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  • How to use jQuery .live() with ajax

    - by kylemac
    Currently I am using John Resig's LiveQuery plugin/function - http://ejohn.org/blog/jquery-livesearch/ - to allow users to sort through a long unordered-list of list-items. The code is as follows: $('input#q').liveUpdate('ul#teams').focus(); The issue arises when I use ajaxified tabs to sort the lists. Essentially I use ajax to pull in different lists and the liveUpdate() function doesn't have access to the new li's. I assume I would need to bind this using the .live() function - http://api.jquery.com/live/. But I am unclear how to bind this to an ajax event, I've only used the "click" event. How would I bind the new liveUpdate() to the newly loaded list-items? EDIT: The ajax tabs is run through the wordpress ajax api so the code is fairly complex, but simplified it is something like this: $('div.item-list-tabs').click( function(event) { var target = $(event.target).parent(); var data = {action, scope, pagination}; // Passes action to WP that loads my tab data $.post( ajaxurl, data, function(response) { $(target).fadeOut( 100, function() { $(this).html(response); $(this).fadeIn(100); }); }); return false; }); This is simplified for the sake of this conversation, but basically once the $.post loads the response in place .liveUpdate() doesn't have access to it. I believe the .live() function is the answer to this problem, I'm just unclear on how to implement it with the $.post()

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  • Approach for replacing forms authentication in .NET application

    - by Ash Machine
    My question is about an approach, and I am looking for tips or links to help me develop a solution. I have an .NET 4.0 web forms application that works with Forms authentication using the aspnetdb SQL database of users and passwords. A new feature for the application is a new authentication mechanism using single sign on to allow access for thousands of new users. Essentially, when the user logs in through the new single-sign-on method, I will be able to identify them as legitimate users with a role. So I will have something like HttpContext.Current.Session["email_of_authenticated_user"] (their identity) and HttpContext.Current.Session["role_of_authenticated_user"] (their role). Importantly, I don't necessarily want to maintain these users and roles redundantly in the aspnetdb database which will be retired, but I do want to use the session objects above to allow the user to pass through the application as if they were in passing through with forms authentication. I don't think CustomRoleProviders or CustomMemberProviders are helpful since they do not allow for creating session-level users. So my question is how to use the session level user and role that I do have to "mimic" all the forms authentication goodness like enforcing: [System.Security.Permissions.PrincipalPermission(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Role = "Student")] or <authorization> <allow users="wilma, barney" /> </authorization> Thanks for any pointers.

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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • How to use boost::bind with non-copyable params, for example boost::promise ?

    - by zhengxi
    Some C++ objects have no copy constructor, but have move constructor. For example, boost::promise. How can I bind those objects using their move constructors ? #include <boost/thread.hpp> void fullfil_1(boost::promise<int>& prom, int x) { prom.set_value(x); } boost::function<void()> get_functor() { // boost::promise is not copyable, but movable boost::promise<int> pi; // compilation error boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, pi, 1); // compilation error as well boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, std::move(pi), 1); // PS. I know, it is possible to bind a pointer to the object instead of // the object itself. But it is weird solution, in this case I will have // to take cake about lifetime of the object instead of delegating that to // boost::bind (by moving object into boost::function object) // // weird: pi will be destroyed on leaving the scope boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, boost::ref(pi), 1); return f_set_one; }

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  • DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

    - by Nathan Loding
    I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

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  • Getting the first result from a LINQ query - why does ElementAt<T>(0) fails when First<T>() succeeds

    - by Mr Roys
    I have a method AddStudent() which looks for a student with the same name and returns an existing student from the database if there is a student with the same name, otherwise it creates a new student and adds it to the database. I'm curious why se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); succeeds when se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); fails when I try to get the first result from the LINQ query. Aren't the two methods the same? The full code for the method is shown below. public Student AddStudent(string name) { using (SchoolEntities db = new SchoolEntities()) { // find student with same name via LINQ var students = from s in db.StudentEntitySet where s.name == name select s; StudentEntity se = default(StudentEntity); // if student with the same name is already present, return // that student if (students.Count<StudentEntity>() > 0) { // if i use ElementAt, if fails with a "LINQ to Entities does not // recognize the method 'StudentEntity ElementAt[StudentEntity] // (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[StudentEntity], Int32)' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression.", // but not when I use First. Why? // se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); } else { // passing 0 for first parameter (id) since it's represented by // a BigInt IDENTITY field in the database so any value // doesn't matter. se = StudentEntity.CreateStudentEntity(0, name); db.AddToStudentEntitySet(se); db.SaveChanges(); } // create a Student object from the Entity object return new Student(se); } } Thanks!

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  • Designing secure consumer blackberry application

    - by Kiran Kuppa
    I am evaluating a requirement for a consumer blackberry application that places high premium on security of user's data. Seems like it is an insurance company. Here are my ideas on how I could go about it. I am sure this would be useful for others who are looking for similar stuff Force the user to use device password. (I am guessing that this would be possible - though not checked it yet). Application can request notifications when the device is about to be locked and just after it has been unlocked. Encryption of application specific data can be managed at those times. Application data would be encrypted with user's password. User's credentials would be encrypted with device password. Remote backup of the data could be done over HTTPS (any better ideas are appreciated) Questions: What if the user forgets his device password. If the user forgets his application password, what is the best and secure way to reset the password? If the user losses the phone, remote backup must be done and the application data must be cleaned up. I have some ideas on how to achieve (3) and shall share them. There must be an off-line verification of the user's identity and the administrator must provide a channel using which the user must be able to send command to the device to perform the wiping of application data. The idea is that the user is ALWAYS in control of his data. Without the user's consent, even the admin must not be able to do activities such as cleaning up the data. In the above scheme of things, it appears as if the user's password need not be sent over the air to server. Am I correct? Thanks, --Kiran Kumar

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  • SWFUpload Authentication

    - by durilai
    I am using SWFUpload to do file uploading in a ASP.NET MVC 1.0 website. It is working fine, but I am not able to authenticate the upload method. The HttpContext.User.Identity.Name returns an empty string. I am assuming this is because the Flash movie is making the post. I am also using the wrapper provided here: http://blog.codeville.net/2008/11/24/jquery-ajax-uploader-plugin-with-progress-bar/. The controller action below gets fired, but as mentiond above the user object is not passed. Any help is appreciated! View HTML <form enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="/Media/Upload/Photo"> <input type="file" id="userPhoto_Photo" name="userPhoto_Photo" /> </form> Javascript $(function() { $("#userPhoto").makeAsyncUploader({ upload_url: '/Media/Upload', flash_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Flash/swfUpload-2.2.0.1.swf") %>', file_size_limit: '1 MB', file_types: '*.jpg; *.png; *.gif', button_action: SWFUpload.BUTTON_ACTION.SELECT_FILE, button_width: 210, button_height: 35, button_image_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Images/UploadPhoto.png") %>', button_text: '', button_cursor: SWFUpload.CURSOR.HAND, button_window_mode: SWFUpload.WINDOW_MODE.TRANSPARENT }); }); Controller Action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { if (Request.Files.Count == 1) { //Upload work } return RedirectToAction("Index", "Profile"); }

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  • Convert pre-IEEE-574 C++ floating-point numbers to/from C#

    - by Richard Kucia
    Before .Net, before math coprocessors, before IEEE-574, Microsoft defined a bit pattern for floating-point numbers. Old versions of the C++ compiler happily used that definition. I am writing a C# app that needs to read/write such floating-point numbers in a file. How can I do the conversions between the 2 bit formats? I need conversion methods in both directions. This app is going to run in a PocketPC/WinCE environment. Changing the structure of the file is out-of-scope for this project. Is there a C++ compiler option that instructs it to use the old FP format? That would be ideal. I could then exchange data between the C# code and C++ code by using a null-terminated text string, and the C++ methods would be simple wrappers around sprintf and atof functions. At the very least, I'm hoping someone can reply with the bit definitions for the old FP format, so I can put together a low-level bit manipulation algorithm if necessary. Thanks.

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • jQuery - Callback failing if there is no options parameter

    - by user249950
    Hi, I'm attempting to build a simple plugin like this (function($) { $.fn.gpSlideOut = function(options, callback) { // default options - these are used when no others are specified $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults = { fadeToColour: "#ffffb3", fadeToColourSpeed: 500, slideUpSpeed: 400 }; // build main options before element iteration var o = $.extend({}, $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults, options); this.each(function() { $(this) .animate({backgroundColor: o.fadeToColour},o.fadeToColourSpeed) .slideUp(o.SlideUpSpeed, function(){ if (typeof callback == 'function') { // make sure the callback is a function callback.call(this); // brings the scope to the callback } }); }); return this; }; // invoke the function we just created passing it the jQuery object })(jQuery); The confusion I'm having is that normally on jQuery plugins you can call something like this: $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(function() { // Do stuff }); Without the options parameter, but it misses the callback if I do it like that so I have to always have var options = {} $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(options, function() { // Do stuff }); Even if I only want to use the defaults. Is there anyway to make sure the callback function is called whether or not the options parameter is there? Cheers.

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  • How does the destructor know when to activate itself? Can it be relied upon?

    - by Robert Mason
    Say for example i have the following code (pure example): class a { int * p; public: a() { p = new int; ~a() { delete p; } }; a * returnnew() { a retval; return(&retval); } int main() { a * foo = returnnew(); return 0; } In returnnew(), would retval be destructed after the return of the function (when retval goes out of scope)? Or would it disable automatic destruction after i returned the address and i would be able to say delete foo; at the end of main()? Or, in a similar vein (pseudocode): void foo(void* arg) { bar = (a*)arg; //do stuff exit_thread(); } int main() { while(true) { a asdf; create_thread(foo, (void*)&asdf); } return 0; } where would the destructor go? where would i have to say delete? or is this undefined behavior? Would the only possible solution be to use the STL referenced-counted pointers? how would this be implemented? Thank you- i've used C++ for a while but never quite been in this type of situation, and don't want to create memory leaks.

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  • How to setup Lucene search for a B2B web app?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: 5000 databases (spread out over 5 servers) 1 database per client (so you can infer there are 1000 clients) 2 to 2000 users per client (let's say avg is 100 users per client) Clients (databases) come and go every day (let's assume most remain for at least one year) Let's stay agnostic of language or sql brand, since Lucene (and Solr) have a breadth of support The Question: How would you setup Lucene search so that each client can only search within its database? How would you setup the index(es)? Would you need to add a filter to all search queries? If a client cancelled, how would you delete their (part of the) index? (this may be trivial--not sure yet) Possible Solutions: Make an index for each client (database) Pro: Search is faster (than one-index-for-all method). Indices are relative to the size of the client's data. Con: I'm not sure what this entails, nor do I know if this is beyond Lucene's scope. Have a single, gigantic index with a database_name field. Always include database_name as a filter. Pro: Not sure. Maybe good for tech support or billing dept to search all databases for info. Con: Search is slower (than index-per-client method). Flawed security if query filter removed. For Example: Joel Spolsky said in Podcast #11 that his hosted web app product, FogBugz On-Demand, uses Lucene. He has thousands of on-demand clients. And each client gets their own database. His situation is quite similar to mine. Although, he didn't elaborate on the setup (particularly indices); hence, the need for this question. One last thing: I would also accept an answer that uses Solr (the extension of Lucene). Perhaps it's better suited for this problem. Not sure.

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  • Issue Querying LDAP DirectoryEntry in ASP.NET

    - by davemackey
    I have users login to my application via Active Directory and then pull from their AD information to garner information about that user like so: Dim ID as FormsIdentity = DirectCast(User.Identity, FormsIdentity) Dim ticket as FormsAuthenticationTicket = ID.Ticket Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry("LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = ticket.Name.Substring(0, 5) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Now, I want to be able to impersonate other users...so that I can "test" the application as them, so I added a textbox and a button to the page and when the button is clicked the text is assigned to a session variable like so: Session("impersonate_user") = TextBox1.Text When the page reloads I check to see if Session("impersonate_user") has a value other than "" and then attempt to query Active Directory using this session variable like so: If CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) <> "" Then Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry(LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name")= adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Else [use the actual ticket.name to get this info.] End If But this doesn't work. Instead, it throws an error on the first Session line stating, "DirectoryServicesCOMException was unhandled by user code There is no such object on the server." Why? I know I'm giving it a valid username! Is something strange happening in the casting of the session? The code is essentially the same between each method except that in one method rather than pulling from ticket.Name I pull from a session variable for the login I'll be looking up with AD.

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  • Will rel=canonical break site: queries ?

    - by Justin Grant
    Our company publishes our software product's documentation using a custom-built content management system using a dynamic URL namespace like this: http://ourproduct.com/documentation/version/pageid Where "version" is the version number to which the documentation applies, and "pageid" is a unique string which identifies that page in our back-end content management system. For example, if content (e.g. a page about configuration best practices) is unchanged from version 3.0 and 4.0 of our product, it'd be reachable by two different URLs: http://ourproduct.com/documentation/3.0/configuration-best-practices http://ourproduct.com/documentation/4.0/configuration-best-practices This URL scheme allows us to scope Google search results to see only documentaiton for a particular product version, like this: configuration site:ourproduct.com/documentation/4.0 But when the user is searching across all versions, we don't want Google to arbitrarily choose one of the URLs to show in results. Instead, we always want the latest version to show up. Hence our planned use of rel=canonical so we can proscriptively tell Google which URL we want to show up if multiple versions are being searched. (Users who do oddball things like searching 2 versions but not all of them are a corner case, so we don't care which version(s) show up in that case-- the primary use-cases we care about is searching one version or searching all versions) But what will happen to scoped searches if we do this? If my rel=canonical URL points to version 4.0, but my search is scoped to 3.0, will Google return a result? Even if you don't know the answer offhand, do you know a site which uses rel=canonical to redirect across folders in a URL namespace. If so, I could run a few Google searches and figure out the answer.

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  • SQL Server insert performance

    - by Jose
    I have an insert query that gets generated like this INSERT INTO InvoiceDetail (LegacyId,InvoiceId,DetailTypeId,Fee,FeeTax,Investigatorid,SalespersonId,CreateDate,CreatedById,IsChargeBack,Expense,RepoAgentId,PayeeName,ExpensePaymentId,AdjustDetailId) VALUES(1,1,2,1500.0000,0.0000,163,1002,'11/30/2001 12:00:00 AM',1116,0,550.0000,850,NULL,@ExpensePay1,NULL); DECLARE @InvDetail1 INT; SET @InvDetail1 = (SELECT @@IDENTITY); This query is generated for only 110K rows. It takes 30 minutes for all of these query's to execute I checked the query plan and the largest % nodes are A Clustered Index Insert at 57% query cost which has a long xml that I don't want to post. A Table Spool which is 38% query cost <RelOp AvgRowSize="35" EstimateCPU="5.01038E-05" EstimateIO="0" EstimateRebinds="0" EstimateRewinds="0" EstimateRows="1" LogicalOp="Eager Spool" NodeId="80" Parallel="false" PhysicalOp="Table Spool" EstimatedTotalSubtreeCost="0.0466109"> <OutputList> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvoiceId" /> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvestigatorId" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1054" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1055" /> </OutputList> <Spool PrimaryNodeId="3" /> </RelOp> So my question is what is there that I can do to improve the speed of this thing? I already run ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL Before the queries and then ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL after the queries. And that didn't shave off hardly anything off of the time. Know I am running these queries in a .NET application that uses a SqlCommand object to send the query. I then tried to output the sql commands to a file and then execute it using sqlcmd, but I wasn't getting any updates on how it was doing, so I gave up on that. Any ideas or hints or help?

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  • JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

    - by purecharger
    And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

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  • problem in accessing the path involving pagination using display tag

    - by sarah
    Hi All, I am using display tag for pagiantion and display of the data in table format the code is like <display:column title="Select" style="width: 90px;"> <input type="checkbox" name="optionSelected" value="<c:out value='${userList.loginName}'/>"/> </display:column> <display:column property="loginName" sortable="false" title="UserName" paramId="loginName" style="width: 150px; text-align:center" href="./editUser.do?method=editUser"/> the pagesize is one it will display one in a page and eidt page will be dispaly on click of login name,but when i go to the second page i get an error saying /views/editUser path not found.How exactly should i define the path ? the struts-config is like <!-- action for edit user --> <action path="/editUser" name="editUserForm" type="com.actions.UserManagementAction" parameter="method" input="/EditUser.jsp" scope="request"> <forward name="success" path="/views/EditUser.jsp" /> <forward name="failure" path="/views/failure.jsp" /> </action> Pleas tell me how should i define the access path for display tag as on click of edit link the first page works but not the second edit

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  • Zend: Fetching row from session db table after generating session id

    - by Nux
    Hi, I'm trying to update the session table used by Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable directly after authenticating the user and writing the session to the DB. But I can neither update nor fetch the newly inserted row, even though the session id I use to check (Zend_Session::getId()) is valid and the row is indeed inserted into the table. Upon fetching all session ids (on the same request) the one I newly inserted is missing from the results. It does appear in the results if I fetch it with something else. I've checked whether it is a problem with transactions and that does not seem to be the problem - there is no active transaction when I'm fetching the results. I've also tried fetching a few seconds after writing using sleep(), which doesn't help. $auth->getStorage()->write($ident); //sleep(1) $update = $this->db->update('session', array('uid' => $ident->user_id), 'id='.$this->db->quote(Zend_Session::getId())); $qload = 'SELECT id FROM session'; $load = $this->db->fetchAll($qload); echo $qload; print_r($load); $update fails. $load doesn't contain the row that was written with $auth-getStorage()-write($identity). $qload does contain the correct query - copying it to somewhere else leads to the expected result, that is the inserted row is included in the results. Database used is MySQL - InnoDB. If someone knows how to directly fix this (i.e. on the same request, not doing something like updating after redirecting to another page) without modifying Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable: Thank you very much!

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  • deadlock because of foreign key?

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using SQL Server 2008 Enterprise. I met with deadlock in the following store procedure, but because of my fault, I did not record the deadlock graph. But now I can not reproduce deadlock issue. I want to have a postmortem to find the root cause of deadlock to avoid deadlock in the future. The deadlock happens on delete statement. For the delete statement, Param1 is a column of table FooTable, Param1 is a foreign key of another table (refers to another primary key clustered index column of the other table). There is no index on Param1 itself for table FooTable. FooTable has another column which is used as clustered primary key, but not Param1 column. Here is my guess why there is deadlock, and I want to let people review whether my analysis is correct? Since Param1 column has no index, there will be a table scan, and will acquire table level lock, because of foreign key, the delete operation will also need to check master table (e.g. to acquire lock on master table); Some operation on master table acquires master table lock, but want to acquire lock on FooTable; (1) and (2) cause cycle lock which makes deadlock happen. My analysis correct? Any reproduce scenario? create PROCEDURE [dbo].[FooProc] ( @Param1 int ,@Param2 int ,@Param3 int ) AS DELETE FooTable WHERE Param1 = @Param1 INSERT INTO FooTable ( Param1 ,Param2 ,Param3 ) VALUES ( @Param1 ,@Param2 ,@Param3 ) DECLARE @ID bigint SET @ID = ISNULL(@@Identity,-1) IF @ID > 0 BEGIN SELECT IdentityStr FROM FooTable WHERE ID = @ID END thanks in advance, George

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  • rich suggestions - why input is null? (seam framework)

    - by Cristian Boariu
    Hi, I'm trying to build a rich suggestions and i do not understand WHY the input value is null... I mean, why inputText value is not taken when i enter something. The .xhtml code: <h:inputText value="#{suggestion.input}" id="text"> </h:inputText> <rich:suggestionbox id="suggestionBoxId" for="text" tokens=",[]" suggestionAction="#{suggestion.getSimilarSpacePaths()}" var="result" fetchValue="#{result.path}" first="0" minChars="2" nothingLabel="No similar space paths found" columnClasses="center" > <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{result.path}" style="font-style:italic"/> </h:column> </rich:suggestionbox> and action class: @Name("suggestion") @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) public class Suggestion { @In protected EntityManager entityManager; private String input; public String getInput() { return input; } public void setInput(final String input) { this.input = input; } public List<Space> getSimilarSpacePaths() { List<Space> suggestionsList = new ArrayList<Space>(); if (!StringUtils.isEmpty(input) && !input.equals("/")) { final Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("SpaceByPathLike"); query.setParameter("path", input + '%'); suggestionsList = (List<Space>) query.getResultList(); } return suggestionsList; } } So, input beeing null, suggestionList is always empty... Why input's value is not posted?

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • Linq-to-SQL: How to shape the data with group by?

    - by Cheeso
    I have an example database, it contains tables for Movies, People and Credits. The Movie table contains a Title and an Id. The People table contains a Name and an Id. The Credits table relates Movies to the People that worked on those Movies, in a particular role. The table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Credits] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [PersonId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES People(Id), [MovieId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Movies(Id), [Role] [char] (1) NULL In this simple example, the [Role] column is a single character, by my convention either 'A' to indicate the person was an actor on that particular movie, or 'D' for director. I'd like to perform a query on a particular person that returns the person's name, plus a list of all the movies the person has worked on, and the roles in those movies. If I were to serialize it to json, it might look like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "roles": ["actor", "director"] }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "roles": ["director"] }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "roles": ["actor"] }, ... ] } How can I write a LINQ-to-SQL query that shapes the output like that? I'm having trouble doing it efficiently. if I use this query: int personId = 10007; var persons = from p in db.People where p.Id == personId select new { name = p.Name, movies = (from m in db.Movies join c in db.Credits on m.Id equals c.MovieId where (c.PersonId == personId) select new { title = m.Title, role = (c.Role=="D"?"director":"actor") }) }; I get something like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "actor" }, { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "role": "actor" }, ... ] } ...but as you can see there's a duplicate of each movie for which Eastwood played multiple roles. How can I shape the output the way I want?

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  • Assign a unique client ID to each <rich:dataTable /> row?

    - by Dolph Mathews
    I'm relatively new to working with the UI in Seam, so I'm hoping there is something simple I can replace the three instances of UNIQUE_ID with in the following example (such as #{object.uniqueId}). The goal is to have a <rich:dataTable /> wherein each row has the ability to show/hide a <rich:modalPanel /> with more details about the particular object instance. <rich:dataTable var="object" value="#{bean.myObject}"> <rich:column> <h:outputText value="#{object.summary}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <a onclick="Richfaces.showModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Show Details in ModalPanel</a> <a4j:form> <rich:modalPanel id="UNIQUE_ID" > <a onclick="Richfaces.hideModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Hide This ModalPanel</a> <h:outputText value="#{object.details}" /> </rich:modalPanel> </a4j:form> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> If I only had one link/modalPanel pair, this would obviously be trivial, but I don't know what to do within the scope of the <rich:dataTable />'s iteration. Also, in case it complicates things further, the page will also contain many <rich:dataTable />'s, each implementing this behavior.

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  • Regexp that matches user-agents of end-user browsers but NOT crawlers with >90 % accuracy

    - by knorv
    I'm trying to construct a regexp that will evaluate to true for User-Agent:s of "browsers navigated by humans", but false for bots. Needless to say the matching will not be exact, but if it gets things right in say 90 % of cases that is more than good enough. My approach so far is to target the User-Agent string of the the five major desktop browsers (MSIE, Firefox, Chrome, Safari, Opera). Specifically I want the regexp NOT to match if the user-agent is a bot (Googlebot, msnbot, etc.). Currently I'm using the following regexp which appears to achieve the desired precision: ^(Mozilla.*(Gecko|KHTML|MSIE|Presto|Trident)|Opera).*$ I've observed small number of false negatives which are mostly mobile browsers. The exceptions all match: (BlackBerry|HTC|LG|MOT|Nokia|NOKIAN|PLAYSTATION|PSP|SAMSUNG|SonyEricsson) My question is: Given the desired accuracy level, how would you improve the regexp? Can you think of any major false positives or false negatives to the given regexp? Please note that the question is specifically about regexp-based User-Agent matching. There are a bunch of other approaches to solving this problem, but those are out of the scope of this question.

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