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  • 1k of Program Space, 64 bytes of RAM. Is assembly an absolute must?

    - by Earlz
    (If your lazy see bottom for TL;DR) Hello, I am planning to build a new (prototype) project dealing with physical computing. Basically, I have wires. These wires all need to have their voltage read at the same time. More than a few hundred microseconds difference between the readings of each wire will completely screw it up. The Arduino takes about 114 microseconds. So the most I could read is 2 or 3 wires before the latency would skew the accuracy of the readings. So my plan is to have an Arduino as the "master" of an array of ATTinys. The arduino is pretty cramped for space, but it's a massive playground compared to the tinys. An ATTiny13A has 1k of flash ROM(program space), 64 bytes of RAM, and 64 bytes of (not-durable and slow) EEPROM. (I'm choosing this for price as well as size) The ATTinys in my system will not do much. Basically, all they will do is wait for a signal from the Master, and then read the voltage of 1 or 2 wires and store it in RAM(or possibly EEPROM if it's that cramped). And then send it to the Master using only 1 wire for data.(no room for more than that!). So far then, all I should have to do is implement trivial voltage reading code (using built in ADC). But this communication bit I'm worried about. Do you think a communication protocol(using just 1 wire!) could even be implemented in such constraints? TL;DR: In less than 1k of program space and 64 bytes of RAM(and 64 bytes of EEPROM) do you think it is possible to implement a 1 wire communication protocol? Would I need to drop to assembly to make it fit? I know that currently my Arduino programs linking to the Wiring library are over 8k, so I'm a bit concerned.

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  • Domain Transfer Protection - need advice

    - by Jack
    Hey, I am about to purchase a domain name for a bit of money. I do not personally know the person who I am purchasing the domain name from, we have only chatted via email. The proposed process for the transfer is: The owner of the domain lowest the domain name security and emails me the domain password, I request the transfer After the request, I transfer the money via PayPal When the money has been cleared the current domain name owner confirms the transfer via the link that he receives in that email I wait for it to be transferred. The domain is currently registered with DirectNIC - http://www.directnic.com/ Is this the best practice? Seeing I am paying a bit of money for this domain name, I am worried that after the money has been cleared that I won't see the domain name or hear from the current domain name owner again. Is there a 'domain governing body' which I can report to if this is the case? Is the proposed transfer process the best solution? Any advice would be awesome. Thanks! Jack

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  • Calculate an Internet (aka IP, aka RFC791) checksum in C#

    - by Pat
    Interestingly, I can find implementations for the Internet Checksum in almost every language except C#. Does anyone have an implementation to share? Remember, the internet protocol specifies that: "The checksum field is the 16 bit one's complement of the one's complement sum of all 16 bit words in the header. For purposes of computing the checksum, the value of the checksum field is zero." More explanation can be found from Dr. Math. There are some efficiency pointers available, but that's not really a large concern for me at this point. Please include your tests! (Edit: Valid comment regarding testing someone else's code - but I am going off of the protocol and don't have test vectors of my own and would rather unit test it than put into production to see if it matches what is currently being used! ;-) Edit: Here are some unit tests that I came up with. They test an extension method which iterates through the entire byte collection. Please comment if you find fault in the tests. [TestMethod()] public void InternetChecksum_SimplestValidValue_ShouldMatch() { IEnumerable<byte> value = new byte[1]; // should work for any-length array of zeros ushort expected = 0xFFFF; ushort actual = value.InternetChecksum(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } [TestMethod()] public void InternetChecksum_ValidSingleByteExtreme_ShouldMatch() { IEnumerable<byte> value = new byte[]{0xFF}; ushort expected = 0xFF; ushort actual = value.InternetChecksum(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } [TestMethod()] public void InternetChecksum_ValidMultiByteExtrema_ShouldMatch() { IEnumerable<byte> value = new byte[] { 0x00, 0xFF }; ushort expected = 0xFF00; ushort actual = value.InternetChecksum(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); }

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  • Multiplication of 2 positive numbers giving a negative result

    - by krandiash
    My program is an implementation of a bloom filter. However, when I'm storing my hash function results in the bit array, the function (of the form f(i) = (a*i + b) % m where a,b,i,m are all positive integers) is giving me a negative result. The problem seems to be in the calculation of a*i which is coming out to be negative. Ignore the print statements in the code; those were for debugging. Basically, the value of temp in this block of code is coming out to be negative and so I'm getting an ArrayOutOfBoundsException. m is the bit array length, z is the number of hash functions being used, S is the set of values which are members of this bloom filter and H stores the values of a and b for the hash functions f1, f2, ..., fz. public static int[] makeBitArray(int m, int z, ArrayList<Integer> S, int[] H) { int[] C = new int[m]; for (int i = 0; i < z; i++) { for (int q = 0; q < S.size() ; q++) { System.out.println(H[2*i]); int temp = S.get(q)*(H[2*i]); System.out.println(temp); System.out.println(S.get(q)); System.out.println(H[2*i + 1]); System.out.println(m); int t = ((H[2*i]*S.get(q)) + H[2*i + 1])%m; System.out.println(t); C[t] = 1; } } return C; } Any help is appreciated.

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  • Translating Where() to sql

    - by MBoros
    Hi. I saw DamienG's article (http://damieng.com/blog/2009/06/24/client-side-properties-and-any-remote-linq-provider) in how to map client properties to sql. i ran throgh this article, and i saw great potential in it. Definitely mapping client properties to SQL is an awesome idea. But i wanted to use this for something a bit more complicated then just concatenating strings. Atm we are trying to introduce multilinguality to our Business objects, and i hoped we could leave all the existing linq2sql queries intact, and just change the code of the multilingual properties, so they would actually return the given property in the CurrentUICulture. The first idea was to change these fields to XMLs, and then try the Object.Property.Elements().Where(...), but it got stuck on the Elements(), as it couldnt translate it to sql. I read somewhere that XML fields are actually regarded as strings, and only on the app server they become XElements, so this way the filtering would be on the app server anyways, not the DB. Fair point, it wont work like this. Lets try something else... SO the second idea was to create a PolyGlots table (name taken from http://weblogic.sys-con.com/node/102698?page=0,1), a PolyGlotTranslations table and a Culture table, where the PolyGlots would be referenced from each internationalized property. This way i wanted to say for example: private static readonly CompiledExpression<Announcement, string> nameExpression = DefaultTranslationOf<Announcement> .Property(e => e.Name) .Is(e=> e.NamePolyGlot.PolyGlotTranslations .Where(t=> t.Culture.Code == Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.Name) .Single().Value ); now unfortunately here i get an error that the Where() function cannot be translated to sql, what is a bit disappointing, as i was sure it will go through. I guess it is failing, cause the IEntitySet is basically an IEnumerable, not IQueryable, am i right? Is there another way to use the compiledExpressions class to achieve this goal? Any help appreciated.

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  • jQuery UI slider coming out looking wierd

    - by jondavidjohn
    http://cl.ly/2W1V3s0G2G3y3D133I3U <--screenshot of rendered slider It acts normally by clicking the inner whitespace of the slider and dragging, values act accordingly, but the handles do not move and fill the area, and the line at the top grows/shrinks with the difference of the two values. Here is the code I am using to initiate the slider. $('.sliderific').each(function(){ alert($(this).attr('id')); $(this).slider({ range: true, min: 0, max: 500, values: [ 75, 300 ], slide: function( event, ui ) { $(this).nextAll('.left:first').text(ui.values[ 0 ]); $(this).nextAll('.right:first').text(ui.values[ 1 ]); } }); }); and here is the DOM it's being applied to... <div class="white notwide"> <div id="price-slider" class="sliderific"></div> <span class="em small gray left center">Min Price</span> <span class="em small gray right center">Max Price </span> </div> EDIT : Also, I have verified I am including the proper css and the jquery theme images are connecting and being loaded.

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  • Strange constructor

    - by Bilthon
    Well, I'm gonna be pretty straightforward here, I just have a piece of code in c++ which I'm not sure I really understand and need some help with. Ok, to simplify lets just say I have a class that is defined like this: (the real class is a little bit more complicated, but this is what matters) class myClass : public Runnable { Semaphore *m_pMySemaphore; __Queue<Requests> *m_pQueue; Request m_Request; VetorSlotBuffer *m_vetorSlotBuffer; } Up to here nothing is wrong, myClass is just a regular class which has 3 members that actually are pointers to other classes and an object of the class Request, the implementation of those classes not being important for my point here. Then when this person implemented the constructor for myClass he or she did this: myClass::myClass() : m_pMySemaphore(0), m_pQueue(0), m_vetorSlotBuffer(0) { } It's pretty evident that those three variables are treated like that by the constructor because they are pointers, am I right? but what kind of syntax is that? am I setting the pointers to null by doing that? I've seen a little bit of c++ already but never found something like that. And secondly, what's the deal with the ":" after the constructor declaration? that I've seen but never took the time to investigate. Is this like an inner class or something? Thank you very much in advance. Nelson R. Perez

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  • Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

    - by mannish
    So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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  • tipfy for Google App Engine: Is it stable? Can auth/session components of tipfy be used with webapp?

    - by cv12
    I am building a web application on Google App Engine that requires users to register with the application and subsequently authenticate with it and maintain sessions. I don't want to force users to have Google accounts. Also, the target audience for the application is the average non-geek, so I'm not very keen on using OpenID or OAuth. I need something simple like: User registers with an e-mail and password, and then can log back in with those credentials. I understand that this approach does not provide the security benefits of Google or OpenID authentication, but I am prepared to trade foolproof security for end-user convenience and hassle-free experience. I explored Django, but decided that consecutive deprecations from appengine-helper to app-engine-patch to django-nonrel may signal that path may be a bit risky in the long-term. I'd like to use a code base that is likely to be maintained consistently. I also explored standalone session/auth packages like gaeutilities and suas. GAEUtilities looked a bit immature (e.g., the code wasn't pythonic in places, in my opinion) and SUAS did not give me a lot of comfort with the cookie-only sessions. I could be wrong with my assessment of these two, so I would appreciate input on those (or others that may serve my objective). Finally, I recently came across tipfy. It appears to be based on Werkzeug and Alex Martelli spoke highly of it here on stackoverflow. I have two primary questions related to tipfy: As a framework, is it as mature as webapp? Is it stable and likely to be maintained for some time? Since my primary interest is the auth/session components, can those components of the tipfy framework be used with webapp, independent of the broader tipfy framework? If yes, I would appreciate a few pointers to how I could go about doing that.

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  • Creating a smart text generator

    - by royrules22
    I'm doing this for fun (or as 4chan says "for teh lolz") and if I learn something on the way all the better. I took an AI course almost 2 years ago now and I really enjoyed it but I managed to forget everything so this is a way to refresh that. Anyway I want to be able to generate text given a set of inputs. Basically this will read forum inputs (or maybe Twitter tweets) and then generate a comment based on the learning. Now the simplest way would be to use a Markov Chain Text Generator but I want something a little bit more complex than that as the MKC basically only learns by word order (which word is more likely to appear after word x given the input text). I'm trying to see if there's something I can do to make it a little bit more smarter. For example I want it to do something like this: Learn from a large selection of posts in a message board but don't weight it too much For each post: Learn from the other comments in that post and weigh these inputs higher Generate comment and post See what other users' reaction to your post was. If good weigh it positively so you make more posts that are similar to the one made, and vice versa if negative. It's the weighing and learning from mistakes part that I'm not sure how to implement. I thought about Artificial Neural Networks (mainly because I remember enjoying that chapter) but as far as I can tell that's mainly used to classify things (i.e. given a finite set of choices [x1...xn] which x is this given input) not really generate anything. I'm not even sure if this is possible or if it is what should I go about learning/figuring out. What algorithm is best suited for this? To those worried that I will use this as a bot to spam or provide bad answers to SO, I promise that I will not use this to provide (bad) advice or to spam for profit. I definitely will not post it's nonsensical thoughts on SO. I plan to use it for my own amusement. Thanks!

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  • can I disable the "(Type e to repeat macro)" message in emacs?

    - by lindes
    Hi there, So, I've finally made the plunge, and have gotten to the state where I'm quite happy to have switched from vi and vim to emacs... I've been putting stuff in my .emacs file, learning how to evaluate things (not to mention becoming familiar with movement commands), etc. etc. etc. And now I have a problem with a require line in my .emacs file (a require statement*), which bombs out when I launch emacs (and generally fails to work). So, this lead me to the following situation: In the process of trying to debug the above situation, one of the steps I did was to open the file I was trying to require, and evaluate it bit by bit, using C-M-f and C-x C-e (and later just M-x eval-buffer), which all worked fine. But along the way of the section-by-section, I got tired of typing all those, and so I recorded a keyboard macro... C-x ( C-M-f C-x C-e C-x ) and then C-x e... which gave me a message in the minibuffer (I think I'm using the right name), saying (Type e to repeat macro). Which meant I could no longer see the resultant value of the evaluation of each section of code... which, while not critical in this case, I was liking having. Which leads me to the actual question: Is there a way to disable that message, and/or to cause the minibuffer to show multiple lines at once? I know about the *Messages* buffer, and that could have helped, I'm just wondering if there's a way to either disable that message, or otherwise make it coexist with other messages. Any suggestions? Thanks! lindes * - the problem at hand, which is not really my question, is that (require 'ruby-mode/ruby-mode) fails, even though emacs is definitely and successfully (per system call tracing) opening and reading the ruby-mode.el file. I presume this is because the provide line says just 'ruby-mode. I've found a solution for this, but if anyone can point me to any "best practices", I'd appreciate it.

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  • Single developer, project organization

    - by poke
    I am looking for a good (and free) way to organize some of my personal projects. I am saying "organize" because I'm not sure, if the standard project management software solutions are exactly what I am looking for and especially something what I, as a single developer, need. In general, I just want to keep my progress of my projects organized in some way. I would like to be able to keep track of milestones and split those into multiple smaller tasks, so I can keep track of my progress. So some task/issue based system would probably be good, especially as I also want to keep track of issues/bugs with specific versions (although I alone will create those issues). I am and will be the only developer on those projects, so it doesn't matter if the software is offline or online, and I also don't need any collaboration features (like commenting on things, or assigning tasks to other developers etc). But if there is a good software that fits my needs, and in addition it has those things, I don't really care. After all it's easy enough to not use available features. Many online solutions also offer integrated code hosting. I am using git internally, but I don't plan to push any of the code, so such a feature is not needed either. In case of online solutions however I would like the projects to be closed to the public (some of the online utilities only offer open source projects for free and require payments for private projects). I have looked at some project management solutions already, I also read some similar questions here on SO. But given that I'm a single developer, my focus is probably a bit different as when others ask for a huge distributed software that supports many developers and different collaboration features. Some standard answers such as Trac (which also only supports one project), Redmine and FogBUGZ look interesting, but are a bit off my interest (although you may change my mind on that :P). Currently, I'm looking at Indefero which doesn't look too bad. But what do you think?

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  • int considered harmful?

    - by Chris Becke
    Working on code meant to be portable between Win32 and Win64 and Cocoa, I am really struggling to get to grips with what the @#$% the various standards committees involved over the past decades were thinking when they first came up with, and then perpetuated, the crime against humanity that is the C native typeset - char, short, int and long. On the one hand, as a old-school c++ programmer, there are few statements that were as elegant and/or as simple as for(int i=0; i<some_max; i++) but now, it seems that, in the general case, this code can never be correct. Oh sure, given a particular version of MSVC or GCC, with specific targets, the size of 'int' can be safely assumed. But, in the case of writing very generic c/c++ code that might one day be used on 16 bit hardware, or 128, or just be exposed to a particularly weirdly setup 32/64 bit compiler, how does use int in c++ code in a way that the resulting program would have predictable behavior in any and all possible c++ compilers that implemented c++ according to spec. To resolve these unpredictabilities, C99 and C++98 introduced size_t, uintptr_t, ptrdiff_t, int8_t, int16_t, int32_t, int16_t and so on. Which leaves me thinking that a raw int, anywhere in pure c++ code, should really be considered harmful, as there is some (completely c++xx conforming) compiler, thats going to produce an unexpected or incorrect result with it. (and probably be a attack vector as well)

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  • A moral dilemma - What job to go for?

    - by StefanE
    Here is the story: I have accepted an offer from a gaming company to work as an senior test engineer / developer. I have not yet received an signed copy of the contract. I will get a bit less salary then I asked for and it is as well less than I have today. The company have booked flight tickets for my move over there. Now comes the problem. I did an telephone interview with a company last week and they have asked me for an in person interview and are willing to pay for flights for the meeting. This company is my first choice(and have been for a few years) and would also benefit my career and I believe I will enjoy working there more. What should I do here.. I do feel uncomfortable giving a last minute rejection when I have over the phone accepted the offer, but on the other hand they have yet produced a signed contract and as well paying me a bit less than I think I'm worth. The business is small in many ways and I don't want to end up with a bad reputation. Would be great to hear your opinions!

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  • Core principles, rules, and habits for CS students

    - by Asad Butt
    No doubt there is a lot to read on blogs, in books, and on Stack Overflow, but can we identify some guidelines for CS students to use while studying? For me these are: Finish your course books early and read 4-5 times more material relative to your course work. Programming is the one of the fastest evolving professions. Follow the blogs on a daily basis for the latest updates, news, and technologies. Instead of relying on assignments and exams, do at least one extra, non-graded, small to medium-sized project for every programming course. Fight hard for internships or work placements even if they are unpaid, since 3 months of work 1 year at college. Practice everything, every possible and impossible way. Try doing every bit of your assignments project yourself; i.e. fight for every inch. Rely on documentation as the first source for help and samples, Google, and online forums as the last source. Participate often in online communities and forums to learn the best possible approach for every solution to your problem. (After doing your bit.) Make testing one of your habits as it is getting more important everyday in programming. Make writing one of your habits. Write something productive once or twice a week and publish it.

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  • Update table variable with function

    - by Joris
    I got a table variable @RQ, I want it updated using a table-valued function. Now, I think I do the update wrong, because my function works... The function: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[usf_GetRecursiveFoobar] ( @para int, @para datetime, @para varchar(30) ) RETURNS @ReQ TABLE ( Onekey int, Studnr nvarchar(10), Stud int, Description nvarchar(32), ECTSGot decimal(5,2), SBUGot decimal(5,0), ECTSmax decimal(5,2), SBUmax decimal(5,0), IsFree bit, IsGot int, DateGot nvarchar(10), lvl int, path varchar(max) ) AS BEGIN; WITH RQ AS ( --RECURSIVE QUERY ) INSERT @ReQ SELECT RQ.Onekey, RQ.Studnr, RQ.Stud, RQ.Description, RQ.ECTSGot, RQ.SBUGot, RQ.ECTSmax, RQ.SBUmax, RQ.IsFree, RQ.IsGot, RQ.DatumGot, RQ.lvl, RQ.path FROM RQ RETURN END Now, when I run a simple query: DECLARE @ReQ TABLE ( OnderwijsEenheid_key int, StudentnummerHSA nvarchar(10), Student_key int, Omschrijving nvarchar(32), ECTSbehaald decimal(5,2), SBUbehaald decimal(5,0), ECTSmax decimal(5,2), SBUmax decimal(5,0), IsVrijstelling bit, IsBehaald int, DatumBehaald nvarchar(10), lvl int, path varchar(max) ) INSERT INTO @ReQ SELECT * FROM usf_GetRecursiveFoobar(@para1, @para2, @para3) I got error: Msg 8152, Level 16, State 13, Line 20 String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated. Why? What to do about it?

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  • In JSF - What is the correct way to do this? Two dropdown lists with dependency.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm making two dropdown lists in JSF which are dependent. Specifically, one list has all the languages and the second list contains values that are displayed in the currently selected language. I've implemented this by having the second list use information from a Hash and rebuilding that Hash in the setter of the currently selected language. JSF Code Bit: <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedLanguage}" id="languageSelector"> ... (binding to languages hash) ... <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedScript}" id="ScriptPullDown"> ... (binding to scripts hash) ... Backing Bean Code Bit: setCurrentlySelectedLanguage(String lang){ this.currentlySelectedLanguage = lang; rebuildScriptNames(lang); } I'm wondering if that's a good way of doing this or if theres a better method that I am not aware of. Thank you! EDIT - Adding info.. I used a a4j:support that with event="onchange" and ReRender="ScriptPullDown" to rerender the script pull down. I could probably add an action expression to run a method when the value changes. But is there a benefit to doing this over using code in the setter function?

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  • Dynamic columns/rows

    - by Fuego DeBassi
    Wondering--does anyone know of any good articles explaining the CSS technique allowing multiple instances of a class to flow down the page relative to the items above it. Not explaining it that well. Veerle' Pierter's does it on this page: http://veerle.duoh.com/belgiangraphicdesign Although I'm not sure I want to use a technique like her's that requires entering of the height per element via her EE installation. I made a little graphic of what I am trying to acheive; http://cl.ly/71163510ce9d294f9f33 The key is I need a robust technique for doing it. Something where the markup could be as simple as; <div class="box"> Number 1 </div> <div class="box"> Number 2 </div> <div class="box"> Number 3 </div> <div class="box"> Number 4 </div> <div class="box"> Number 5 </div> ... Would love any pointers in the right direction.

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  • Help a Beginner with a PHP based Login System

    - by Brian Lang
    I'm a bit embarrassed to say, but I've run into issue with creating a PHP based login system. I'm using a site template to handle the looks of the the login process, so I will spare you the code. Here is my thought process on how to handle the login: Create a simple login.php file. On there will be a form whose action is set to itself. It will check to see if the submit has been clicked, and if so validate to make sure the user entered a valid password / username. If they do, set a session variable save some login info (username, NOT password), and redirect them to a restricted area. If the login info isn't valid, save an error message in a session variable, display error message giving further instruction, and wait for the user to resubmit. Here is a chunk of what I have - hopefully one of you experts can see where I've gone wrong, and give me some insight: if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { if(!empty($_POST['username']) AND !empty(!$_POST['password'])) { header("Location: http://www.google.com"); } else { $err = 'All the fields must be filled in!'; } } if($err) { $_SESSION['msg']['login-err'] = $err; } ? Now the above is just an example - the intent of the above code is to process user input, with the script validating simply that the user has given input for username and password. If they have, I would like them, in this case, to be redirected to google.com (for the sake of this example). If not, save an error message. Given my current code, the error message will display perfectly, however if the user submits and has something entered for the username and password, the page simply doesn't redirect. I'm sure this is a silly question, but I am a beginner, and well, to be honest, a bit buzzed right now. Thanks so much!

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  • How to delete sentences starting with a lower case letter?

    - by Ron
    Hello: In the example below the following regex (".*?") was used to remove all dialogue first. The next step is to remove all remaining sentences starting with a lower case letter. Only sentences starting with an upper case letter should remain. Example: exclaimed Wade. Indeed, below them were villages, of crude huts made of timber and stone and mud. Rubble work walls, for they needed little shelter here, and the people were but savages. asked Arcot, his voice a bit unsteady with suppressed excitement. replied Morey without turning from his station at the window. Below them now, less than half a mile down on the patchwork of the Nile valley, men were standing, staring up, collecting in little groups, gesticulating toward the strange thing that had materialized in the air above them. In the example above the following should be deleted only: exclaimed Wade. asked Arcot, his voice a bit unsteady with suppressed excitement. replied Morey without turning from his station at the window. A useful regex or simple Perl or python code is appreciated. I'm using version 7 of Textpipe. Thanks.

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  • Getting Depth Value on Kinect SDK 1.6

    - by AlexanderPD
    this is my first try on Kinect and Kinect SDK so I'm having a lot of "newbie issues" :) my goal is to point my mouse on the Kinect standard video output and get the depth value. I already have both normal video and depth video outputs by using the 2 "Color Basic-WPF" and "Depth Basic-WPF" samples, and handling mouse events or position is not a problem. In fact i already did all and i already got a depth value, but this value is always HIGHLY imprecise. It jumps from 500 to 4000 by just moving to the next pixel in a plane surface. So.. I'm pretty sure I'm reading the depth value in the wrong way. This is how i read it: short debugValue = depthPixels[x*y].Depth; debug.Text = "X = "+x+", Y = "+y+", value = "+debugValue.ToString(); i know it's pretty out of context, this little piece of code is inside the same SensorDepthFrameReady function in "Depth Basic-WPF"! "x" and "y" are the mouse coordinates and depthPixels is DepthImagePixel[] type, a temporary array filled with the "depthFrame.CopyDepthImagePixelDataTo(this.depthPixels);" instruction. Depth frame is filled here: DepthImageFrame depthFrame = e.OpenDepthImageFrame() the "e" comes from here: private void SensorDepthFrameReady(object sender, DepthImageFrameReadyEventArgs e) and this last one is called here: this.sensor.DepthFrameReady += this.SensorDepthFrameReady; how i must handle that depth value i get? I know the value must be between 800 and 4000 but i get values between about 500 and about 8000. i already google a lot (here on SO too) and i still can't understand if the depth value is 11 or 13 bit. The sdk examples uses shrink this value to 8 bit and this is making even more confusion in my head :(

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  • Protecting an Application's Memory From Tampering

    - by Changeling
    We are adding AES 256 bit encryption to our server and client applications for encrypting the TCP/IP traffic containing sensitive information. We will be rotating the keys daily. Because of that, the keys will be stored in memory with the applications. Key distribution process: Each server and client will have a list of initial Key Encryption Key's (KEK) by day If the client has just started up or the server has just started up, the client will request the daily key from the server using the initial key. The server will respond with the daily key, encrypted with the initial key. The daily key is a randomly generated set of alphanumeric characters. We are using AES 256 bit encryption. All subsequent communications will be encrypted using that daily key. Nightly, the client will request the new daily key from the server using the current daily key as the current KEK. After the client gets the new key, the new daily key will replace the old daily key. Is it possible for another bad application to gain access to this memory illegally or is this protected in Windows? The key will not be written to a file, only stored in a variable in memory. If an application can access the memory illegally, how can you protect the memory from tampering? We are using C++ and XP (Vista/7 may be an option in the future so I don't know if that changes the answer).

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  • Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

    - by Dan
    I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

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  • Java: easiest way to package both Java 1.5 and 1.6 code

    - by WizardOfOdds
    I want to package a piece of code that absolutely must run on Java 1.5. There's one part of the code where the program can be "enhanced" if the VM is an 1.6 VM. Basically it's this method: private long[] findDeadlockedThreads() { // JDK 1.5 only supports the findMonitorDeadlockedThreads() // method, so you need to comment out the following three lines if (mbean.isSynchronizerUsageSupported()) return mbean.findDeadlockedThreads(); else return mbean.findMonitorDeadlockedThreads(); } What would be easiest way to have this compile on 1.5 and yet do the 1.6 method calls when on 1.6 ? In the past I've done something similar by compiling a unique 1.6 class that I would package with my app and instantiate using a ClassLoader when on 1.6 (because an 1.6 JVM is perfectly fine mixing 0x32 and 0x31 classes), but I think it's a bit overkill (and a bit painful because during the build process you have to build both 0x31 and 0x32 .class files). How should I go if I wanted to compile the above method on 1.5? Maybe using reflection but then how (I'm not familiar at all with reflection) Note: if you're curious, the above method comes from this article: http://www.javaspecialists.eu/archive/Issue130.html (but I don't want to "comment the three lines" like in the article, I want this to compile and run on both 1.5 and 1.6)

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  • SQL 2008 Querying Soap XML

    - by Vince
    I have been trying to process this SOAP XML return using SQL but all I get is NULL or nothing at all. I have tried different ways and pasted them all below. Declare @xmlMsg xml; Set @xmlMsg = '<soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soap:Body> <SendWarrantyEmailResponse xmlns="http://Web.Services.Warranty/"> <SendWarrantyEmailResult xmlns="http://Web.Services.SendWarrantyResult"> <WarrantyNumber>120405000000015</WarrantyNumber> <Result>Cannot Send Email to anonymous account!</Result> <HasError>true</HasError> <MsgUtcTime>2012-06-07T01:11:36.8665126Z</MsgUtcTime> </SendWarrantyEmailResult> </SendWarrantyEmailResponse> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope>'; declare @table table (data xml); insert into @table values (@xmlMsg); select data from @table; WITH xmlnamespaces ('http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/' as [soap], 'http://Web.Services.Warranty' as SendWarrantyEmailResponse, 'http://Web.Services.SendWarrantyResult' as SendWarrantyEmailResult) SELECT Data.value('(/soap:Envelope[1]/soap:Body[1]/SendWarrantyEmailResponse[1]/SendWarrantyEmailResult[1]/WarrantyNumber[1])[1]','VARCHAR(500)') AS WarrantyNumber FROM @Table ; ;with xmlnamespaces('http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/' as [soap],'http://Web.Services.Warranty' as SendWarrantyEmailResponse,'http://Web.Services.SendWarrantyResult' as SendWarrantyEmailResult) --select @xmlMsg.value('(/soap:Envelope/soap:Body/SendWarrantyEmailResponse/SendWarrantyEmailResult/WarrantyNumber)[0]', 'nvarchar(max)') --select T.N.value('.', 'nvarchar(max)') from @xmlMsg.nodes('/soap:Envelope/soap:Body/SendWarrantyEmailResponse/SendWarrantyEmailResult') as T(N) select @xmlMsg.value('(/soap:Envelope/soap:Body/SendWarrantyEmailResponse/SendWarrantyEmailResult/HasError)[1]','bit') as test ;with xmlnamespaces('http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/' as [soap],'http://Web.Services.Warranty' as [SendWarrantyEmailResponse],'http://Web.Services.SendWarrantyResult' as [SendWarrantyEmailResult]) SELECT SendWarrantyEmailResult.value('WarrantyNumber[1]','varchar(max)') AS WarrantyNumber, SendWarrantyEmailResult.value('Result[1]','varchar(max)') AS Result, SendWarrantyEmailResult.value('HasError[1]','bit') AS HasError, SendWarrantyEmailResult.value('MsgUtcTime[1]','datetime') AS MsgUtcTime FROM @xmlMsg.nodes('/soap:Envelope/soap:Body/SendWarrantyEmailResponse/SendWarrantyEmailResult') SendWarrantyEmailResults(SendWarrantyEmailResult)

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