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  • OO model for nsxmlparser when delegate is not self

    - by richard
    Hi, I am struggling with the correct design for the delegates of nsxmlparser. In order to build my table of Foos, I need to make two types of webservice calls; one for the whole table and one for each row. It's essentially a master-query then detail-query, except the master-query-result-xml doesn't return enough information so i then need to query the detail for each row. I'm not dealing with enormous amounts of data. Anyway - previously I've just used NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; [parser setDelegate:self]; [parser parse]; and implemented all the appropriate delegate methods in whatever class i'm in. In attempt at cleanliness, I've now created two separate delegate classes and done something like: NSXMLParser *xp = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; MyMasterXMLParserDelegate *masterParserDelegate = [[MyMasterXMLParser]alloc]init]; [xp setDelegate:masterParserDelegate]; [xp parse]; In addition to being cleaner (in my opinion, at least), it also means each of the -parser:didStartElement implementations don't spend most of the time trying to figure out which xml they're parsing. So now the real crux of the problem. Before i split out the delegates, i had in the main class that was also implementing the delegate methods, a class-level NSMutableArray that I would just put my objects-created-from-xml in when -parser:didEndElement found the 'end' of each record. Now the delegates are in separate classes, I can't figure out how to have the -parser:didEndElement in the 'detail' delegate class "return" the created object to the calling class. At least, not in a clean OO way. I'm sure i could do it with all sorts of nasty class methods. Does the question make sense? Thanks.

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  • Program structure in long running data processing python script

    - by fmark
    For my current job I am writing some long-running (think hours to days) scripts that do CPU intensive data-processing. The program flow is very simple - it proceeds into the main loop, completes the main loop, saves output and terminates: The basic structure of my programs tends to be like so: <import statements> <constant declarations> <misc function declarations> def main(): for blah in blahs(): <lots of local variables> <lots of tightly coupled computation> for something in somethings(): <lots more local variables> <lots more computation> <etc., etc.> <save results> if __name__ == "__main__": main() This gets unmanageable quickly, so I want to refactor it into something more manageable. I want to make this more maintainable, without sacrificing execution speed. Each chuck of code relies on a large number of variables however, so refactoring parts of the computation out to functions would make parameters list grow out of hand very quickly. Should I put this sort of code into a python class, and change the local variables into class variables? It doesn't make a great deal of sense tp me conceptually to turn the program into a class, as the class would never be reused, and only one instance would ever be created per instance. What is the best practice structure for this kind of program? I am using python but the question is relatively language-agnostic, assuming a modern object-oriented language features.

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  • How can one convince a team to use a new technology (LinQ, MVC, etc )?

    - by Atomiton
    Obviously, it's easier to do with some developers, but I'm sure many of us are on teams that prefer the status quo. You know the type. You see some benefit in a piece of new technology and they prefer the tried and true methods. Try, for example, DBA/C# programmer the advantages of using LinQ ( not necessarily LinQ to SQL, just LinQ in general ). For example, When a project requirement is to be cross-platform... instead of thinking about how one can run Windows on a Mac through a VM Machine, introducing the idea of using relatively new Silverlight or creating it in Java ( as an option to look into ). I know most people don't like to be out of their comfort level, so it takes a bit of convincing, and not ALL new technology makes business sense... but how have you convinced your team to look at a new technology? What technologies have you successfully introduced to your workplace? What technologies do you think are hardest to introduce? ( I'm thinking paradigm-shifting ones, like MVC from WebForms... or new languages ) What strategies do you employ to make these new technologies appealing?

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  • Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

    - by Adam Pope
    I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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  • Sequential access to asynchronous sockets

    - by Lars A. Brekken
    I have a server that has several clients C1...Cn to each of which there is a TCP connection established. There are less than 10,000 clients. The message protocol is request/response based, where the server sends a request to a client and then the client sends a response. The server has several threads, T1...Tm, and each of these may send requests to any of the clients. I want to make sure that only one of these threads can send a request to a specific client at any one time, while the other threads wanting to send a request to the same client will have to wait. I do not want to block threads from sending requests to different clients at the same time. E.g. If T1 is sending a request to C3, another thread T2 should not be able to send anything to C3 until T1 has received its response. I was thinking of using a simple lock statement on the socket: lock (c3Socket) { // Send request to C3 // Get response from C3 } I am using asynchronous sockets, so I may have to use Monitor instead: Monitor.Enter(c3Socket); // Before calling .BeginReceive() And Monitor.Exit(c3Socket); // In .EndReceive I am worried about stuff going wrong and not letting go of the monitor and therefore blocking all access to a client. I'm thinking that my heartbeat thread could use Monitor.TryEnter() with a timeout and throw out sockets that it cannot get the monitor for. Would it make sense for me to make the Begin and End calls synchronous in order to be able to use the lock() statement? I know that I would be sacrificing concurrency for simplicity in this case, but it may be worth it. Am I overlooking anything here? Any input appreciated.

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  • How can I go through a Set in JSP? (Hibernate Associations)

    - by Parris
    Hi All, So I am pretty new to JSP. I have tried this a few ways. Ways that would make sense in PHP or automagicy frameworks... I am probably thinking too much in fact... I have a hibernate one to many association. That is class x has many of class y. In class x's view.jsp. I would like to grab all of class y, where the foreign key of y matches the primary key of x and display them. It seems that hibernate properly puts this stuff into a set. Now, the question is how can I iterate through this set and then output it's contents... I am kind of stumped here. I tried to write a scriptlet, <% java.util.Iterator iter = aBean.getYs().iter(); // aBeans is the bean name // getYs would return the set and iter would return an iterator for the set while(iter.hasNext) { model.X a = new iter.next() %> <h1><%=a.getTitle()%></h1> <% } %> It would seem that that sort of thing should work? Hmmmmmm

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  • Good case for a Null Object Pattern? (Provide some service with a mailservice)

    - by fireeyedboy
    For a website I'm working on, I made an Media Service object that I use in the front end, as well as in the backend (CMS). This Media Service object manipulates media in a local repository (DB); it provides the ability to upload/embed video's and upload images. In other words, website visitors are able to do this in the front end, but administrators of the site are also able to do this in the backend. I'ld like this service to mail the administrators when a visitor has uploaded/embedded a new medium in the frontend, but refrain from mailing them when they upload/embed a medium themself in the backend. So I started wondering whether this is a good case for passing a null object, that mimicks the mail funcionality, to the Media Service in the backend. I thought this might come in handy when they decide the backend needs to have implemented mail functionality as well. In simplified terms I'ld like to do something like this: Frontend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new StandardMailService() ); Backend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new NullMailService() ); How do you feel about this? Does this make sense? Or am I setting myself up for problems down the road?

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  • Creating a RESTful API - HELP!

    - by Martin Cox
    Hi Chaps Over the last few weeks I've been learning about iOS development, which has naturally led me into the world of APIs. Now, searching around on the Internet, I've come to the conclusion that using the REST architecture is very much recommended - due to it's supposed simplicity and ease of implementation. However, I'm really struggling with the implementation side of REST. I understand the concept; using HTTP methods as verbs to describe the action of a request and responding with suitable response codes, and so on. It's just, I don't understand how to code it. I don't get how I map a URI to an object. I understand that a GET request for domain.com/api/user/address?user_id=999 would return the address of user 999 - but I don't understand where or how that mapping from /user/address to some method that queries a database has taken place. Is this all coded in one php script? Would I just have a method that grabs the URI like so: $array = explode("/", ltrim(rtrim($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "/"), "/")) And then cycle through that array, first I would have a request for a "user", so the PHP script would direct my request to the user object and then invoke the address method. Is that what actually happens? I've probably not explained my thought process very well there. The main thing I'm not getting is how that URI /user/address?id=999 somehow is broken down and executed - does it actually resolve to code? class user(id) { address() { //get user address } } I doubt I'm making sense now, so I'll call it a day trying to explain further. I hope someone out there can understand what I'm trying to say! Thanks Chaps, look forward to your responses. Martin p.s - I'm not a developer yet, I'm learning :)

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  • How can I set the tab on a webpage depending on which page you come from in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by uriDium
    I have a rather large entity. It has a parent relationship with many different child tables. Each of the child tables I have represented as a tab (luckily it makes sense and looks nice and makes things easier to navigate). If the users wants to add a new child row, they go the particular tab, and there they see a list of rows which is owned by the parent and they can do the usual CRUD. The CRUD takes them to a new controller and action and passes the ID of the parent to the action. (This is as far as I can tell what I was meant to do, any other ideas??) When they have finsihed they click save and it takes them back to the original page BUT I want it to automatically go to the right tab. How can I do this? I am using Jquery UI tabs, ASP.Net MVC 2.0. One idea I had was to just go back to the bookmark (the href part with the #, for e.g. /Parent/Details/4/#tabname). Apparently JQuery UI tabs can handle this. Or to set the tab name as part of the query string (/Parent/Details/4?tab=name) What is the best practise here?

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  • Java if statement strings and more

    - by user1820578
    I have decided to try and learn a little in java tonight and i have just been trying some stuff with things i have learned. My question is in an if statement how to i make two stings to be true. Here is what i have so far. if ("male".equals(gender)) && ("brendan".equals(name)) the problem i am pretty sure is the && but i am not sure. also my other question is with gender it should either be male or female. I want to have if statement with male and another for female. For this do i just do another if. For eg if ("male".equals(gender)) && ("brendan".equals(name)) { System.out.println("blah blah"); } else { System.out.println(" wrong wrong"); } if ("female".equals(gender)) { System.out.println("blah blah2"); } else { System.out.println(" wrong wrong 2"); } hope that makes sense. Any help would be great.

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  • Running Different Modules on Tomcat/Server

    - by umesh awasthi
    Hi All, I have started working on my own project idea but on the starting i have strucked in the structure decision may be lack of knowledge is the promary factor. i am wondering how we can make 2 different modules to co-operate on the server.Here is is explanation of what i am trying to ask as per my design i need 2 modules for my application 1. Back end handling where i can do all content handling as well as other admin task a console which will be capable of handling everything from ceating importing contents to everything. 2 USer end which is only an interface to the end user to use the application. to visualize the things its kinda e-commerce application one is back office management and other is user end of web-shop. since these two module will be very much interlinked but i don't want them to mix up i want them to develop independently since admin is one which is core and it will also going to serve user interface. my question is how i can develop two module independently but on the other hand i want them to co-operate to accomplish the task as a whole. Really sorry in advance if i am not making any sense. Thanks in advance

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  • Rails: Multiple "types" of one model through related models?

    - by neezer
    I have a User model in my app, which I would like to store basic user information, such as email address, first and last name, phone number, etc. I also have many different types of users in my system, including sales agents, clients, guests, etc. I would like to be able to use the same User model as a base for all the others, so that I don't have to include all the fields for all the related roles in one model, and can delegate as necessary (cutting down on duplicate database fields as well as providing easy mobility from changing one user of one type to another). So, what I'd like is this: User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "client", so ---- client field 1 ---- client field 2 ---- client field 3 User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "sales agent", so ---- sales agent field 1 ---- sales agent field 2 ---- sales agent field 3 and so on... In addition, when a new user signs up, I want that new user to automatically be assigned the role of "client" (I'm talking about database fields here, not authorization, though I hope to eventually include this logic in my user authorization as well). I have a multi-step signup wizard I'm trying to build with wizardly. The first step is easy, since I'm simply calling the fields included in the base User model (such as first_name and email), but the second step is trickier since it should be calling in fields from the associated model (like--per my example above--the model client with fields client_field_1 or client_field_2, as if those fields were part of User). Does that make sense? Let me know if that wasn't clear at all, and I'll try to explain it in a different way. Can anyone help me with this? How would I do this?

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  • Is it possible to split HTML using DOMDocument?

    - by Lynn Adrianna
    Using DOMDocument, is it possible to split a block of HTML by text wrapped in tags and those that are not, while maintaining the order? Sorry, if this doesn't make sense. My example should make it clear. Let's say I have the following block of HTML: text1<b style="color:pink">text2</b>text3<b>text4</b> <b style="font-weight:bold">text5</b> Is it possible create an array as such: array( [0] => text1 [1] => <b style="color:pink">text2</b> [2] => text3 [3] => <b>text4</b> [4] => [5] => <b style="font-weight:bold">text5</b> ) Below is my current working solution, which uses a regular expression, to split the HTML. $tokens = preg_split('/(<b\b[^>]*>.*?<\/b>)/i', $html, null, PREG_SPLIT_DELIM_CAPTURE); However, I always read that it is a bad idea to parse HTML using regular expressions, so was just wondering if there is a better way.

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  • Django sub-applications & module structure

    - by Rob Golding
    I am developing a Django application, which is a large system that requires multiple sub-applications to keep things neat. Therefore, I have a top level directory that is a Django app (as it has an empty models.py file), and multiple subdirectories, which are also applications in themselves. The reason I have laid my application out in this way is because the sub-applications are separated, but they would never be used on their own, outside the parent application. It therefore makes no sense to distribute them separately. When installing my application, the settings file has to include something like this: INSTALLED_APPS = ( ... 'myapp', 'myapp.subapp1', 'myapp.subapp2', ... ) ...which is obviously suboptimal. This also has the slightly nasty result of requiring that all the sub-applications are referred to by their "inner" name (i.e. subapp1, subapp2 etc.). For example, if I want to reset the database tables for subapp1, I have to type: python manage.py reset subapp1 This is annoying, especially because I have a sub-app called core - which is likely to conflict with another application's name when my application is installed in a user's project. Am I doing this completely wrongly, or is there away to force these "inner" apps to be referred to by their full name?

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  • CSS Clearing Floats

    - by Frank
    I'm making more of an effort to separate my html structure from presentation, but sometimes when I look at the complexity of the hacks or workarounds to make things work cross-browser, I'm amazed at huge collective waste of productive hours that are put into this. As I understand it, floats were never created for creating layouts, but because many layouts need a footer, that's how they're often being used. To clear the floats, you can add an empty div that clears both sides (div class="clear"). That is simple and works cross browser, but it adds "non-semantic" html rather than solving the presentation problem within the CSS. I realize this, but after looking at all of the solutions with their benefits and drawbacks, it seems to make more sense to go with the empty div (predictable behavior across browsers), rather than create separate stylesheets, including various css hacks and workarounds, etc. which would also need to change as CSS evolves. Is it o.k. to do this as long as you do understand what you're doing and why you're doing it? Or is it better to find the CSS workarounds, hacks and separate structure from presentation at all costs, even when the CSS presentation tools provided are not evolved to the point where they can handle such basic layout issues?

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  • Database structure for ecommerce site

    - by imanc
    Hey Guys, I have been tasked with designing an ecommerce solution. The aspect that is causing me the most problems is the database. Currently the site consists of 10+ country based shops each with their own database (all residing on the same mysql instance). For the new site I'd rather all these shop databases be merged into one database so that all tables (products, orders, customers etc.) have a shop_id field. From a programming perspective this seems to make the most sense as we won't have to manage data across multiple databases. Currently the entire site generates about 120k orders a year, but is experiencing fairly heavy growth and we need to design a solution that will scale. In 5 years there may be more than a million orders per year and a database that contains 5 years order history (archiving maybe a solution here). The question is - do we use a single database, or do we keep the database-per-shop structure? I am currently trying to find supporting evidence for either avenue. The company I am designing the solution for prefer the per-shop database structure because they believe it will allow the sites to scale. But my argument is that the shop's database probably won't get that busy over the next few years that they exceed the capacity of a mysql database and a "no expenses spared" hardware set-up. I am wondering if anyone has any advice either way? Does anyone have experience with websites / ecommerce sites that have tables containing millions of records? I know there is probably not a clear answer here, but at what stage do we have too many records or too large table files to have a fast loading site? Also, if anyone has any advice on sources of information - books, websites, etc. where I can do further research, it would be highly appreciated! Cheers, imanc

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  • C# sqlite syntax in ASP.NET?

    - by acidzombie24
    -edit- This is no longer relevant and the question doesnt make sense to me anymore. I think i wanted to know how to create tables or know if the syntax is the same from winform to ASP.NET I am very use to sqlite http://sqlite.phxsoftware.com/ and would like to create a DB in a similar style. How do i do this? it doesnt need to be the same, just similar enough for me to enjoy. An example of the syntax. connection = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=" + sz +";Version=3"); command = new SQLiteCommand(connection); connection.Open(); command.CommandText = "CREATE TABLE if not exists miscInfo(key TEXT, " + "value TEXT, UNIQUE (key));"; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); The @name is a symbol and command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; replaces the symbol with escaped values/texts/blob command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO discData(rootfolderID, time, volumeName, discLabel, " + "userTitle, userDesc) "+ "VALUES(@rootfolderID, @time, @volumeName, @discLabel, " + "@userTitle, @userDesc); " + "SELECT last_insert_rowid() AS RecordID;"; command.Parameters.Add("@rootfolderID", DbType.Int64).Value = d.rootfolderID; command.Parameters.Add("@time", DbType.Int64).Value = d.time; command.Parameters.Add("@volumeName", DbType.String).Value = d.volumeName; command.Parameters.Add("@discLabel", DbType.String).Value = d.discLabel; command.Parameters.Add("@userTitle", DbType.String).Value = d.userTitle; command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; d.discID = (long)command.ExecuteScalar();

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  • Reorganizing development environment for single developer/small shop

    - by Matthew
    I have been developing for my company for approximately three years. We serve up a web portal using Microsoft .NET and MS SQL Server on DotNetNuke. I am going to leave my job full time at the end of April. I am leaving on good terms, and I really care about this company and the state of the web project. Because I haven't worked in a team environment in a long time, I have probably lost touch with what 'real' setups look like. When I leave, I predict the company will either find another developer to take over, or at least have developers work on a contractual basis. Because I have not worked with other developers, I am very concerned with leaving the company (and the developer they hire) with a jumbled mess. I'd like to believe I am a good developer and everything makes sense, but I have no way to tell. My question, is how do I set up the development environment, so the company and the next developer will have little trouble getting started? What would you as a developer like in place before working on a project you've never worked on? Here's some relevant information: There is a development server onsite and a production server offsite in a data center . There is a server where backups and source code (Sourcegear Vault) are stored. There is no formal documentation but there are comments in the code. The company budget is tight so free suggestions will help the best. I will be around after the end of April on a consulting basis so I can ask simple questions but I will not be available full time to train someone

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  • Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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  • What database strategy to choose for a large web application

    - by Snoopy
    I have to rewrite a large database application, running on 32 servers. The hardware is up to date, each machine has two quad core Xeon and 32 GByte RAM. The database is multi-tenant, each customer has his own file, around 5 to 10 GByte each. I run around 50 databases on this hardware. The app is open to the web, so I have no control on the load. There are no really complex queries, so SQL is not required if there is a better solution. The databases get updated via FTP every day at midnight. The database is read-only. C# is my favourite language and I want to use ASP.NET MVC. I thought about the following options: Use two big SQL servers running SQL Server 2012 to serve the 32 servers with data. On the 32 servers running IIS hosting providing REST services. Denormalize the database and use Redis on each webserver. Use booksleeve as a Redis client. Use a combination of SQL Server and Redis Use SQL Server 2012 together with Hadoop Use Hadoop without SQL Server What is the best way for a read-only database, to get the best performance without loosing maintainability? Does Map-Reduce make sense at all in such a scenario? The reason for the rewrite is, the old app written in C++ with ISAM technology is too slow, the interfaces are old fashioned and not nice to use from an website, especially when using ajax. The app uses a relational datamodel with many tables, but it is possible to write one accerlerator table where all queries can be performed on, and all other information from the other tables are possible by a simple key lookup.

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  • Resource mapping in a Ruby on Rails URL (RESTful API)

    - by randombits
    I'm having a bit of difficulty coming up with the right answer to this, so I will solicit my problem here. I'm working on a RESTFul API. Naturally, I have multiple resources, some of which consist of parent to child relationships, some of which are stand alone resources. Where I'm having a bit of difficulty is figuring out how to make things easier for the folks who will be building clients against my API. The situation is this. Hypothetically I have a 'Street' resource. Each street has multiple homes. So Street :has_many to Homes and Homes :belongs_to Street. If a user wants to request an HTTP GET on a specific home resource, the following should work: http://mymap/streets/5/homes/10 That allows a user to get information for a home with the id 10. Straight forward. My question is, am I breaking the rules of the book by giving the user access to: http://mymap/homes/10 Technically that home resource exists on its own without the street. It makes sense that it exists as its own entity without an encapsulating street, even though business logic says otherwise. What's the best way to handle this?

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  • Why is alert not run even though $.getJSON runs fine? (Callback not executed, even though the reques

    - by Emre Sevinç
    I have a snippet of code such as: $.getJSON("http://mysite.org/polls/saveLanguageTest?url=" + escape(window.location.href) + "&callback=?", function (data) { var serverResponse = data.result; console.log(serverResponse); alert(serverResponse); }); It works fine in the sense that it makes a cross-domain request to my server and the server saves the data as I expect. Unfortunately, even though the server saves data and sends back a response I just can't get any alert or the console.log run. Why may be that? The server side code is (if that is relevant): def saveLanguageTest(request): callback = request.GET.get('callback', '') person = Person(firstName = 'Anonymous', ipAddress = request.META['REMOTE_ADDR']) person.save() webPage = WebPage(url = request.GET.get('url')) webPage.save() langTest = LanguageTest(type = 'prepositionTest') langTest.person = person langTest.webPage = webPage langTest.save() req ['result'] = 'Your test is saved.' response = json.dumps(req) response = callback + '(' + response + ');' return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") What am I missing? (I tried the same code both within my web pages and inside the Firebug and I always have the problem stated above.)

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  • jQuery Looking for a function to equalize heights of divs based on tallest image in a table.

    - by Jamie
    I am doing a site that will have a table with a bunch of images in them. They are user added images so I have no control over aspect ratio, what I do have control over is I can the force a max height/width and the image will not exceed this in either direction, but the height can (and will) fluctuate. <table class="pl_upload"> <tr class="row1"> <td class="col1"> <div> <div class="img-container"> <a href="#"><img src="img.jpg" width="182" alt="X" /></a> </div> </div> </td> ....... What I need ideally is to get the height of the tallest image and then make the all of the children divs the same height based on the height of the tallest one. I hope that makes sense, been a long day. I made a jsfiddle page for it here: http://jsfiddle.net/Evolution/27EJB/

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  • Is it possible for two VS2008 C# class library projects to share a single namespace?

    - by jeah
    I am trying to share a common namespace between two projects in a single solution. The projects are "Blueprint" and "Repositories". Blueprint contains Interfaces for the entire application and serves as a reference for the application structure. In the Blueprint project, I have an interface with the following declaration: namespace Application.Repositories{ public interface IRepository{ IEntity Get(Guid id); } } In the Repositories project I have a class the following class: namespace Application.Repositories{ public class STDRepository: IRepository { STD Get(Guid id){ return new SkankyExGirlfriendDataContext() .FirstOrDefault<STD>(x=>x.DiseaseId == id); } } } However, this does not work. The Repositories project has a reference to the Blueprint project. I receive a VS error: "The type or namespace name 'IRepository' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) - Normally, this is easy to fix but adding a using statement doesn't make sense since they have the same namespace. I tried it anyway and it didn't work. The reference has been added, and without the line of code referencing that interface, both projects compile successfully. I am lost here. I have searched all over and have found nothing, so I am assuming that there is something fundamentally wrong with what I'm doing ... but I don't know what it is. So, I would appreciate some explanation or guidance as to how to fix this problem. I hope you guys can help. Note: The reason I want to do it this way and keep the interfaces under the same namespace is because I want a solid project to keep all the interfaces in, in order to have a reference for the full architecture of the application. I have considered work arounds, such as putting all of the interfaces in the Blueprint.Application namespace instead of the application namespace. However, that would require me to write the using statement on virtually every page in the application...and my fingers get tired. Thanks again guys...

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  • jQuery: Targeting elements added via *non-jQuery* AJAX before any Javascript events fire? Beyond th

    - by peteorpeter
    Working on a Wicket application that adds markup to the DOM after onLoad via Wicket's built-in AJAX for an auto-complete widget. We have an IE6 glitch that means I need to reposition the markup coming in, and I am trying to avoid tampering with the Wicket javascript... blah blah blah... here's what I'm trying to do: New markup arrives in the DOM (I don't have access to a callback) Somehow I know this, so I fire my code. I tried this, hoping the new tags would trigger onLoad events: $("selectorForNewMarkup").live("onLoad", function(){ //using jQuery 1.4.1 //my code }); ...but have become educated that onLoad only fires on the initial page load. Is there another event fired when elements are added to the DOM? Or another way to sense changes to the DOM? Everything I've bumped into on similar issues with new markup additions, they have access to the callback function on .load() or similar, or they have a real javascript event to work with and live() works perfectly. Is this a pipe dream?

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