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  • How to route all subdomains to a single host using mDNS?

    - by John Mee
    I have a development webserver hosting as "myhost.local" which is found using Bonjour/mDNS. The server is running avahi-daemon. The webserver also wants to handle any subdomains of itself. Eg "cat.myhost.local" and "dog.myhost.local" and "guppy.myhost.local". Given that myhost.local is on a dynamic ip address from dhcp, is there still a way to route all requests for the subdomains to myhost.local? I'm starting to think it not currently possible... http://marc.info/?l=freedesktop-avahi&m=119561596630960&w=2 You can do this with the /etc/avahi/hosts file. Alternatively you can use avahi-publish-host-name. No, he cannot. Since he wants to define an alias, not a new hostname. I.e. he only wants to register an A RR, no reverse PTR RR. But if you stick something into /etc/avahi/hosts then it registers both, and detects a collision if the PTR RR is non-unique, which would be the case for an alias.

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  • Why calling Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()) is a bad idea?

    - by Tal Kanel
    I've read some posts saying using this method is "not good", shouldn't been use, it's not the right way to "close" the application and it's not how android works... I understand and accept the fact that Android OS knows better then me when it's the right time to terminate the process, but I didn't heard yet a good explanation why it's wrong using the killProcess() method?. after all - it's part of the android API... what I do know is that calling this method while other threads doing in potential an important work (operations on files, writing to DB, HTTP requests, running services..) can be terminated in the middle, and it's clearly not good. also I know I can benefit from the fact that "re-open" the application will be faster, cause the system maybe still "holds" in memory state from last time been used, and killProcess() prevents that. beside this reason, in assumption I don't have such operations, and I don't care my application will load from scratch each run, there are other reasons why not using the killProcess() method? I know about finish() method to close an Activity, so don't write me about that please.. finish() is only for Activity. not to all application, and I think I know exactly why and when to use it... and another thing - I'm developing also games with the Unity3D framework, and exporting the project to android. when I decompiled the generated apk, I was very suprised to find out that the java source code created from unity - implementing Unity's - Application.quit() method, with Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()). Application.quit() is suppose to be the right way to close game according to Unity3d guides (is it really?? maybe I'm wrong, and missed something), so how it happens that the Unity's framework developers which doing a very good work as it seems implemented this in native android to killProcess()? anyway - I wish to have a "list of reasons" why not using the killProcess() method, so please write down your answer - if you have something interesting to say about that. TIA

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  • HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

    - by Paul Smith
    My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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  • Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

    - by KlasE
    Hi, We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions. In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request. The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance? This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment. We get the following stacktrace: "[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method) java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198) java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:269) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111) weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Any help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

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  • Vimeo Desktop App OAuth

    - by Barry
    Hi Guys, I'm currently having massive trouble with Vimeo's Oauth implementation and my desktop app. My program does the following correctly. 1- Requests a Unauthorized Request Token with my key and secret and returns - a Token and a Token secret. 2- Generates a URL for the user to go to using the token which then shows our application's name and allows the user to Authorize us to use his/her account. It then shows a verifier which the user returns and puts into our app. The problem is the third step and actually exchanging the tokens for the access tokens. Basically every time we try and get them we get a "Invalid / expired token - The oauth_token passed was either not valid or has expired" I looked at the documentation and there's supposed to be a callback to a server when deployed like that which gives the user an "authorized token" but as im developing a desktop app we can't do this. So I assume the token retrieved in 1 is valid for this step. (actually it seems it is: http://vimeo.com/forums/topic:22605) So I'm wondering now am I missing something here on my actual vimeo application account now? is it treating it as a web hosted app with callbacks? all the elements are there for this to work and I've used this same component to create a twitter Oauth login in exactly the same way and it was fine. Thanks in advance, Barry

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  • Socket errors of 10048 on the client? Possible causes?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, I'm writing a custom TCP server and client and on doing a ton of requests (60,000 to be exact) I begin to get this socket error of 10048, which should mean "the address is already in use." The error keeps happening unless I pause the process for like 2 or 3 minutes and then begin it again, and then it begins to bring up the same error a short while after restarting it. If I pause the client process and restart the server process, I still get the same error on the client. So it is a complete client side problem. This does not make sense though, this error only usually occurs when binding and this error happens on the client and not the server. What could be the possible reasons for it? A small excerpt of my initialization: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(); client.Connect("XXXXX -- some ip", 25000); client.NoDelay = true; NetworkStream clientStream = client.GetStream(); Also, everything else seems to be working fine(including the amount of time it takes to send back and forth) and this works perfectly when using 127.0.0.1 but when putting it on another LAN computer I begin to get the 10048 error. Is there something wrong with how I initialize it? What else could cause this error on the client side?

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  • How to import data to SAP

    - by Mehmet AVSAR
    Hi, As a complete stranger in town of SAP, I want to transfer my own application's (mobile salesforce automation) data to SAP. My application has records of customers, stocks, inventory, invoices (and waybills), cheques, payments, collections, stock transfer data etc. I have an additional database which holds matchings of records. ie. A customer with ID 345 in my application has key 120-035-0223 in SAP. Every record, for sure, has to know it's counterpart, including parameters. After searching Google and SAP help site for a day, I covered that it's going to be a bit more pain than I expected. Especially SAP site does not give even a clue on it. Say I couldn't find. We transferred our data to some other ERP systems, some of which wanted XML files, some other exposed their APIs. My point is, is Sql Server's SSIS an option for me? I hope it is, so I can fight on my own territory. Since client requests would vary a lot, I count flexibility as most important criteria. Also, I want to transfer as much data as I could. Any help is appreciated. Regards,

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  • Flush separate Castle ActiveRecord Transaction, and refresh object in another Transaction

    - by eanticev
    I've got all of my ASP.NET requests wrapped in a Session and a Transaction that gets commited only at the very end of the request. At some point during execution of the request, I would like to insert an object and make it visible to other potential threads - i.e. split the insertion into a new transaction, commit that transaction, and move on. The reason is that the request in question hits an API that then chain hits another one of my pages (near-synchronously) to let me know that it processed, and thus double submits a transaction record, because the original request had not yet finished, and thus not committed the transaction record. So I've tried wrapping the insertion code with a new SessionScope, TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New), combination of both, flushing everything manually, etc. However, when I call Refresh on the object I'm still getting the old object state. Here's some code sample for what I'm seeing: Post outsidePost = Post.Find(id); // status of this post is Status.Old using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New)) { Post p = Post.Find(id); p.Status = Status.New; // new status set here p.Update(); SessionScope.Current.Flush(); transaction.Flush(); transaction.VoteCommit(); } outsidePost.Refresh(); // refresh doesn't get the new status, status is still Status.Old Any suggestions, ideas, and comments are appreciated!

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  • Is it possible to make a persistent connection between a Python web service and a .Net WCF Client?

    - by Ad Hock
    I have a .Net 3.5 SOAP client written in C# using the WCF. It's expecting basicHTTPBinding and a persistent connection with HTTP/1.1. I'm trying to create a Python 2.6 application that will act as a web-service for the client. My problem is that the client keeps closing the connection and opening a new one for every command to the web service. How does the .Net WCF client know to stay open when connecting with a .Net Service? When I create a dummy .Net web service the client connects fine and the connection remains persistent. From what I can tell, when connected to a .Net server, there are no special HTTP headers being sent, that makes sense since HTTP/1.1 assumes a persistent connection unless otherwise specified (right?). However, with the python web service I accept/open a connection and eventually the client will send a TCP FIN and the connection will close (the client never sends a FIN or RST when connecting to a .Net service). The communication goes something like this: Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #1 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- Body of Command #1 Outgoing -- ACK Command #1 (HTTP headers and body) Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #2 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- TCP FIN <Connection closes> <New connection opens and SOAP command #2 (with full HTTP headers) is sent> I'm using a SocketServer.ThreadingTCPServer as the server and a BaseHTTPServer.BaseHTTPRequestHandler for any requests. The handler is actually a derived class of that with a do_POST method to handle the HTTP headers. I've looked at WireShark captures and I'm stumped. I've tried setting socket options to SO_KEEPALIVE and SO_REUSEADDR in the server but that didn't seem to change anything. What am I missing?

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  • Problem with authentication from different domains using Django sessions.

    - by Greg
    Hi all, I am developing a bookmarklet which essentially adds a toolbar to a web page user is currently looking at. To use it, user needs to be logged in. To login user clicks on 'Singin' which displays a standard form containing Username, Password etc fields. When user successfully logs in they may chose to navigate to a different web-site. When on another page, they (a) re-load the bookmarklet (b) their session is retrieved from the server (c) user doesn't need to login again. Pretty standard I've would have thought. Using Django sessions and JQuery. I'm having troubles implementing the above usecase. Here are some problems I've encountered: Cross domain POST AJAX requests are disallowed. That was solved with JSONp. I doubt it is a very secure approach but for now it works. My server returns the session id in a cookie, however when the user navigates to a different page I don't really know how to retrieve that session id to send back to my server. Can I even read third party cookies from my JavaScript? I'm looking for some guidelines on implementing the above usecase. Ideally I don't want to redirect user to another page for them to sign in. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Problem with libcurl cookie engine

    - by Seb Rose
    [Cross-posted from lib-curl mailing list] I have a single threaded app (MSVC C++ 2005) build against a static LIBCURL 7.19.4 A test application connects to an in house server & performs a bespoke authentication process that includes posting a couple of forms, and when this succeeds creates a new resource (POST) and then updates the resource (PUT) using If-Match. I only use a single connection to libcurl (i.e. only one CURL*) The cookie engine is enabled from the start using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "") The cookie cache is cleared at the end of the authentication process using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIELIST, "SESS"). This is required by the authentication process. The next call, which completes a successful authentication, results in a couple of security cookies being returned from the server - they have no expiry date set. The server (and I) expect the security cookies to then be sent with all subsequent requests to the server. The problem is that sometimes they are sent and sometimes they aren't. I'm not a CURL expert, so I'm probably doing something wrong, but I can't figure out what. Running the test app in a loop results shows a random distribution of correct cookie handling. As a workaround I've disabled the cookie engine and am doing basic manual cookie handling. Like this it works as expected, but I'd prefer to use the library if possible. Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks Seb

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  • Spring - SessionAttribute problem

    - by Max
    Hello, I want to implement something like this: @Controller @SessionAttributes("promotion") class PromotionController { @RequestMapping("showPromo") void showPromotionInfo( @RequestParam("promId") String promotionId, @ModelAttribute Promotion promotion, Errors errors ) { promotion = Promotions.get(promotionId); if (promotion == null || promotion.validates() == false) { errors.reject("promotion.invalid"); } return "prom"; } } The code is invalid, wont work and has some bad errors, but I don't know how to write it better. When user comes to an URL "showPromo?promId=15", controller should validate if the promotion is valid (outdated/non-existent/etc.). If it is valid - it should show it's information and save the promotion to model and session. If it's not - it should show some error about promotion being invalid. Problem is, I need to save the promotion in the session (for several requests) and don't want to use direct session management. Is it currently possible with Spring? Or am I doing something wrong? Could you please provide the optimal solution to my problem using Spring 3? Thanks in advance.

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  • Write binary data as a response in an ASP.NET MVC web control

    - by Lou Franco
    I am trying to get a control that I wrote for ASP.NET to work in an ASP.NET MVC environment. Normally, the control does the normal thing, and that works fine Sometimes it needs to respond by clearing the response, writing an image to the response stream and changing the content type. When you do this, you get an exception "OutputStream is not available when a custom TextWriter is used". If I were a page or controller, I see how I can create custom responses with binary data, but I can't see how to do this from inside a control's render functions. To simplify it -- imagine I want to make a web control that renders to: <img src="pageThatControlIsOn?controlImage"> And I know how to look at incoming requests and recognize query strings that should be routed to the control. Now the control is supposed to respond with a generated image (content-type: image/png -- and the encoded image). In ASP.NET, we: Response.Clear(); Response.OutputStream.Write(thePngData); // this throws in MVC // set the content type, etc Response.End(); How am I supposed to do that in an ASP.NET MVC control?

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  • How Do I make a simple .htaccess internal redirect Catch All script while forwarding POST data?

    - by RB
    I just want to catch all requests and forward them internally to my catchall page with all POST data intact Catch all page: http://www.mydomain.com/addons/redirect/catch-all.php I've tried so many combinations, but my server doesn't want to redirect internally if I specify more than catch-all.php # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule (.*) /addons/redirect/catch-all.php [L] Also, do I need [L] or is it useless for internal redirects? Then, what php code would I use to grab the POST data, use it, and finally PHP redirect the page to the originally requested page Would it be done just as normal by using $_POST['variable_name']; or something different? Then, how would I go about calling the originally requested page, so I can tell PHP to header location direct them to that page? Thanks! UPDATE: Ha sick, nevermind. The condition DOES work. Here's my code: # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/robots.txt$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !\.(gif¦jpe?g¦png¦css¦js¦pdf¦doc¦xml)$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/addons/redirect/catch-all\.php$ RewriteRule (.*)$ /addons/redirect/catch-all.php?q=$1 [L] Thanks guys for the inspiration! Now time to get that PHP to work...

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  • SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

    - by pborovik
    Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

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  • reactor not working when reactor.run is not called in the main thread and installSignalHandlers=Fals

    - by Kalmi
    I'm trying to answer the following question out of personal interest: What is the fastest way to send 100,000 HTTP requests in Python? And this is what I have came up so far, but I'm experiencing something very stange. When installSignalHandlers is True, it just hangs. I can see that the DelayedCall instances are in reactor._newTimedCalls, but processResponse never gets called. When installSignalHandlers is False, it throws an error and works. from twisted.internet import reactor from twisted.web.client import Agent from threading import Semaphore, Thread import time concurrent = 100 s = Semaphore(concurrent) reactor.suggestThreadPoolSize(concurrent) t=Thread( target=reactor.run, kwargs={'installSignalHandlers':True}) t.daemon=True t.start() agent = Agent(reactor) def processResponse(response,url): print response.code, url s.release() def processError(response,url): print "error", url s.release() def addTask(url): req = agent.request('HEAD', url) req.addCallback(processResponse, url) req.addErrback(processError, url) for url in open('urllist.txt'): addTask(url.strip()) s.acquire() while s._Semaphore__value!=concurrent: time.sleep(0.1) reactor.stop() And here is the error that it throws when installSignalHandlers is True: (Note: This is the expected behaviour! The question is why it doesn't work when installSignalHandlers is False.) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 396, in fireEvent DeferredList(beforeResults).addCallback(self._continueFiring) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 224, in addCallback callbackKeywords=kw) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 213, in addCallbacks self._runCallbacks() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 371, in _runCallbacks self.result = callback(self.result, *args, **kw) --- <exception caught here> --- File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 409, in _continueFiring callable(*args, **kwargs) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1165, in _reallyStartRunning self._handleSignals() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1105, in _handleSignals signal.signal(signal.SIGINT, self.sigInt) exceptions.ValueError: signal only works in main thread What am I doing wrong and what is the right way? I'm new to twisted.

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  • QueryString malformed after URLDecode

    - by pdavis
    I'm trying to pass in a Base64 string into a C#.Net web application via the QueryString. When the string arrives the "+" (plus) sign is being replaced by a space. It appears that the automatic URLDecode process is doing this. I have no control over what is being passed via the QueryString. Is there any way to handle this server side? Example: http://localhost:3399/Base64.aspx?VLTrap=VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8+PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== Produces: VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8 PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== People have suggested URLEncoding the querystring: System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode(yourString) I can't do that as I have no control over the calling routine (which is working fine with other languages). There was also the suggestion of replacing spaces with a plus sign: Request.QueryString["VLTrap"].Replace(" ", "+"); I had though of this but my concern with it, and I should have mentioned this to start, is that I don't know what other characters might be malformed in addition to the plus sign. My main goal is to intercept the QueryString before it is run through the decoder. To this end I tried looking at Request.QueryString.toString() but this contained the same malformed information. Is there any way to look at the raw QueryString before it is URLDecoded? After further testing it appears that .Net expects everything coming in from the QuerString to be URL encoded but the browser does not automatically URL encode GET requests.

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  • Designing a fluent Javascript interface to abstract away the asynchronous nature of AJAX

    - by Anurag
    How would I design an API to hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX and HTTP requests, or basically delay it to provide a fluid interface. To show an example from Twitter's new Anywhere API: // get @ded's first 20 statuses, filter only the tweets that // mention photography, and render each into an HTML element T.User.find('ded').timeline().first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); function filterer(status) { return status.text.match(/photography/); } vs this (asynchronous nature of each call is clearly visible) T.User.find('ded', function(user) { user.timeline(function(statuses) { statuses.first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); }); }); It finds the user, gets their tweet timeline, filters only the first 20 tweets, applies a custom filter, and ultimately uses the callback function to process each tweet. I am guessing that a well designed API like this should work like a query builder (think ORMs) where each function call builds the query (HTTP URL in this case), until it hits a looping function such as each/map/etc., the HTTP call is made and the passed in function becomes the callback. An easy development route would be to make each AJAX call synchronous, but that's probably not the best solution. I am interested in figuring out a way to make it asynchronous, and still hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX.

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  • full duplex communication over the web w/o flash sockets

    - by aharon
    A web application I'm helping to develop is faced with a well-known problem: we want to be able to let users know of various events and so forth that can occur at any time, essentially at random, and update their view accordingly. Essentially, we need to allow the server to push requests to individual clients, as opposed to the client asking the server. I understand that WebSockets are an effort to address the problem; however, after a bit of looking around into them, I understand that a) very few web browsers currently offer native websocket support; b) to get around this, you either use flash sockets or some sort of AJAX long-polling; c) a special websockets server must be used. Now, we want to offer our service without Flash. And any sort of servers must have some sort of load-balancing capabilities, or at least some software that can do load balancing for them. As of 2008, everyone was saying that Comet-based solutions (e.g., Bayeux) were the way to go for these sort of situations. However, the various protocols seem to have not had much work put into them since then—which leads (finally) to the question. Is Bayeux-flavored Comet still the right tool for jobs like this? If not, what is?

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  • Java: Handling cookies when logging in with POST

    - by Cris Carter
    I'm having quite some trouble logging in to any site in Java. I'm using the default URLconnection POST request, but I'm unsure how to handle the cookies properly. I tried this guide: http://www.hccp.org/java-net-cookie-how-to.html But couldn't get it working. I've been trying basically for days now, and I really need help if anyone wants to help me. I'll probably be told that it's messy and that I should use a custom library meant for this stuff. I tried downloading one, but wasn't sure how to get it set up and working. I've been trying various things for hours now, and it just won't work. I'd rather do this with a standard URLconnection, but if anyone can help me get another library working that's better for this, that would be great, too. I would really appreciate if someone could post a working source that I could study. What I need is: POST login data to site - Get and store the cookie from the site - use cookie with next URLconnection requests to get logged-in version of the site. Can anyone help me with this? Would be EXTREMELY appreciated. It really does mean a lot. If anyone wants to actually help me out live, please leave an instant-messenger address. Thank you a lot for your time.

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  • Offline iOS web app: loads my manifest, but doesn't work offline

    - by Ken
    I'm writing a web app to be used offline on iOS. I've created a manifest, am serving it up as text/cache-manifest, and it usually works fine, when running inside Safari. If I add it as an app to my home screen, then turn on Airplane mode, it can't open the app at all -- I get an error and it offers to close the app. (I thought this was the entire purpose of an offline app!) When I load the app a first time when online, I can see in my logs that it's requesting every page listed in the manifest. If I turn off Airplane mode, and load the app, I can see the first file it's requesting is my main.html file (which is both listed in the manifest, and has the manifest=... attribute). It then requests the manifest, and all my other files, getting 200's for all (and 304's for anything requested a second time during this load). When I load the page in Chrome, and click around, the logs show the only thing it's trying to reach on the server is "/favicon.ico" (which is a 404, and which I don't think iOS Safari tries to load, anyway). All of the files listed in the manifest are valid and served without error. The Chrome inspector lists, under "APPLICATION CACHE", all the cached files I've listed which I expect. The entire set of files is about 50 KB, way under any limit on offline resources that I've found. Is this supposed to work, i.e., am I supposed to be able to create an offline iOS app using only HTML/CSS/JS? And where do I go about figuring out why it's failing to work offline? (Related but doesn't sound quite the same to me, since it's about Safari and not a standalone app: "Can't get a web app to work offline on iPod")

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  • WCF events in server-side

    - by Eisenrich
    Hi all, I'm working on an application in WCF and want to receive events in the server side. I have a web that upon request needs to register a fingerprint. The web page request the connection of the device and then every second for 15 seconds requests the answer. The server-side code is apparently "simple" but doesn't work. Here is it: [ServiceContract] interface IEEtest { [OperationContract] void EEDirectConnect(); } class EETest : IEEtest { public void EEDirectConnect() { CZ ee = new CZ(); // initiates the device dll ee.Connect_Net("192.168.1.200", 4011); ee.OnFinger += new _IEEEvents_OnFingerEventHandler(ee_OnFinger); } public void ee_OnFinger() { //here i have a breakpoint; } } every time I put my finger, it should fire the event. in fact if I static void Main() { EETest pp = new EETest(); pp.EEDirectConnect(); } It works fine. but from my proxy it doesn't fire the event. do you have any tips, recommendations, or can you see the error? Thanks everyone.

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  • Synchronizing ASP.NET MVC action methods with ReaderWriterLockSlim

    - by James D
    Any obvious issues/problems/gotchas with synchronizing access (in an ASP.NET MVC blogging engine) to a shared object model (NHibernate, but it could be anything) at the Controller/Action level via ReaderWriterLockSlim? (Assume the object model is very large and expensive to build per-request, so we need to share it among requests.) Here's how a typical "Read Post" action would look. Enter the read lock, do some work, exit the read lock. public ActionResult ReadPost(int id) { // ReaderWriterLockSlim allows multiple concurrent writes; this method // only blocks in the unlikely event that some other client is currently // writing to the model, which would only happen if a comment were being // submitted or a new post were being saved. _lock.EnterReadLock(); try { // Access the model, fetch the post with specificied id // Pseudocode, etc. Post p = TheObjectModel.GetPostByID(id); ActionResult ar = View(p); return ar; } finally { // Under all code paths, we must release the read lock _lock.ExitReadLock(); } } Meanwhile, if a user submits a comment or an author authors a new post, they're going to need write access to the model, which is done roughly like so: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SaveComment(/* some posted data */) { // try/finally omitted for brevity _lock.EnterWriteLock(); // Save the comment to the DB, update the model to include the comment, etc. _lock.ExitWriteLock(); } Of course, this could also be done by tagging those action methods with some sort of "synchronized" attribute... but however you do it, my question is is this a bad idea? ps. ReaderWriterLockSlim is optimized for multiple concurrent reads, and only blocks if the write lock is held. Since writes are so infrequent (1000s or 10,000s or 100,000s of reads for every 1 write), and since they're of such a short duration, the effect is that the model is synchronized , and almost nobody ever locks, and if they do, it's not for very long.

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  • What is the right way to make a new XMLHttpRequest from an RJS response in Ruby on Rails?

    - by Yuri Baranov
    I'm trying to come closer to a solution for the problem of my previous question. The scheme I would like to try is following: User requests an action from RoR controller. Action makes some database queries, makes some calculations, sets some session variable(s) and returns some RJS code as the response. This code could either update a progress bar and make another ajax request. display the final result (e.g. a chart grahic) if all the processing is finished The browser evaluates the javascript representation of the RJS. It may make another (recursive? Is recursion allowed at all?) request, or just display the result for the user. So, my question this time is: how can I embed a XMLHttpRequest call into rjs code properly? Some things I'd like to know are: Should I create a new thread to avoid stack overflow. What rails helpers (if any) should I use? Have anybody ever done something similar before on Rails or with other frameworks? Is my idea sane?

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  • SQL deadlock on delete then bulk insert

    - by StarLite
    I have an issue with a deadlock in SQL Server that I haven't been able to resolve. Basically I have a large number of concurrent connections (from many machines) that are executing transactions where they first delete a range of entries and then re-insert entries within the same range with a bulk insert. Essentially, the transaction looks like this BEGIN TRANSACTION T1 DELETE FROM [TableName] WITH( XLOCK HOLDLOCK ) WHERE [Id]=@Id AND [SubId]=@SubId INSERT BULK [TableName] ( [Id] Int , [SubId] Int , [Text] VarChar(max) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS ) WITH(CHECK_CONSTRAINTS, FIRE_TRIGGERS) COMMIT TRANSACTION T1 The bulk insert only inserts items matching the Id and SubId of the deletion in the same transaction. Furthermore, these Id and SubId entries should never overlap. When I have enough concurrent transaction of this form, I start to see a significant number of deadlocks between these statements. I added the locking hints XLOCK HOLDLOCK to attempt to deal with the issue, but they don't seem to be helpling. The canonical deadlock graph for this error shows: Connection 1: Holds RangeX-X on PK_TableName Holds IX Page lock on the table Requesting X Page lock on the table Connection 2: Holds IX Page lock on the table Requests RangeX-X lock on the table What do I need to do in order to ensure that these deadlocks don't occur. I have been doing some reading on the RangeX-X locks and I'm not sure I fully understand what is going on with these. Do I have any options short of locking the entire table here?

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