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  • How do I call +class methods in Objective C without referencing the class?

    - by TimM
    I have a series of "policy" objects which I thought would be convenient to implement as class methods on a set of policy classes. I have specified a protocol for this, and created classes to conform to (just one shown below) @protocol Counter +(NSInteger) countFor: (Model *)model; @end @interface CurrentListCounter : NSObject <Counter> +(NSInteger) countFor: (Model *)model; @end I then have an array of the classes that conform to this protocol (like CurrentListCounter does) +(NSArray *) availableCounters { return [[[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [CurrentListCounter class],[AllListsCounter class], nil] autorelease]; } Notice how I am using the classes like objects (and this might be my problem - in Smalltalk classes are objects like everything else - I'm not sure if they are in Objective-C?) My exact problem is when I want to call the method when I take one of the policy objects out of the array: id<Counter> counter = [[MyModel availableCounters] objectAtIndex: self.index]; return [counter countFor: self]; I get a warning on the return statement - it says -countFor: not found in protocol (so its assuming its an instance method where I want to call a class method). However as the objects in my array are instances of class, they are now like instance methods (or conceptually they should be). Is there a magic way to call class methods? Or is this just a bad idea and I should just create instances of my policy objects (and not use class methods)?

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  • Way to get unsigned char into a std::string without reinterpret_cast?

    - by WilliamKF
    I have an unsigned char array that I need in a std::string, but my current way uses reinterpret_cast which I would like to avoid. Is there a cleaner way to do this? unsigned char my_txt[] = { 0x52, 0x5f, 0x73, 0x68, 0x7e, 0x29, 0x33, 0x74, 0x74, 0x73, 0x72, 0x55 } unsigned int my_txt_len = 12; std::string my_std_string(reinterpret_cast<const char *>(my_txt), my_txt_len);

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  • What can cause a spontaneous EPIPE error without either end calling close() or crashing?

    - by Hongli
    I have an application that consists of two processes (let's call them A and B), connected to each other through Unix domain sockets. Most of the time it works fine, but some users report the following behavior: A sends a request to B. This works. A now starts reading the reply from B. B sends a reply to A. The corresponding write() call returns an EPIPE error, and as a result B close() the socket. However, A did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. A's read() call returns 0, indicating end-of-file. A thinks that B prematurely closed the connection. Users have also reported variations of this behavior, e.g.: A sends a request to B. This works partially, but before the entire request is sent A's write() call returns EPIPE, and as a result A close() the socket. However B did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. B reads a partial request and then suddenly gets an EOF. The problem is I cannot reproduce this behavior locally at all. I've tried OS X and Linux. The users are on a variety of systems, mostly OS X and Linux. Things that I've already tried and considered: Double close() bugs (close() is called twice on the same file descriptor): probably not as that would result in EBADF errors, but I haven't seen them. Increasing the maximum file descriptor limit. One user reported that this worked for him, the rest reported that it did not. What else can possibly cause behavior like this? I know for certain that neither A nor B close() the socket prematurely, and I know for certain that neither of them have crashed because both A and B were able to report the error. It is as if the kernel suddenly decided to pull the plug from the socket for some reason.

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  • Is it possible to virtualize war file execution without separate J2EE container deployments?

    - by Smith
    Let's say I want to allow my developers to upload their war files to a web app (not the application server itself) running on our intranet and that web app would then run those wars as if they were separate apps deployed individually in our J2EE container. In other words, we are not actually deploying the wars as separate apps in the container - they are simply running side-by-side inside this one web app that acts like a J2EE container. Is that possible? Something like a war virtualization app?

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  • AWK: how to reuse a result NR-times without removing END?

    - by HH
    How can I get all differences, not just one? I want to use the calculated result for each item in the third column. The dilemma is that if I remove END I can print $3 but cannot have ave. If I leave END I have ave but not all differences. awk '{sum+=$3} END {ave=sum/NR} END {print $3-ave}' coriolis_data -0.00964 // I want to see the rest differences, how? coriolis_data .105 0.005 0.9766 0.0001 0.595 0.005 .095 0.005 0.9963 0.0001 0.595 0.005 .115 0.005 0.9687 0.0001 0.595 0.005 .105 0.005 0.9693 0.0001 0.595 0.005 .095 0.005 0.9798 0.0001 0.595 0.005 .105 0.005 0.9798 0.0001 0.595 0.005 .095 0.005 0.9711 0.0001 0.595 0.005 .110 0.005 0.9640 0.0001 0.595 0.005 .105 0.005 0.9704 0.0001 0.595 0.005 .090 0.005 0.9644 0.0001 0.595 0.005

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  • How do I reload a Roo project without clearing the database?

    - by Omniwombat
    I've been learning how to build projects using Roo and am making good progress. I have the nucleus of a project which correctly displays my defined entities and allows me to create, edit, and delete the representative objects. I am using mysql at the database and I see that objects entered using the UI correctly appear in the mysql database. Per the Roo instructions, I am starting the webapp using "mvn tomcat:run". Unfortunately, I've discovered that whenever I restart Tomcat using Maven, it clears all of the existing objects out of the database. I'm left with empty tables. It seems to do this as the final step just prior to Tomcat stating that the server has started. I know this is just me being a n00b, but searches haven't been very helpful, none of the project's XML files seem relevant,

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  • Is it possible to have SNMP Agent without MIB’s support??

    - by Divya mohan Singh
    hii, i am working on SNMP from last few days,i have develope a small application(SNMP Agent) which * Run on 161 port. * Have a tree structured OID support. * Respond to all Get,GetNext,Set Pdu Request types. * Tested with some SNMP Managers(free available) by get and set the values of the OID's. BUT,now question is when i tried it with Cacti it will not respond anything,but detect windows snmp service..it just respond to the requests of the SNMP Managers. So,Is it mandatory to provide mib with SNMP Agent??.

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  • Why is it so hard to build a gtk programe without console using cmake in windows?

    - by Runner
    I'm following the tuto: http://zetcode.com/tutorials/gtktutorial/firstprograms/ It works but each time I double click on the executable,there is a console which I don't want it there. How do I get rid of that console? I tried this: add_executable(Cmd WIN32 cmd.c) But got this fatal error: MSVCRTD.lib(crtexew.obj) : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol _WinMain@16 referenced in function ___tmainCRTStartup Cmd.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals While using gcc directly works: gcc -o Cmd cmd.c -mwindows .. I'm guessing it has something to do with the entry function: int main( int argc, char *argv[]),but why gcc works? How can I make it work with cmake?

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  • Localized Android app without using "res" folder. Is there a downside?

    - by user312916
    I am developing a game with Unity 3D and want to use custom code to get strings in the various languages I will be supporting. I've read articles about using the Android "res/values-xx/" directories (such as this page: http://developer.android.com/training/basics/supporting-devices/languages.html). If I do not store my translated strings in this way is there a downside? My main concern is whether the Google Play store may not know what languages my app is localized for.

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  • The best way to predict performance without actually porting the code?

    - by ardiyu07
    I believe there are people with the same experience with me, where he/she must give a (estimated) performance report of porting a program from sequential to parallel with some designated multicore hardwares, with a very few amount of time given. For instance, if a 10K LoC sequential program was given and executes on Intel i7-3770k (not vectorized) in 100 ms, how long would it take to run if one parallelizes the code to a Tesla C2075 with NVIDIA CUDA, given that all kinds of parallelizing optimization techniques were done? (but you're only given 2-4 days to report the performance? assume that you didn't know the algorithm at all. Or perhaps it'd be safer if we just assume that it's an impossible situation to finish the job) Therefore, I'm wondering, what most likely be the fastest way to give such performance report? Is it safe to calculate solely by the hardware's capability, such as GFLOPs peak and memory bandwidth rate? Is there a mathematical way to calculate it? If there is, please prove your method with the corresponding problem description and the algorithm, and also the target hardwares' specifications. Or perhaps there already exists such tool to (roughly) estimate code porting? (Please don't the answer: 'kill yourself is the fastest way.')

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  • With PHP and AJAX, Can two clients inter-exchange data without MySQL?

    - by Devyn
    Hi, Let's assume I'm developing a AJAX, PHP chess game. During the game, one movement of a player will be notified to the another but we are not saving that information. Normally, we used to store in MySQL every time a player makes movement and show update position to another player. What I want is to reduce MySQL load as much as possible and server is not interested in movements between two players. Server will only save final result like who wins. So what should I do?

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  • How to remove/hide <div></div> tags only without the content?

    - by candies
    For example I have: <div id ="test">[the content here]</div> The content within the div tags will appear after I called the id of div using ajax. This is the code: function dinamic(add) { var kode = add.value; if (!kode) return; xmlhttp2.open('get', '../template/get_id.php?kode='+kode, true); xmlhttp2.onreadystatechange = function() { if ((xmlhttp2.readyState == 4) && (xmlhttp2.status == 200)) { var add = document.getElementById("test"); add.innerHTML = xmlhttp2.responseText; } return false; } xmlhttp2.send(null); } So it will appear <div id="test">A</div> I'd like to put the content of div - A into mysql query. $test = $_GET['test']; $query = "select * from example where category='$test'"; I've tried to make variable $test of the div id to get the content but result of the query in category is none. I tried again, I put the div in to the query $query = "select * from example where category='<div id=\"test\">A</div>'"; Yes, It works. But when I did query on navicat, no results I got because there's spaces between A that is <div> and </div>. How to remove/hide the div tags only so its only appear the content? > $query = "select * from example where category='A'"; < Edit: If I echo the query on firefox browser will say "$query = "select * from example where category='[space]A[space]'";" And look at the bug(I use firebug), it will say "$query = "select * from example where category='<div id="test">A</div>'";" So my guessing why can't get result after query on navicat is there's spaces between A([space]A[space]), just have no idea how to remove/hide the div tags, I want to get this result only "$query = "select * from example where category='A'";" Thanks.

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  • Is it possible to auto update only selected properties on an existent entity object without touching the others

    - by LaserBeak
    Say I have a bunch of boolean properties on my entity class public bool isActive etc. Values which will be manipulated by setting check boxes in a web application. I will ONLY be posting back the one changed name/value pair and the primary key at a time, say { isActive : true , NewsPageID: 34 } and the default model binder will create a NewsPage object with only those two properties set. Now if I run the below code it will not only update the values for the properties that have been set on the NewsPage object created by the model binder but of course also attempt to null all the other non set values for the existent entity object because they are not set on NewsPage object created by the model binder. Is it possible to somehow tell entity framework not to look at the properties that are set to null and attempt to persist those changes back to the retrieved entity object and hence database ? Perhaps there's some code I can write that will only utilize the non-null values and their property names on the NewsPage object created by model binder and only attempt to update those particular properties ? [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(NewsPage Np) { Np.ModifyDate = DateTime.Now; _db.NewsPages.Attach(Np); _db.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(Np, System.Data.EntityState.Modified); _db.SaveChanges(); _db.Dispose(); return PartialView("MonthNewsData"); } I can of course do something like below, but I have a feeling it's not the optimal solution. Especially considering that I have like 6 boolean properties that I need to set. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(int NewsPageID, bool isActive, bool isOnFrontPage) { if (isActive != null) { //Get entity and update this property } if (isOnFontPage != null) { //Get entity and update this property } }

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  • Is there any tips for minimising access to a public page without login?

    - by alex
    I have a page that is just a non interactive display for a shop window. Obviously, I don't link to it, and I'd also like to avoid people stumbling across it (by Google etc). It will always be powered by Chrome. I have thought of... Checking User Agent for Chrome Ensuring resolution is 1920 x 1080 (not that useful as it is a client side check) Banning under robots.txt to keep Google out of it Do you have any more suggestions? Should I not really worry about it?

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  • Is there a command to test an SQL query without executing it? ( MySQL or ANSI SQL )

    - by Petruza
    Is there anything like this: TEST DELETE FROM user WHERE somekey = 45; That can return any errors, for example that somekey doesn't exist, or some constraint violation or anything, and reporting how many rows would be affected, but not executing the query? I know you can easily turn any query in a select query that has no write or delete effect in any row, but that can lead to errors and it's not very practical if you want to test and debug many queries.

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  • How can I post an array of string to ASP.NET MVC Controller without a form?

    - by rodbv
    Hi there, I am creating a small app to teach myself ASP.NET MVC and JQuery, and one of the pages is a list of items in which some can be selected. Then I would like to press a button and send a List (or something equivalent) to my controller containing the ids of the items that were selected, using JQuery's Post function. I managed to get an array with the ids of the elements that were selected, and now I want to post that. One way I could do this is to have a dummy form in my page, with a hidden value, and then set the hidden value with the selected items, and post that form; this looks crufty, though. Is there a cleaner way to achieve this, by sending the array directly to the controller? I've tried a few different things but it looks like the controller can't map the data it's receiving. Here's the code so far: function generateList(selectedValues) { var s = { values: selectedValues //selectedValues is an array of string }; $.post("/Home/GenerateList", $.toJSON(s), function() { alert("back") }, "json"); } And then my Controller looks like this public ActionResult GenerateList(List<string> values) { //do something } All I managed to get is a "null" in the controller parameter... Any tips?

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  • How to initialise an array inside a struct without doing each element separately? (C++)

    - by Janet
    My questions are in the code, but basically i want to know how/if I can do the two commented out lines? I know I can do it in a constructor but I don't want to! struct foo { int b[4]; } boo; //boo.b[] = {7, 6, 5, 4}; // <- why doesn't this work? (syntax error : ']') //boo.b = {7, 6, 5, 4}; // <- or else this? (syntax error : '{') boo.b[0] = 7; // <- doing it this way is annoying boo.b[1] = 6; // : boo.b[2] = 5; // : boo.b[3] = 4; // <- doing it this way is annoying boo.b[4] = 3; // <- why does this work! (Using: C++, Visual Studio 2005.)

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  • Shuffle array variables in a pre-specified order, without using extra memory of "size of input array"

    - by Eternal Learner
    Input : A[4] = {0,4,-1,1000} - Actual Array P[4] = {1,0,3,2} - Order to be reshuffled Output: A[4] = {4,0,1000,-1} Condition : Don't use an additional array as memory. Can use an extra variable or two. Problem : I have the below program in C++, but this fails for certain inputs of array P. #include<iostream> using namespace std; void swap(int *a_r,int *r) { int temp = *r; *r = *a_r; *a_r = temp; } int main() { int A[4] = {0,4,-1,1000}; int P[4] = {3,0,1,2}; int value = A[0] , dest = P[0]; for(int i=0; i<4;i++) { swap(&A[dest],&value); dest = P[dest]; } for(int i=0;i<4;i++) cout<<A[i]<<" "; }

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  • How can I profile a subroutine without using modules?

    - by Zaid
    I'm tempted to relabel this question 'Look at this brick. What type of house does it belong to?' Here's the situation: I've effectively been asked to profile some subroutines having access to neither profilers (even Devel::DProf) nor Time::HiRes. The purpose of this exercise is to 'locate' bottlenecks. At the moment, I'm sprinkling print statements at the beginning and end of each sub that log entries and exits to file, along with the result of the time function. Not ideal, but it's the best I can go by given the circumstances. At the very least it'll allow me to see how many times each sub is called. The code is running under Unix. The closest thing I see to my need is perlfaq8, but that doesn't seem to help (I don't know how to make a syscall, and am wondering if it'll affect the code timing unpredictably). Not your typical everyday SO question...

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  • How can I create a rules engine without using eval() or exec()?

    - by Angela
    I have a simple rules/conditions table in my database which is used to generate alerts for one of our systems. I want to create a rules engine or a domain specific language. A simple rule stored in this table would be..(omitting the relationships here) if temp > 40 send email Please note there would be many more such rules. A script runs once daily to evaluate these rules and perform the necessary actions. At the beginning, there was only one rule, so we had the script in place to only support that rule. However we now need to make it more scalable to support different conditions/rules. I have looked into rules engines , but I hope to achieve this in some simple pythonic way. At the moment, I have only come up with eval/exec and I know that is not the most recommended approach. So, what would be the best way to accomplish this?? ( The rules are stored as data in database so each object like "temperature", condition like "/=..etc" , value like "40,50..etc" and action like "email, sms, etc.." are stored in the database, i retrieve this to form the condition...if temp 50 send email, that was my idea to then use exec or eval on them to make it live code..but not sure if this is the right approach )

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