JSP file in the save method I can see the errors, but in this way I would need to add again in this other method the lists I had already added in the showForm (duplicated code). I can't save the data in session scope so it's compulsory to get again the lists after getting the error. if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } Why are errors not shown when I call a function to display my JSP different from the one I used for the validation? What's the best way to do this? Thanks.

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  • Adding a minimum display time for Silverlight splash screen.

    - by David
    When hosting a silverlight application on a webpage it is possible to use the splashscreensource parameter to specify a simple Silverlight 1.0 (xaml+javascript) control to be displayed while the real xap file is downloaded, and which can receive notification of the downloads progress through onSourceDownloadProgressChanged. If the xap file is in cache, the splash screen is not shown (and if the download only takes 1 second, the splash screen will only be shown for 1 second). I know this is not best practice in general, but I am looking for a way to specify a minimum display time for the splash screen - even if the xap cached or the download is fast, the splash screen would remain up for at least, let's say, 5 seconds (for example to show a required legal disclaimer, corporate identity mark or other bug). I do want to do it in the splash screen exclusively (rather then in the main xap) as I want it to be clean and uninterupted (for example a sound bug) and shown to the user as soon as they open the page, rather then after the download (which could take anywhere from 1 to 20+ seconds). I'd prefer not to accomplish this with preloading - replacing the splash screen with a full Silverlight xap application (with it's own loading screen), which then programmably loads and displays the full xap after a minimum wait time.

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  • Rails does not display error messages on a form in a custom method

    - by slythic
    Hi all, I've created a custom method called checkout in my app. I create an order (which is done my adding products to my "cart"), assign it to my client, and then I head to my checkout screen where I confirm the items and enter their customer order number and complete the order (submit). Everything works great except that it doesn't display error messages. I'm able to display a flash error notice (seen in complete_order method) when things go wrong but it doesn't specify the details like a normal form would. The error messages should appear if the customer order number is not unique for that client. Below is the custom method (checkout) related code. Order Model: validates_uniqueness_of :customer_order_number, :scope => :client_id Orders_controller: def checkout @order = current_order end def complete_order @order = current_order respond_to do |format| if @order.update_attributes(params[:order]) @order.complete #sets submitted datetime and state to 'complete' flash[:notice] = 'Thank you! Your order is being processed.' format.html { redirect_to( products_path ) } format.xml { head :ok } else flash[:error] = 'Please review your items' #added to confirm an error is present format.html { redirect_to( checkout_path ) } format.xml { render :xml => @order.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end And the form in the checkout view: <% form_for @order, :url => { :controller => "orders", :action => "complete_order" } do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= f.text_field :customer_order_number, :label => "Purchase Order Number" %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Complete Order', :confirm => 'Are you sure?' %> <small> or <%= link_to 'cancel', current_cart_path %></small> </p> <% end %> Any idea how I can display the specific error messages? Thank you in advance! -Tony

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  • COM-Objects containing maps / content error(0)

    - by Florian Berzsenyi
    I'm writing a small wrapper to get familiar with some important topics in C++ (WinAPI, COM, STL,OOP). For now, my class shall be able to create a (child) window. Mainly, this window is connected to a global message loop that distribute messages to a local loop of the right instance (global is static, local is virtual). Obviously, there are surely better ways to do that but I'm using std::maps to store HWND and their instance pointer in pairs (the Global loop looks for the pointer with the HWND-parameter, gets itself the pointer from the map and calls then the local loop). Now, it appears that the map does not accept any values because of a unknown reason. It seems to allocate enough space but something went wrong anyway [ (error) 0 is displayed instead of the entries in visual C++). I've looked that up in google as well and found out that maps cause some trouble when used in classes AND DLLs. May this be the reason and is there any solution?? Protected scope of class: static std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> m_LoopBuf Implementation in .cpp-file: std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> HWindow::m_LoopBuf;

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  • Pass ng-model and place-holder value into directive

    - by Zen
    I have a segment of code needs to be reuse a lot, there for I want to just create a directive for it. <div class="btn-group"> <div class="input-group"> <div class="has-feedback"> <input type="text" class="form-control" placeholder="BLAH BLAH" ng-model="model"> <span class="times form-control-feedback" ng-click="model=''" ng-show="model.length > 0"></span> </div> </div> </div> I want to use this code as template in directive. Create a directive used as follow: <div search-Field ng-model="model" placeholder="STRING"></div> to replace to old html, ng-model and placeholder will be as variables. angular.module('searchField', []) .directive('searchField', [function () { return { scope: { placeholder: '@', ngModel: '=' }, templateUrl: 'Partials/_SearchInputGroup.html' } }]); Is it the way of doing it?

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  • Get email address from OpenID provider (Janrain openid library)

    - by Moak
    When signing in to stackoverflow with google I get this message Stackoverflow.com is asking for some information from your Google Account [email protected] • Email address: [email protected] However on my site I can log in with openid but I can't ask for the email address. I get this message You are signing in to example.com with your Google Account [email protected] Also I'm finding it hard to know at what step I need to ask for it, here's some code where I think that step should be built into. /** * Authenticates the given OpenId identity. * Defined by Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface. * * @throws Zend_Auth_Adapter_Exception If answering the authentication query is impossible * @return Zend_Auth_Result */ public function authenticate() { $id = $this->_id; $consumer = new Auth_OpenID_Consumer($this->_storage); if (!empty($id)) { $authRequest = $consumer->begin($id); if (is_null($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", 'Unknown error')); } if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", "Could not redirect to server: " . $authRequest->message)); } $redirectUrl = $authRequest->redirectUrl($this->_root, $this->_returnTo); if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($redirectUrl)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", $redirectUrl->message)); } Zend_OpenId::redirect($redirectUrl); } else { $response = $consumer->complete(Zend_OpenId::selfUrl()); switch($response->status) { case Auth_OpenID_CANCEL: case Auth_OpenID_FAILURE: return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, null, array("Authentication failed. " . @$response->message)); break; case Auth_OpenID_SUCCESS: return $this->_constructSuccessfulResult($response); break; } } } It seems like such an obvious thing but I'm having a hard time googling and combing through the code just to find this. Thanks!

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  • Email function using templates. Includes via ob_start and global vars

    - by Geo
    I have a simple Email() class. It's used to send out emails from my website. <? Email::send($to, $subj, $msg, $options); ?> I also have a bunch of email templates written in plain HTML pierced with a few PHP variables. E.g. /inc/email/templates/account_created.php: <p>Dear <?=$name?>,</p> <p>Thank you for creating an account at <?=$SITE_NAME?>. To login use the link below:</p> <p><a href="https://<?=$SITE_URL?>/account" target="_blank"><?=$SITE_NAME?>/account</a></p> In order to have the PHP vars rendered I had to include the template into my function. But since include does not return the contents but rather just sends it directly to the output, I had to wrap it with the buffer functions: <? abstract class Email { public static function send($to, $subj, $msg, $options = array()) { /* ... */ ob_start(); include '/inc/email/templates/account_created.php'; $msg = ob_get_clean(); /* ... */ } } After that I realized that the PHP vars are not rendered as they are being inside of the function scope, so I had to globalize the variables inside of the template: <? global $SITE_NAME, $SITE_URL, $name; ?> <p>Dear <?=$name?>,</p> ... So the question is whether there is a more elegant solution to this? Mainly I am concerned about my workarounds using ob_start() and global. For some reason that seems to me odd. Or this is pretty much the common practice?

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  • Passing a URL as a URL parameter

    - by Andrea
    I am implementing OpenId login in a CakePHP application. At a certain point, I need to redirect to another action, while preserving the information about the OpenId identity, which is itself a URL (with GET parameters), for instance https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=31g2iy321i3y1idh43q7tyYgdsjhd863Es How do I pass this data? The first attempt would be function openid() { ... $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'openid_create', $openid)); } but the obvious problem is that this completely messes up the way CakePHP parses URL parameters. I'd need to do either of the following: 1) encode the URL in a CakePHP friendly manner for passing it, and decoding it after that, or 2) pass the URL as a POST parameter but I don't know how to do this. EDIT: In response to comments, I should be more clear. I am using the OpenId component, and I have a working OpenId implementation. What I need to do is to link OpenId with an existing user system. When a new user logs in via OpenId, I ask for more details, and then create a new user with this data. The problem is that I have to keep the OpenId URL throughout this process.

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  • How to assign a table view controller to a table view on iPhone?

    - by Tattat
    I have a CharTableController, View and TableView on my IB. The CharTableController is using "CharTableController" in class identity. And this is how I implemented in the .h, and I want use the "CharTableController" to control the table only: @interface CharTableController : UITableViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource>{ // IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; NSArray *listData; } //@property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *listData; @end It is the .m: #import "CharTableController.h" @implementation CharTableController @synthesize listData; - (void)viewDidLoad { //NSLog(@"bulll"); // [debugLabel setText:@"success"]; NSArray *array = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"A", @"B", @"C", @"D", @"E", nil]; self.listData = array; [array release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [self.listData count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *SimpleTableIdentifier = @"SimpleTableIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: SimpleTableIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:SimpleTableIdentifier] autorelease]; NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; cell.textLabel.text = [listData objectAtIndex:row]; } return cell; } @end In the IB, I already assign the CharTableController's view to Table View in IB. And Table View is under the View, in IB. After I run the program, I can see the table view, but I can't see any char in the table view, why? What's wrong with my code? thz.

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  • jQuery multiple themes on one page

    - by lloydphillips
    This is driving me NUTS! I've followed the post here which just doesn't seem to be working: http://www.filamentgroup.com/lab/using_multiple_jquery_ui_themes_on_a_single_page/ I have a base theme, for examples sake it's the Smoothness theme from the jQuery UI gallery. Then I have a 'red' theme which basically colours the buttons red. Here is the theme I created. So I go to download my theme. Choose Advanced settings, set the scope to 'red' and my theme folder name to 'red' and download. First of all I'm not entirely 100% sure which folder I'm to copy over to my project is it the 'development-bundle\themes' folder (which contains my red folder) or the '\css\red' folder? I've tried both. The post above seems to suggest if I copy my themes folder and link to my theme in the css it'll work when I add a class of 'red' to a wrapper div or element. So I've linked the themes like so in my file: <link type="text/css" href="themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <link type="text/css" href="themes/red/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> The base theme loads and works all honkey doorey but the red theme doesn't. I've got a button styled like so: <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" class="red" /> I've also tried: <div class="red"> <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" /> </div> Neither work. When I remove the 'themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css' css file link the button's aren't styled at all. Crazy! I'm pulling my hair out. Where am I going wrong? Surely they should just make it easy enough to download JUST the theme folder and reference the ui.all file.

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  • Inheritance issue with ivar on the iPhone

    - by Buffalo
    I am using the BLIP/MYNetwork library to establish a basic tcp socket connection between the iPhone and my computer. So far, the code builds and runs correctly in simulator but deploying to device yields the following error: error: property 'delegate' attempting to use ivar '_delegate' declared in super class of 'TCPConnection' @interface TCPConnection : TCPEndpoint { @private TCPListener *_server; IPAddress *_address; BOOL _isIncoming, _checkedPeerCert; TCPConnectionStatus _status; TCPReader *_reader; TCPWriter *_writer; NSError *_error; NSTimeInterval _openTimeout; } /** The delegate object that will be called when the connection opens, closes or receives messages. */ @property (assign) id<TCPConnectionDelegate> delegate; /** The delegate messages sent by TCPConnection. All methods are optional. */ @protocol TCPConnectionDelegate <NSObject> @optional /** Called after the connection successfully opens. */ - (void) connectionDidOpen: (TCPConnection*)connection; /** Called after the connection fails to open due to an error. */ - (void) connection: (TCPConnection*)connection failedToOpen: (NSError*)error; /** Called when the identity of the peer is known, if using an SSL connection and the SSL settings say to check the peer's certificate. This happens, if at all, after the -connectionDidOpen: call. */ - (BOOL) connection: (TCPConnection*)connection authorizeSSLPeer: (SecCertificateRef)peerCert; /** Called after the connection closes. You can check the connection's error property to see if it was normal or abnormal. */ - (void) connectionDidClose: (TCPConnection*)connection; @end @interface TCPEndpoint : NSObject { NSMutableDictionary *_sslProperties; id _delegate; } - (void) tellDelegate: (SEL)selector withObject: (id)param; @end Does anyone know how I would fix this? Would I simply declare _delegate as a public property of the base class "TCPEndPoint"? Thanks for the help ya'll!

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  • Jquery dynamic button : how to bind to exisitng click event by class

    - by omer bach
    I have a click event triggered by the class selector inside the jquery ready scope: $(".testBtn").click(function() { alert("This Works"); }); This works fine for static buttons how ever this doesn't work for dynamic buttons which are added upon clicking the button with "addRowBtn" id. I'm guessing that it has something to do with that the button is created after the event is registered but still the new button has the 'testBtn' class so it makes sense it should work. Any idea what am i doing wrong and how to make the dynamic buttons registered to the class selector click event? Here is the whole code, you can copy and paste into an html, click the 'add button' and try to click the added buttons. you'll see nothing happens. <html> <head> <script src='http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js'></script> <script src='http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1/jquery-ui.min.js'></script> <script> $(function() { $(".addRowBtn").click(function() { $("#mainTable tr:last").after("<tr><td><button class='testBtn'>NotWorking</button></td></tr>"); }); $(".testBtn").click(function() { alert("This Works"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <table id="mainTable"> <button class="addRowBtn">Add button</button> <tr><th>Testing</th></tr> <tr><td><button class='testBtn'>Working</button></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

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  • Is it possible to execute a function in Mongo that accepts any parameters?

    - by joshua.clayton
    I'm looking to write a function to do a custom query on a collection in Mongo. Problem is, I want to reuse that function. My thought was this (obviously contrived): var awesome = function(count) { return function() { return this.size == parseInt(count); }; } So then I could do something along the lines of: db.collection.find(awesome(5)); However, I get this error: error: { "$err" : "error on invocation of $where function: JS Error: ReferenceError: count is not defined nofile_b:1" } So, it looks like Mongo isn't honoring scope, but I'm really not sure why. Any insight would be appreciated. To go into more depth of what I'd like to do: A collection of documents has lat/lng values, and I want to find all documents within a concave or convex polygon. I have the function written but would ideally be able to reuse the function, so I want to pass in an array of points composing my polygon to the function I execute on Mongo's end. I've looked at Mongo's geospatial querying and it currently on supports circle and box queries - I need something more complex.

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  • Partial Classes - are they bad design?

    - by dferraro
    Hello, I'm wondering why the 'partial class' concept even exists in .NET. I'm working on an application and we are reading a (actually very good) book relavant to the development platform we are implementing at work. In the book he provides a large code base /wrapper around the platform API and explains how he developed it as he teaches different topics about the platform development. Anyway, long story short - he uses partial classes, all over the place, as a way to fake multiple inheritence in C# (IMO). Why he didnt just split the classes up into multiple ones and use composition is beyond me. He will have 3 'partial class' files to make up his base class, each w/ 3-500 lines of code... And does this several times in his API. Do you find this justifiable? If it were me, I'd have followed the S.R.P. and created multiple classes to handle different required behaviors, then create a base class that has instances of these classes as members (e.g. composition). Why did MS even put partial class into the framework?? They removed the ability to expand/collapse all code at each scope level in C# (this was allowed in C++) because it was obviously just allowing bad habits - partial class is IMO the same thing. I guess my quetion is: Can you explain to me when there would be a legitimate reason to ever use a partial class? I do not mean this to be a rant / war thread. I'm honeslty looking to learn something here. Thanks

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  • SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

    - by pcampbell
    Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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  • Targeted Simplify in Mathematica

    - by Timo
    I generate very long and complex analytic expressions of the general form: (...something not so complex...)(...ditto...)(...ditto...)...lots... When I try to use Simplify, Mathematica grinds to a halt, I am assuming due to the fact that it tries to expand the brackets and or simplify across different brackets. The brackets, while containing long expressions, are easily simplified by Mathematica on their own. Is there some way I can limit the scope of Simplify to a single bracket at a time? Edit: Some additional info and progress. So using the advice from you guys I have now started using something in the vein of In[1]:= trouble = Log[(x + I y) (x - I y) + Sqrt[(a + I b) (a - I b)]]; In[2]:= Replace[trouble, form_ /; (Head[form] == Times) :> Simplify[form],{3}] Out[2]= Log[Sqrt[a^2 + b^2] + (x - I y) (x + I y)] Changing Times to an appropriate head like Plus or Power makes it possible to target the simplification quite accurately. The problem / question that remains, though, is the following: Simplify will still descend deeper than the level specified to Replace, e.g. In[3]:= Replace[trouble, form_ /; (Head[form] == Plus) :> Simplify[form], {1}] Out[3]= Log[Sqrt[a^2 + b^2] + x^2 + y^2] simplifies the square root as well. My plan was to iteratively use Replace from the bottom up one level at a time, but this clearly will result in vast amount of repeated work by Simplify and ultimately result in the exact same bogging down of Mathematica I experienced in the outset. Is there a way to restrict Simplify to a certain level(s)? I realize that this sort of restriction may not produce optimal results, but the idea here is getting something that is "good enough".

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  • Enabling/Disabling Aero from a Windows Service

    - by rgould
    I have some code to enable/disable the Windows Aero service in Vista, and I would like to run it in a Windows Service. The code works in a standalone application, but when I run it from a Service, nothing happens. No errors or exceptions are thrown. I realise that running code in a service is a different scope than running code in an application, but in this case, how would I enable/disable Aero from the service? Is this even possible? Here is the code I am working with: public static readonly uint DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION = 0; public static readonly uint DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION = 1; [DllImport("dwmapi.dll", EntryPoint="DwmEnableComposition")] protected static extern uint Win32DwmEnableComposition(uint uCompositionAction); public static bool EnableAero() { Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION); } Edit: It turns out that the DwmEnableComposition call is returning HRESULT 0x80070018, or ERROR_BAD_LENGTH. Seems like a strange error, since the code works when not running as a service. I also tried changing the entire thing to the following code, but got the same result. It sets the window station and desktop, and it seems to be correct, but the call to DwmEnableComposition results in the same error. I've not included the PInvoke declarations for brevity. protected override void OnStop() { IntPtr winStation = OpenWindowStation("winsta0", true, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (winStation == null || winStation.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetProcessWindowStation(winStation)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint thread = GetCurrentThreadId(); IntPtr hdesk = OpenInputDesktop(0, false, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (hdesk == null || hdesk.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetThreadDesktop(hdesk)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint result = Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION); if (result != 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } }

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  • Compile time float packing/punning

    - by detly
    I'm writing C for the PIC32MX, compiled with Microchip's PIC32 C compiler (based on GCC 3.4). My problem is this: I have some reprogrammable numeric data that is stored either on EEPROM or in the program flash of the chip. This means that when I want to store a float, I have to do some type punning: typedef union { int intval; float floatval; } IntFloat; unsigned int float_as_int(float fval) { IntFloat intf; intf.floatval = fval; return intf.intval; } // Stores an int of data in whatever storage we're using void StoreInt(unsigned int data, unsigned int address); void StoreFPVal(float data, unsigned int address) { StoreInt(float_as_int(data), address); } I also include default values as an array of compile time constants. For (unsigned) integer values this is trivial, I just use the integer literal. For floats, though, I have to use this Python snippet to convert them to their word representation to include them in the array: import struct hex(struct.unpack("I", struct.pack("f", float_value))[0]) ...and so my array of defaults has these indecipherable values like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 0x3C83126F, // Some default float value, 0.005 } (These actually take the form of X macro constructs, but that doesn't make a difference here.) Commenting is nice, but is there a better way? It's be great to be able to do something like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 COMPILE_TIME_CONVERT(0.005), // Some default float value, 0.005 } ...but I'm completely at a loss, and I don't even know if such a thing is possible. Notes Obviously "no, it isn't possible" is an acceptable answer if true. I'm not overly concerned about portability, so implementation defined behaviour is fine, undefined behaviour is not (I have the IDB appendix sitting in front of me). As fas as I'm aware, this needs to be a compile time conversion, since DEFAULTS is in the global scope. Please correct me if I'm wrong about this.

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  • Bilinear interpolation - DirectX vs. GDI+

    - by holtavolt
    I have a C# app for which I've written GDI+ code that uses Bitmap/TextureBrush rendering to present 2D images, which can have various image processing functions applied. This code is a new path in an application that mimics existing DX9 code, and they share a common library to perform all vector and matrix (e.g. ViewToWorld/WorldToView) operations. My test bed consists of DX9 output images that I compare against the output of the new GDI+ code. A simple test case that renders to a viewport that matches the Bitmap dimensions (i.e. no zoom or pan) does match pixel-perfect (no binary diff) - but as soon as the image is zoomed up (magnified), I get very minor differences in 5-10% of the pixels. The magnitude of the difference is 1 (occasionally 2)/256. I suspect this is due to interpolation differences. Question: For a DX9 ortho projection (and identity world space), with a camera perpendicular and centered on a textured quad, is it reasonable to expect DirectX.Direct3D.TextureFilter.Linear to generate identical output to a GDI+ TextureBrush filled rectangle/polygon when using the System.Drawing.Drawing2D.InterpolationMode.Bilinear setting? For this (magnification) case, the DX9 code is using this (MinFilter,MipFilter set similarly): Device.SetSamplerState(0, SamplerStageStates.MagFilter, (int)TextureFilter.Linear); and the GDI+ path is using: g.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.Bilinear; I thought that "Bilinear Interpolation" was a fairly specific filter definition, but then I noticed that there is another option in GDI+ for "HighQualityBilinear" (which I've tried, with no difference - which makes sense given the description of "added prefiltering for shrinking") Followup Question: Is it reasonable to expect pixel-perfect output matching between DirectX and GDI+ (assuming all external coordinates passed in are equal)? If not, why not? Finally, there are a number of other APIs I could be using (Direct2D, WPF, GDI, etc.) - and this question generally applies to comparing the output of "equivalent" bilinear interpolated output images across any two of these. Thanks!

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  • AJAX Autosave

    - by antony.trupe
    What's the best javascript library, or plugin or extension to a library, that has implemented autosaving functionality? The specific need is to be able to 'save' a data grid. Think gmail and Google Documents' autosave. I don't want to reinvent the wheel if its already been invented. I'm looking for an existing implementation of the magical autoSave() function. Auto-Saving:pushing to server code that saves to persistent storage, usually a DB. The server code framework is outside the scope of this question. Note that I'm not looking for an Ajax library, but a library/framework a level higher: interacts with the form itself. daemach introduced an implementation on top of jQuery @ http://ideamill.synaptrixgroup.com/?p=3. I'm not convinced it meets the lightweight and well engineered criteria though. Criteria stable, lightweight, well engineered saves onChange and/or onBlur saves no more frequently then a given number of milliseconds handles multiple updates happening at the same time doesn't save if no change has occurred since last save saves to different urls per input class Updates I've stabilized a solution. See my answer below for links.

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