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  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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  • DBTransactions between stateless calls using GUIDs

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I'm looking to add transactional support to my DB engine and providing to Abstract Transaction Handling down to passing in Guids with the DB Action Command. The DB engine would run similar to: private static Database DB; public static Dictionary<Guid,DBTransaction> Transactions = new ...() public static void DoDBAction(string cmdstring,List<Parameter> parameters,Guid TransactionGuid) { DBCommand cmd = BuildCommand(cmdstring,parameters); if(Transactions.ContainsKey(TransactionGuid)) cmd.Transaction = Transactions[TransactionGuid]; DB.ExecuteScalar(cmd); } public static BuildCommand(string cmd, List<Parameter> parameters) { // Create DB command from EntLib Database and assign parameters } public static Guid BeginTransaction() { // creates new Transaction adding it to "Transactions" and opens a new connection } public static Guid Commit(Guid g) { // Commits Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } public static Guid Rollback(Guid g) { // Rolls back Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } The Calling system would run similar to: Guid g try { g = DBEngine.BeginTransaction() DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring1, parameters,g) // do some other stuff DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring2, parameters2,g) // sit here and wait for a response from other item DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring3, parameters3,g) DBEngine.Commit(g) } catch(Exception){ DBEngine.Rollback(g);} Does this interfere with .NET connection pooling (other than a connection be accidently left open)? Will EntLib keep the connection open until the commit or rollback?

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  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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  • Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

    - by Pretzel
    So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

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  • [AS3] Calling Php Script with UTF-8 POST variables

    - by kornelijepetak
    AS3 documentation says that Strings in AS3 are in UTF-16 format. There is a textbox on a Flash Clip where user can type some data. When a button is clicked, I want this data to be sent to a php script. I have everything set up, but it seems that the PHP script gets the data in UTF-16 format. The data in the database (which is utf-8) shows some unrecognizable characters (where special characters are used), meaning that the data has not been sent in a correct encoding. var variables:URLVariables=new URLVariables; var varSend:URLRequest=new URLRequest("http://website.com/systematic/accept.php"); varSend.method=URLRequestMethod.POST; varSend.data=variables; var varLoader:URLLoader=new URLLoader; varLoader.dataFormat=URLLoaderDataFormat.VARIABLES; varLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, completeHandler); When submit button is clicked, the following handler gets executed. function sendData(event:MouseEvent) : void { // i guess here is the problem (tbName.text is UTF-16) variables.name = tbName.text; varLoader.load(varSend); } Is there any way to send the data so that PHP script gets the data in UTF-8 format? (PHP script is retrieving the value using the $_POST['name']).

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  • Nullable<T> as a parameter

    - by ferch
    I alredy have this: public static object GetDBValue(object ObjectEvaluated) { if (ObjectEvaluated == null) return DBNull.Value; else return ObjectEvaluated; } used like: List<SqlParameter> Params = new List<SqlParameter>(); Params.Add(new SqlParameter("@EntityType", GetDBValue(EntityType))); Now i wanted to keep the same interface but extend that to use it with nullable public static object GetDBValue(int? ObjectEvaluated) { if (ObjectEvaluated.HasValue) return ObjectEvaluated.Value; else return DBNull.Value; } public static object GetDBValue(DateTime? ObjectEvaluated) {...} but i want only 1 function GetDBValue for nullables. How do I do that and keep the call as is is? Is that possible at all? I can make it work like: public static object GetDBValue<T>(Nullable<T> ObjectEvaluated) where T : struct { if (ObjectEvaluated.HasValue) return ObjectEvaluated.Value; else return DBNull.Value; } But the call changes to: Params.Add(new SqlParameter("@EntityID ", GetDBValue<int>(EntityID)));

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  • Finding the index of a list item in jQuery

    - by Tim Piele
    I have an unordered list of eight items. On page load the first five <li> have default thumbnail images in them and the 6th one has a 1px by 1px placeholder image with the ID of $('#last'). When a user inserts a new image it replaces the 'src' of $('#last') with their new image. It's not the most efficient way but it works. <ul> <li><img src="img1.png" /></li> <li><img src="img2.png" /></li> <li><img src="img3.png" /></li> <li><img src="img4.png" /></li> <li><img src="img5.png" /></li> <li><img src="1px.png" id="last"/></li> <li></li> <li></li> </ul> When the user adds a new image the ID of $('#last') is removed and I use each() to find the next empty <li> and insert the 1px by 1px image in it, with an ID of $('#last') so it is ready for the next image upload. At this point I need to get the index() of the <li> that now has the 1px by 1px image in it, whose ID is $('#last'), so that I can store the index in the session, so when a user comes back to the page the $('#last') ID is still set and ready to accept another image. How do I get the index of the <li> with that image in it, since it was set after page load? Is there a way to use delegate() or on() to get it? i.e. how do I get the index of an element that was set after page load?

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  • problem with drag and drop for the winform using c#

    - by karthik
    I dont have the title bar in my winform, so i need to code drag and drop for the entire form. I am using the below code to do it, which works fine. I have two panels in my form, PanelA and PanelB. During the startup i show PanelA where the drag and drop works perfectly. Later when the user clicks the button in PannelA, i need to make PanelA visible false and show the PanelB My drag and drop is not working when the PanelB is loaded in form. Whats the problem here ? private void SerialPortScanner_MouseUp(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = false; } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = true; this.start_point = new Point(e.X, e.Y); } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (this.drag) { Point p1 = new Point(e.X, e.Y); Point p2 = this.PointToScreen(p1); Point p3 = new Point(p2.X - this.start_point.X, p2.Y - this.start_point.Y); this.Location = p3; } }

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  • Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

    - by Elisa
    When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

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  • Catching specific vs. generic exceptions in c#

    - by Scott Vercuski
    This question comes from a code analysis run against an object I've created. The analysis says that I should catch a more specific exception type than just the basic Exception. Do you find yourself using just catching the generic Exception or attempting to catch a specific Exception and defaulting to a generic Exception using multiple catch blocks? One of the code chunks in question is below: internal static bool ClearFlags(string connectionString, Guid ID) { bool returnValue = false; SqlConnection dbEngine = new SqlConnection(connectionString); SqlCommand dbCmd = new SqlCommand("ClearFlags", dbEngine); SqlDataAdapter dataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(dbCmd); dbCmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; try { dbCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID.ToString()); dbEngine.Open(); dbCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); dbEngine.Close(); returnValue = true; } catch (Exception ex) { ErrorHandler(ex); } return returnValue; } Thank you for your advice EDIT: Here is the warning from the code analysis Warning 351 CA1031 : Microsoft.Design : Modify 'ClearFlags(string, Guid)' to catch a more specific exception than 'Exception' or rethrow the exception

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  • Does The Clear Method On A Collection Release The Event Subscriptions?

    - by DaveB
    I have a collection private ObservableCollection<Contact> _contacts; In the constructor of my class I create it _contacts = new ObservableCollection<Contact>(); I have methods to add and remove items from my collection. I want to track changes to the entities in my collection which implement the IPropertyChanged interface so I subscribe to their PropertyChanged event. public void AddContact(Contact contact) { ((INotifyPropertyChanged)contact).PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(Contact_PropertyChanged); _contacts.Add(contact); } public void AddContact(int index, Contact contact) { ((INotifyPropertyChanged)contact).PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(Contact_PropertyChanged); _contacts.Insert(index, contact); } When I remove an entity from the collection, I unsubscribe from the PropertyChanged event. I am told this is to allow the entity to be garbage collected and not create memory issues. public void RemoveContact(Contact contact) { ((INotifyPropertyChanged)contact).PropertyChanged -= Contact_PropertyChanged; _contacts.Remove(contact); } So, I hope this is all good. Now, I need to clear the collection in one of my methods. My first thought would be to call _contacts.Clear(). Then I got to wondering if this releases those event subscriptions? Would I need to create my own clear method? Something like this: public void ClearContacts() { foreach(Contact contact in _contacts) { this.RemoveContact(contact); } } I am hoping one of the .NET C# experts here could clear this up for me or tell me what I am doing wrong.

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  • How can I execute an ANTLR parser action for each item in a rule that can match more than one item?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I am trying to write an ANTLR parser rule that matches a list of things, and I want to write a parser action that can deal with each item in the list independently. Some example input for these rules is: $(A1 A2 A3) I'd like this to result in an evaluator that contains a list of three MyIdentEvaluator objects -- one for each of A1, A2, and A3. Here's a snippet of my grammar: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN op=my_ident+ { /* want to do something here for each 'my_ident'. */ /* the following seems to see only the 'A3' my_ident */ $e.Add($op.e); } RPAREN ; my_ident returns [IEvaluator e] : IDENT { $e = new MyIdentEvaluator($IDENT.text); } ; I think my_ident is defined correctly, because I can see the three MyIdentEvaluators getting created as expected for my input string, but only the last my_ident ever gets added to the list (A3 in my example input). How can I best treat each of these elements independently, either through a grammar change or a parser action change? It also occurred to me that my vocabulary for these concepts is not what it should be, so if it looks like I'm misusing a term, I probably am. EDIT in response to Wayne's comment: I tried to use op+=my_ident+. In that case, the $op in my action becomes an IList (in C#) that contains Antlr.Runtime.Tree.CommonTree instances. It does give me one entry per matched token in $op, so I see my three matches, but I don't have the MyIdentEvaluator instances that I really want. I was hoping I could then find a rule attribute in the ANTLR docs that might help with this, but nothing seemed to help me get rid of this IList. Result... Based on chollida's answer, I ended up with this which works well: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN (op=my_ident { $e.Add($op.e); } )+ RPAREN ; The Add method gets called for each match of my_ident.

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  • How can I refactor this to work without breaking the pattern horribly?

    - by SnOrfus
    I've got a base class object that is used for filtering. It's a template method object that looks something like this. public class Filter { public void Process(User u, GeoRegion r, int countNeeded) { List<account> selected = this.Select(u, r, countNeeded); // 1 List<account> filtered = this.Filter(selected, u, r, countNeeded); // 2 if (filtered.Count > 0) { /* do businessy stuff */ } // 3 if (filtered.Count < countNeeded) this.SendToSuccessor(u, r, countNeeded - filtered) // 4 } } Select(...), Filter(...) are protected abstract methods and implemented by the derived classes. Select(...) finds objects in the based on x criteria, Filter(...) filters those selected further. If the remaining filtered collection has more than 1 object in it, we do some business stuff with it (unimportant to the problem here). SendToSuccessor(...) is called if there weren't enough objects found after filtering (it's a composite where the next class in succession will also be derived from Filter but have different filtering criteria) All has been ok, but now I'm building another set of filters, which I was going to subclass from this. The filters I'm building however would require different params and I don't want to just implement those methods and not use the params or just add to the param list the ones I need and have them not used in the existing filters. They still perform the same logical process though. I also don't want to complicated the consumer code for this (which looks like this) Filter f = new Filter1(); Filter f2 = new Filter2(); Filter f3 = new Filter3(); f.Sucessor = f2; f2.Sucessor = f3; /* and so on adding filters as successors to previous ones */ foreach (User u in users) { foreach (GeoRegion r in regions) { f.Process(u, r, ##); } } How should I go about it?

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  • Python: Errors saving and loading objects with pickle module

    - by Peterstone
    Hi, I am trying to load and save objects with this piece of code I get it from a question I asked a week ago: Python: saving and loading objects and using pickle. The piece of code is this: class Fruits: pass banana = Fruits() banana.color = 'yellow' banana.value = 30 import pickle filehandler = open("Fruits.obj","wb") pickle.dump(banana,filehandler) filehandler.close() file = open("Fruits.obj",'rb') object_file = pickle.load(file) file.close() print(object_file.color, object_file.value, sep=', ') At a first glance the piece of code works well, getting load and see the 'color' and 'value' of the saved object. But, what I pursuit is to close a session, open a new one and load what I save in a past session. I close the session after putting the line filehandler.close() and I open a new one and I put the rest of your code, then after putting object_file = pickle.load(file) I get this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#5>", line 1, in <module> object_file = pickle.load(file) File "C:\Python31\lib\pickle.py", line 1365, in load encoding=encoding, errors=errors).load() AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'Fruits' Can anyone explain me what this error message means and telling me how to solve this problem? Thank so much and happy new year!!

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by Dann
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • jQuery: Targeting elements added via *non-jQuery* AJAX before any Javascript events fire? Beyond th

    - by peteorpeter
    Working on a Wicket application that adds markup to the DOM after onLoad via Wicket's built-in AJAX for an auto-complete widget. We have an IE6 glitch that means I need to reposition the markup coming in, and I am trying to avoid tampering with the Wicket javascript... blah blah blah... here's what I'm trying to do: New markup arrives in the DOM (I don't have access to a callback) Somehow I know this, so I fire my code. I tried this, hoping the new tags would trigger onLoad events: $("selectorForNewMarkup").live("onLoad", function(){ //using jQuery 1.4.1 //my code }); ...but have become educated that onLoad only fires on the initial page load. Is there another event fired when elements are added to the DOM? Or another way to sense changes to the DOM? Everything I've bumped into on similar issues with new markup additions, they have access to the callback function on .load() or similar, or they have a real javascript event to work with and live() works perfectly. Is this a pipe dream?

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  • mail send using C# code debugging.

    - by riad
    Dear all, I have to send mail using C#.I follow each and every step properly but i cannot send mail using this below code.Can anybody pls help me to solve this issue??I know its an old issue and i read all the related articles on that's site about it.But cannot solved my issue.So pls help me to solve this code.The error is: Failur sending mail.I use System.Net.Mail to do it using System.Net.Mail; string mailTo = emailTextBox.Text; string messageFrom = "[email protected]"; string mailSubject = subjectTextBox.Text; string messageBody = messageRichTextBox.Text; string smtpAddress = "mail.abc.com"; int smtpPort = 25; string accountName = "[email protected]"; string accountPassword = "123"; MailMessage message = new MailMessage(messageFrom, mailTo); message.Subject = mailSubject; message.SubjectEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; message.Body = messageBody; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; SmtpClient objSmtp = new SmtpClient(smtpAddress, smtpPort); objSmtp.UseDefaultCredentials = false; NetworkCredential basicAuthenticationInfo = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(accountName, accountPassword); objSmtp.Credentials = basicAuthenticationInfo; objSmtp.Send(message); MessageBox.Show("Mail send properly"); Thanks in advance Riad

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  • Resizing FileReference image then reuploading, only reuploads original image.

    - by pfunc
    I can;t figure out how to do this. Someone selects and image after calling FileReference.browse(). I take that image and make a thumbnail in flash. Then I upload that image like so: var newFileReq:URLRequest = new URLRequest(FILE_UPLOAD_TEMP); newFileReq.contentType = "application/octet-stream"; var fileReqVars:URLVariables = new URLVariables(); fileReqVars.image = myThumbImage; fileReqVars.folder = "Thumbs"; newFileReq.data = fileReqVars; newFileReq.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; //upload the first image fileRef.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onFirstFileUp); fileRef.upload(newFileReq, "Filedata"); All this does it upload the original image. How do I change the fileRef to upload the new thumb? I have traced out the size of the "myThumbImage" and it is correct. I have placed it visually on the stage after creating the thumb, and it seems like it works. But when I upload it to an aspx page (that basically just throws it into a folder), it uploads the original larger image.

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  • Update data table on ASMX Service side

    - by Paul
    Hi, I need advice. On Web Service side a I hav this method : public DataSet GetDs(string id) { SqlConnection conn = null; SqlDataAdapter da = null; DataSet ds; try { string sql = "SELECT * FROM Tab1"; string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Employees"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, conn); ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "Tab1"); return ds; } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } finally { if (conn != null) conn.Close(); if (da != null) da.Dispose(); } } It return dataset to client app. I client application is dataset binding in datagridview. Client can insert,update,delete row from table. If client finish his work, I want accept change in data table on web service side. I can sent clients all dataset na update table on web service side, but I want sent only changed data. Any advice? Thank u.

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  • Memory leaks while using array of double

    - by Gacek
    I have a part of code that operates on large arrays of double (containing about 6000 elements at least) and executes several hundred times (usually 800) . When I use standard loop, like that: double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... } The memory usage rises for about 40MB (from 40MB at the beggining of the loop, to the 80MB at the end). When I force to use the garbage collector to execute at every iteration, the memory usage stays at the level of 40MB (the rise is unsignificant). double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... GC.Collect() } But the execution time is 3 times longer! (it is crucial) How can I force the C# to use the same area of memory instead of allocating new ones? Note: I have the access to the code of someObject class, so if it would be needed, I can change it.

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  • Linq2Sql: query - subquery optimisation

    - by Budda
    I have the following query: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.Type=typeValue select new InfrStadium(sector.TeamId) ).ToList(); and InfrStadium class constructor: private InfrStadium(int teamId) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.TeamId==teamId select sector) .ToList<>(); ... work with data } Current implementation perform 1+n queries, where n - number of records fetched the 1st time. I want to optimize that. And another one I would love to do using 'group' operator in way like this: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IEnumerable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } But attempt to launch query causes the following error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for constructor parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[InfrStadiumSector]' Question 1: Could you please explain, what is wrong here, I don't understand why 'team_sectors' is applied as 'System.Int32'? I've tried to change query a little (replace IEnumerable with IQueryeable): IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors.AsQueryable()) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IQueryeable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } In this case I've received another but similar error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[InfrStadiumSector]' of method 'System.Linq.IQueryable1[InfrStadiumSector] AsQueryableInfrStadiumSector' Question 2: Actually, the same question: can't understand at all what is going on here... P.S. I have another to optimize query idea (describe here: Linq2Sql: query optimisation) but I would love to find a solution with 1 request to DB).

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  • Have you had DLL's fail after upgrading to 64 bit server?

    - by quakkels
    Hey All, I'm wondering if anyone else has experienced failed DLL's after upgrading their servers. My company is in the process of upgrading our code and server's after ten years of using classic ASP. We've set up our new server running Windows 2008 and IIS 7. Our classic ASP code and our new asp.net mvc code work pretty well. Our problems started happening when we began moving our old websites to the new server. When trying to load the page on the actual server machine's browser, we initially got a 500 error. If we refreshed the page then some of the page would load but then display an error: Server object error 'ASP 0177 : 800401f3' Server.CreateObject Failed /folder/scriptname.asp, line 24 800401f3 btw: On remote machines we would just get 500 errors. Line 24 is the first executable code in the script: '23 lines of comments set A0SQL_DATA = server.createobject("olddllname.Data") 'the rest of the script That specific line is trying to use a ten year old DLL to create a server object. I don't think the server configuration is a problem because I'm able to create "adodb.recordset" server objects without any problems. Is there an issue when running correctly registered old DLL's on 64 bit systems? Is there a way to get old DLL's working on 64 bit systems?

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  • Type casting in C++ by detecting the current 'this' object type

    - by Elroy
    My question is related to RTTI in C++ where I'm trying to check if an object belongs to the type hierarchy of another object. The BelongsTo() method checks this. I tried using typeid, but it throws an error and I'm not sure about any other way how I can find the target type to convert to at runtime. #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> class X { public: // Checks if the input type belongs to the type heirarchy of input object type bool BelongsTo(X* p_a) { // I'm trying to check if the current (this) type belongs to the same type // hierarchy as the input type return dynamic_cast<typeid(*p_a)*>(this) != NULL; // error C2059: syntax error 'typeid' } }; class A : public X { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { }; int main() { X* a = new A(); X* b = new B(); X* c = new C(); bool test1 = b->BelongsTo(a); // should return true bool test2 = b->BelongsTo(c); // should return false bool test3 = c->BelongsTo(a); // should return true } Making the method virtual and letting derived classes do it seems like a bad idea as I have a lot of classes in the same type hierarchy. Or does anybody know of any other/better way to the do the same thing? Please suggest.

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  • Android: ProgressDialog doesn't show

    - by Select0r
    Hi, I'm trying to create a ProgressDialog for an Android-App (just a simple one showing the user that stuff is happening, no buttons or anything) but I can't get it right. I've been through forums and tutorials as well as the Sample-Code that comes with the SDK, but to no avail. This is what I got: btnSubmit.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view) { (...) ProgressDialog pd = new ProgressDialog(MyApp.this); pd.setProgressStyle(ProgressDialog.STYLE_HORIZONTAL); pd.setMessage("Working..."); pd.setIndeterminate(true); pd.setCancelable(false); // now fetch the results (...long time calculations here...) // remove progress dialog pd.dismiss(); I've also tried adding pd.show(); and messed around with the parameter in new ProgressDialog resulting in nothing at all (except errors that the chosen parameter won't work), meaning: the ProgressDialog won't ever show up. The app just keeps running as if I never added the dialog. I don't know if I'm creating the dialog at the right place, I moved it around a bit but that, too, didnt't help. Maybe I'm in the wrong context? The above code is inside private ViewGroup _createInputForm() in MyApp. Any hint is appreciated, Greetings, Select0r

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  • XMLHttpRequest() and outputting csv file

    - by sjw
    Initially, I developed a javascript function to use window.open to post contents of a form to a new window which simply opened the new window and initiated a csv file download. Now on reflection, I find the opening of the window superfluous and am trying to just execute a XMLHttpRequest() to download the csv. I am not getting what I want and I'm not 100% sure that I can so I thought I'd ask here for some assistance. When a form is submitted, I want to take all the form values and post them to another page which builds an SQL string and builds a csv based on the contents. (This I can do and works fine with XMLHttpRequest() as seen below) var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); var parameters = ""; for ( i=0; i<formObj.elements.length; i++ ) { parameters += formObj.elements[i].name + "=" + encodeURI( formObj.elements[i].value ) + "&"; } xhReq.open("POST", outputLocation, false); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xhReq.send(parameters); document.write(xhReq.responseText); The code above calls the page ok, builds the csv ok, but it outputs the contents into the current browser window instead of initiating a csv file download. Can I achieve what I need using XMLHttpRequest() or am I going it about it the wrong way? Thanks

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