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  • How can I abstract out the core functionality of several Rails applications?

    - by hornairs
    I'd like to develop a number of non-trivial Rails applications which all implement a core set of functionality but each have certain particular customizations, extensions, and aesthetic differences. How can I pull the core functionality (models, controllers, helpers, support classes, tests) common to all these systems out in such a way that updating the core will benefit every application based upon it? I've seen Rails Engines but they seem to be too detached, almost too abstracted to be built upon. I can seem them being useful for adding one component to an existing app, for example bolting on a blog engine to your existing e-commerce site. Since engines seem to be mostly self contained, it seems difficult and inconvenient to override their functionality and views while keeping DRY. I've also considered abstracting the code into a gem, but this seems a little odd. Do I make the gem depend on the Rails gems, and the define models & controllers inside it, and then subclass them in my various applications? Or do I define many modules inside the gem that I include in the different spots inside my various applications? How do I test the gem and then test the set of customizations and overridden functionality on top of it? I'm also concerned with how I'll develop the gem and the Rails apps in tandem, can I vendor a git repository of the gem into the app and push from that so I don't have to build a new gem every iteration? Also, are there private gem hosts/can I set my own gem source up? Also, any general suggestions for this kind of undertaking? Abstraction paradigms to adhere to? Required reading? Comments from the wise who have done this before? Thanks!

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  • What is Wordpress doing for content encoding in it's mysql database?

    - by qbxk
    For some convoluted reasons best left behind us, I require direct access the contents of a wordpress database. I'm using mysql 5.0.70-r1 on gentoo with wordpress 2.6, and perl 5.8.8 ftr. So, sometimes we get high-order characters in the blog, we have quite a few authors contributing too, for the most part these characters end up in wp's database in wp_posts.post_content or wp_postmeta.meta_value, Wordpress is displaying these correctly on it's site, but the database stores it using single byte encoding that I can't figure out how to convert to the correct string. Today's example: the blog shows this, and doesn't even seem to escape any chars in the html, Hãhãhães but the database, when viewed via the mysql prompt, has, Hãhãhães So clearly this is some kind of double-byte encoding issue, but I don't know how I can correct it. I need to be able to pull that second string from the database (b/c that's what it gives me) and convert it to the first one, and i need to do so using perl. also, just to help unmuddy any waters, I took these strings and printed out the ascii codes for each character using perl's ord() function. Here is the output of the "wrong" string H = 72 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 e = 101 s = 115 This is the correct string, that I need to produce in my script H = 72 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 e = 101 s = 115

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  • Appending Comment Number Anchors to Comments

    - by John
    Hello, I am using a PHP file called comments.php that has a query that enters values into a mySQL table called "comment." As the query does this, it auto-generates a field called "commentid", which is set to auto_increment in MySQL. The file also contains a loop what echoes out all comments for a given submission. It all works fine and dandy, but I want to simultaneously pull this "commentid" and turn it into a hashtag / anchor that when appended to the end of the URL makes that comment at the top of the user's browser. Someone said on another question that in order to do this one thing I should do is create an anchor on the row where the comment is being printed out. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John The query that inserts comments into the MySQL table "comment": $query = sprintf("INSERT INTO comment VALUES (NULL, %d, %d, '%s', NULL)", $uid, $subid, $comment); mysql_query($query) or die(mysql_error()); The fields in the table "comment": commentid loginid submissionid comment datecommented The row in a loop where the comments are echoed out: echo '<td rowspan="3" class="commentname1">'.stripslashes($row["comment"]).'</td>';

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  • WPF & Linq To SQL binding ComboBox to foreign key

    - by ZeroDelta
    I'm having trouble binding a ComboBox to a foreign key in WPF using Linq To SQL. It works fine when displaying records, but if I change the selection on the ComboBox, that change does not seem to affect the property to which it is bound. My SQL Server Compact file has three tables: Players (PK is PlayerID), Events (PK is EventID), and Matches (PK is MatchID). Matches has FKs for the the other two, so that a match is associated with a player and an event. My window for editing a match uses a ComboBox to select the Event, and the ItemsSource is set to the result of a LINQ query to pull all of the Events. And of course the user should be able to select the Event based on EventName, not EventID. Here's the XAML: <ComboBox x:Name="cboEvent" DisplayMemberPath="EventName" SelectedValuePath="EventID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=EventID, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> And some code-behind from the Loaded event handler: var evt = from ev in db.Events orderby ev.EventName select ev; cboEvent.ItemsSource = evt.ToList(); var mtch = from m in db.Matches where m.PlayerID == ((Player)playerView.CurrentItem).PlayerID select m; matchView = (CollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(mtch); this.DataContext = matchView; When displaying matches, this works fine--I can navigate from one match to the next and the EventName is shown correctly. However, if I select a new Event via this ComboBox, the CurrentItem of the CollectionView doesn't seem to change. I feel like I'm missing something stupid! Note: the Player is selected via a ListBox, and that selection filters the matches displayed--this seems to be working fine, so I didn't include that code. That is the reason for the "PlayerID" reference in the LINQ query

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  • What Test Environment Setup do Top Project Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

    - by viatropos
    Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

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  • SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

    - by akaphenom
    After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

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  • What could possibly be causing this NPE in onCreate?

    - by Adam Johns
    I am getting an NPE in onCreate of the following file (MySubActivity): public class MySubActivity extends MySuperActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); myTextView.setText(getResources().getString(R.string.myString)); } } MySuperActivity: public class MySuperActivity extends Activity { protected TextView myTextView; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.my_layout); myTextView = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.myTextViewid); } } The strange thing is that I have never seen this crash while testing the app. The page works fine when I test it. However I got a crash report from Google notifying me of the crash. I cannot reproduce it, and I have no idea under what scenario this crash could happen. Seeing as how it works for me, the resource ids and string names etc. must be correct. The only thing that came across my mind was that maybe the user had their phone set to a different language, so it couldn't properly pull the resources. However, there are default resources for all of them, and I tested changing the language of my emulator and it didn't crash. Any ideas?

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  • User will input some filter criteria -- how can I turn it into a regular expression for String.match

    - by envinyater
    I have a program where the user will enter a string such as PropertyA = "abc_*" and I need to have the asterisk match any character. In my code, I'm grabbing the property value and replacing PropertyA with the actual value. For instance, it could be abc_123. I also pull out the equality symbol into a variable. It should be able to cover this type of criteria PropertyB = 'cba' PropertyC != '*-this' valueFromHeader is the lefthand side and value is the righthand side. if (equality.equals("=")) { result = valueFromHeader.matches(value); } else if (equality.equals("!=")) { result = !valueFromHeader.matches(value); } EDIT: The existing code had this type of replacement for regular expressions final String ESC = "\\$1"; final String NON_ALPHA = "([^A-Za-z0-9@])"; final String WILD = "*"; final String WILD_RE_TEMP = "@"; final String WILD_RE = ".*"; value = value.replace(WILD, WILD_RE_TEMP); value = value.replaceAll(NON_ALPHA,ESC); value = value.replace(WILD_RE_TEMP, WILD_RE); It doesn't like the underscore here... abcSite_123 != abcSite_123 (evaluates to true) abcSite_123$1.matches("abcSite$1123") It doesn't like the underscore...

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  • Overriding check box in JavaScript with jQuery

    - by Gutzofter
    Help with unit testing checkbox behavior. I have this page: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('<div><input type="checkbox" name="makeHidden" id="makeHidden" checked="checked" />Make Hidden</div>').appendTo('body'); $('<div id="displayer" style="display:none;">Was Hidden</div>').appendTo('body'); $('#makeHidden').click(function() { var isChecked = $(this).is(':checked'); if (isChecked) { $('#displayer').hide(); } else { $('#displayer').show(); } return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This doesn't work it is because of the return false; in the click handler. If I remove it it works great. The problem is if I pull the click function out into it's own function and unit test it with qunit it will not work without the return false;

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  • How to do an additional search on archive in rails if record not found, by extending model?

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello, I was wondering if somebody knows an elegant solution to the following: Suppose I have a table that holds orders, with a bunch of data. So I'm at 1M records, and searches begin to take time. So I want to speed it up by archiving some data that is more than 3 years old - saving it into a table called orders-archive, and then purging them from the orders table. So if we need to research something or customer wants to pull older information - they still can, but 99% of the lookups are done on the orders no older than a year and a half - so there is no reason to keep looking through older data all the time. These move & purge operations can be then croned to be done on a weekly basis. I already did some tests and I know that I will slash my search times by about 4 times. So far so good, right? However I was thinking about how to implement older archival lookups and the only reasonable thing I can think of is some sort of if-else If not found in orders, do a search in orders-archive. However - I have about 20 tables that I want to archive and god knows how many searches / finds are done through out the code, that I don't want to modify. So I was wondering if there is an elegant rails-way solution to this problem, by extending a model somehow? Has anyone dealt with similar case before? Thank you.

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  • Accessing vars from another clojure namespace?

    - by erikcw
    In my main namespace, I have a top level var named "settings" which is initialized as an empty {}. My -main fn sets the contents of settings using def and conj based on some command line args (different database hosts for production/development, etc). I'm trying to access the contents of this map from another namespace to pull out some of the settings. When I try to compile with lein into an uberjar, I get a traceback saying "No such var: lb/settings". What am I missing? Is there a more idiomatic way to handle app wide settings such as these? Is it safe to use "def" inside of -main like I am, or should I be use an atom or ref to make this threadsafe? Thanks! (ns main (:use ...) (:gen-class)) (def settings {}) (defn -main [& args] (with-command-line-args... ;set devel? based on args (if (true? devel?) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "127.0.0.1"} :memcached {:host "127.0.0.1"}})) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"} :memcached {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"}}))) ;file2.clj (ns some-other-namespace (:require [main :as lb] ...) ;configure MongoDB (congo/mongo! :db "dbname" :host (:host (mongodb lb/settings)))) ...

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Evenly distribute data into columns with JavaScript

    - by marius.cdm
    I'm looking for a way to evenly distribute my JSON data into HTML columns. Using javascript to pull the data $.ajax({ url: "url", dataType: 'json', data: "e="+escape(divID), cache: true, success: function(data) { var items = data; // ??? $('.result').html(list); } }); Input data: ["A", "B", "C", "D", "E", "F", "G", "H", "I", "J", "K"] Expected result: <ul> <li>A</li> <li>B</li> <li>C</li> <li>D</li> </ul> <ul> <li>E</li> <li>F</li> <li>G</li> <li>H</li> </ul> <ul> <li>I</li> <li>J</li> <li>K</li> </ul> I found a partial result here, but the output data is in console. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • PHP Pass Dynamic Array name to function

    - by Brad
    How do I pass an array key to a function to pull up the right key's data? // The array <?php $var['TEST1'] = Array ( 'Description' => 'This is a Description', 'Version' => '1.11', 'fields' => Array( 'ID' => array( 'type' => 'int', 'length' =>'11', 'misc' =>'auto_increment' ), 'DATA' => array( 'type' => 'varchar', ' length' => '255' ) ); $var['TEST2'] = Array ( 'Description' =? 'This is the 2nd Description', 'Version' => '2.1', 'fields' => Array( 'ID' => array( 'type' => 'int', 'length' =>'11', 'misc' =>'auto_increment' ), 'DATA' => array( 'type' => 'varchar', ' length' => '255' ) ) // The function <?php $obj = 'TEST1'; print_r($schema[$obj]); // <-- Fives me output. But calling the function doesn't. echo buildStructure($obj); /** * @TODO to add auto_inc support */ function buildStructure($obj) { $output = ''; $primaryKey = $schema["{$obj}"]['primary key']; foreach ($schema["{$obj}"]['fields'] as $name => $tag) // #### ERROR #### Invalid argument supplied for foreach() { $type = $tag['type']; $length = $tag['length']; $default = $tag['default']; $description = $tag['description']; $length = (isset($length)) ? "({$length})" : ''; $default = ($default == NULL ) ? "NULL" : $default; $output .= "`{$name}` {$type}{$length} DEFAULT {$default} COMMENT `{$DESCRIPTION}`, "; } return $output; }

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  • Entity Framework one-to-one relationship mapping flattened in code

    - by Josh Close
    I have a table structure like so. Address: AddressId int not null primary key identity ...more columns AddressContinental: AddressId int not null primary key identity foreign key to pk of Address County State AddressInternational: AddressId int not null primary key identity foreign key to pk of Address ProvinceRegion I don't have control over schema, this is just the way it is. Now, what I want to do is have a single Address object. public class Address { public int AddressId { get; set; } public County County { get; set; } public State State { get; set } public ProvinceRegion { get; set; } } I want to have EF pull it out of the database as a single entity. When saving, I want to save the single entity and have EF know to split it into the three tables. How would I map this in EF 4.1 Code First? I've been searching around and haven't found anything that meets my case yet. UPDATE An address record will have a record in Address and one in either AddressContinental or AddressInternational, but not both.

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  • Most efficient way to LIMIT results in a JOIN?

    - by johnnietheblack
    I have a fairly simple one-to-many type join in a MySQL query. In this case, I'd like to LIMIT my results by the left table. For example, let's say I have an accounts table and a comments table, and I'd like to pull 100 rows from accounts and all the associated comments rows for each. Thy only way I can think to do this is with a sub-select in in the FROM clause instead of simply selecting FROM accounts. Here is my current idea: SELECT a.*, c.* FROM (SELECT * FROM accounts LIMIT 100) a LEFT JOIN `comments` c on c.account_id = a.id ORDER BY a.id However, whenever I need to do a sub-select of some sort, my intermediate level SQL knowledge feels like it's doing something wrong. Is there a more efficient, or faster, way to do this, or is this pretty good? By the way... This might be the absolute simplest way to do this, which I'm okay with as an answer. I'm simply trying to figure out if there IS another way to do this that could potentially compete with the above statement in terms of speed.

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  • MySQL to SQL Server ODBC Connector?

    - by Scott C.
    My boss wants to have data in MySQL DBs used for our website to be "linked and synced" with a Financial Server that has its DB in SQL Server. Sooooo...even though I have no idea how to accomplish this, this just sounds like an absolute nightmare especially since the MySQL DB is most likely going to be hosted in the cloud and not on a machine next to the Financial Server. Any ideas how to accomplish this? (within reason?) Also, his big thing is he wants to basically pull up the data from any record a user enters and using data pulled from that do all sorts of calculations using ANOTHER program that stores its data (apparently) in SQL Server. Thinking of all the data I might have to convert makes me very uneasy. Please tell a ODBC eliminates complicated junk like this. :/ I'm trying to talk him into just having MySQL do a nightly dump into a CSV file or something and using that (rather than connector) to update the SQL Server DBs. I guess I'm just not that comfortable with a server and/or programming I have no say over being connected DIRECTLY to my MySQL DB for the website. If there's no good answer for this, can anyone offer a suggestion as to what I can say to talk him out of this? (I'm a low-level IT guy w/ a decent grasp on programming...but I'm no expert - should I try to push this off to a seasoned IT pro?) Thanks in advance.

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  • select nodes from a line of xml code with sql

    - by wondergoat77
    I have a table that stores a huge line/entire document of xml like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <RealQuestResponse xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org /2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Success>true</Success> <Subject> <AmbiguousMatches /> <Assessment> <LandValue>0</LandValue> <ImprovementsValue>0</ImprovementsValue> <TotalValue>0</TotalValue> </Assessment> <RecentSales /> <Warnings> <Score>0</Score> <TrusteesDeedRatio>0</Tr........etc Is there a way to pull any of these fields out of the xml? it is stored in a column in a table called AutomatedRequests That table looks like this: requestid Provider Date Success Response 1 test 1/2/2012 Y <?xml version..... <---this is the xml code stored> Ive seen a couple ways but nothing like this Id basically like something like select xmlnode1, xmlnode2, xmlnode3 from automatedrequests have tried this but not working: select xml.query('RealQuestResponse/Bedrooms/*') from automatedRequests where orderid = 1266162

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  • Getting Response From Jquery JSON

    - by Howdy_McGee
    I'm having trouble getting a response from my php jquery / json / ajax. I keep combining all these different tutorials together but I still can't seem to pull it all together since no one tutorial follow what I'm trying to do. Right now I'm trying to pass two arrays (since there's no easy way to pass associative arrays) to my jquery ajax function and just alert it out. Here's my code: PHP $names = array('john doe', 'jane doe'); $ids = array('123', '223'); $data['names'] = $names; $data['ids'] = $ids; echo json_encode($data); Jquery function getList(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'test.php', data: "", complete: function(data){ var test = jQuery.parseJSON(data); alert(test.names[0]); alert("here"); } }, "json"); } getList(); In my html file all I'm really calling is my javascript file for debugging purposes. I know i'm returning an object but I'm getting an error with null values in my names section, and i'm not sure why. What am I missing? My PHP file returns {"names":["john doe","jane doe"],"ids":["123","223"]} It seems to be just ending here Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property '0' of undefined so my sub0 is killing me.

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  • Using "from __future__ import division" in my program, but it isn't loaded with my program

    - by Sara Fauzia
    I wrote the following program in Python 2 to do Newton's method computations for my math problem set, and while it works perfectly, for reasons unbeknownst to me, when I initially load it in ipython with %run -i NewtonsMethodMultivariate.py, the Python 3 division is not imported. I know this because after I load my Python program, entering x**(3/4) gives "1". After manually importing the new division, then x**(3/4) remains x**(3/4), as expected. Why is this? # coding: utf-8 from __future__ import division from sympy import symbols, Matrix, zeros x, y = symbols('x y') X = Matrix([[x],[y]]) tol = 1e-3 def roots(h,a): def F(s): return h.subs({x: s[0,0], y: s[1,0]}) def D(s): return h.jacobian(X).subs({x: s[0,0], y: s[1,0]}) if F(a) == zeros(2)[:,0]: return a else: while (F(a)).norm() > tol: a = a - ((D(a))**(-1))*F(a) print a.evalf(10) I would use Python 3 to avoid this issue, but my Linux distribution only ships SymPy for Python 2. Thanks to the help anyone can provide. Also, in case anyone was wondering, I haven't yet generalized this script for nxn Jacobians, and only had to deal with 2x2 in my problem set. Additionally, I'm slicing the 2x2 zero matrix instead of using the command zeros(2,1) because SymPy 0.7.1, installed on my machine, complains that "zeros() takes exactly one argument", though the wiki suggests otherwise. Maybe this command is only for the git version.

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  • AngularJS not validating email field in form

    - by idipous
    I have the html below where I have a form that I want to submit to the AngularJS Controller. <div class="newsletter color-1" id="subscribe" data-ng-controller="RegisterController"> <form name="registerForm"> <div class="col-md-6"> <input type="email" placeholder="[email protected]" data-ng-model="userEmail" required class="subscribe"> </div> <div class="col-md-2"> <button data-ng-click="register()" class="btn btn-primary pull-right btn-block">Subsbcribe</button> </div> </form> </div> And the controller is below app.controller('RegisterController', function ($scope,dataFactory) { $scope.users = dataFactory.getUsers(); $scope.register = function () { var userEmail = $scope.userEmail; dataFactory.insertUser(userEmail); $scope.userEmail = null; $scope.ThankYou = "Thank You!"; } }); The problem is that no validation is taking place when I click the button. It is always routed to the controller although I do not supply a correct email. So every time I click the button I get the {{ThankYou}} variable displayed. Maybe I do not understand something.

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  • Enterprise integration of disparate systems

    - by Chris Latta
    We're about to embark on a fairly large integration effort to kill off a bunch of Access and Sql Server databases and get everything into one coherent enterprise system. There are also a number of other systems (accounting, CRM, payroll, MS Exchange) that hold critical data that we need to integrate (use for data validation in other systems), report on and otherwise expose. It is likely that some of these systems will change in the next few years, so we need to isolate our systems to be ready for change. Ideally we would be able to expose our forms in a consistent manner across as many of our our systems as possible without having to re-develop them for each system. We are currently targeting SharePoint (2007 and soon 2010), Office (2007 and soon 2010 - Word, Excel, PowerPoint and Outlook), Reporting Services, .Net console applications, .Net Windows applications, shell extensions, and with the possibility of exposing some functionality on mobile devices (BlackBerries currently, maybe iPhones later) and via our website. We're moving development to Visual Studio 2010 (from 2005) ahead of migrating to SharePoint 2010 and Office 2010. Given that most of our development is presently targeted to the .Net framework (mostly in C#) it seems logical to stick with this unless there is some compelling reason to switch frameworks/platform for some aspects. We're thinking of your standard Database-Data Integration layer-Business Objects Layer-Web Services (or REST) layer-Client Application plus doing our own client application with WPF (or something else?) forms that can also be exposed in the MS systems (SharePoint, Office, Windows). So, we don't want much, just everything :) Basically we need to isolate ourselves from database and systems changes, create an API that can be used throughout our systems and then make this functionality available in our client applications. I'm very keen to get pointers from anyone who has tips on how to pull this off. Should we look at the Enterprise Library as a place to start? Is REST with ASP.Net MVC2 a better solution than Web Services for a system like this? Will WPF deliver forms re-use or is there something better?

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  • How to check a bool setting in my iphone app

    - by dusk
    I have a setting in Root.plist with Key = 'latestNews' of type PSToggleSwitchSpecifier and DefaultValue as a boolean that is checked. If I understand that correctly, it should = YES when I pull it in to my code. I'm trying to check that value and set an int var to pass it to my php script. What is happening is that my boolean is either nil or NO and then my int var = 0. What am I doing wrong? int latestFlag; NSUserDefaults *prefs = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; BOOL latestNews = [prefs boolForKey:@"latestNews"]; if (latestNews) latestFlag = 1; else latestFlag = 0; NSString *urlstr = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"http://www.mysite.com/folder/iphone-test.php?latest=%d", latestFlag]; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlstr]; //these are auto-released NSString *ans = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSArray *listItems = [ans componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; self.listData = listItems; [urlstr release]; [url release];

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  • Iphone xcode simulator crashes when I move up and down on a table row

    - by Frames84
    I can't get my head round this. When the page loads, everything works fine - I can drill up and down, however 'stream' (in the position I have highlighted below) becomes not equal to anything when I pull up and down on the tableview. But the error is only sometimes. Normally it returns key/pairs. If know one can understand above how to you test for // (int)[$VAR count]} key/value pairs in a NSMutableDictionary object - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *FirstLevelCell = @"FirstLevelCell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:FirstLevelCell]; if(cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:FirstLevelCell] autorelease]; } NSInteger row = [indexPath row]; //NSDictionary *stream = (NSDictionary *) [dataList objectAtIndex:row]; NSString *level = self.atLevel; if([level isEqualToString:@"level2"]) { NSMutableDictionary *stream = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; stream = (NSMutableDictionary *) [dataList objectAtIndex:row]; // stream value is (int)[$VAR count]} key/value pairs if ([stream valueForKey:@"title"] ) { cell.textLabel.text = [stream valueForKey:@"title"]; cell.textLabel.numberOfLines = 2; cell.textLabel.font =[UIFont systemFontOfSize:10]; NSString *detailText = [stream valueForKey:@"created"]; cell.detailTextLabel.numberOfLines = 2; cell.detailTextLabel.font= [UIFont systemFontOfSize:9]; cell.detailTextLabel.text = detailText; NSString *str = @"http://www.mywebsite.co.uk/images/stories/Cimex.jpg"; NSData *imageURL = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:str]]; UIImage *newsImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:imageURL]; cell.imageView.image = newsImage; [stream release]; } } else { cell.textLabel.text = [dataList objectAtIndex:row]; } return cell; } Thanks for your time

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  • Java/Android get array from xml

    - by Ashley
    I have a list of longitude and longitude points in an xml file that is used throughout my application. I find my self repeating this code to get points often and think there must be a better way? String[] mTempArray = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.stations); int len = mTempArray.length; mStationArray = new ArrayList<Station>(); for(int i = 0; i < len; i++){ Station s = new Station(); String[] fields = mTempArray[i].split("[\t ]"); s.setValuesFromArray(fields); Log.i("ADD STATION", ""+s); mStationArray.add(s); } XML is in the format of: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> <array name="stations"> <item> <name>Station name</name> <longitude>1111111</longitude> <latitude>11111</latitude> <code>1</code> </item> And another (possible) problem is that to get just one station I have to get all of them and pull the one I want from the array. Is this going to be considerably slower? Can I make this array consistent throughout the app? (But keeping the separate Intent methodology)

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