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• What are good examples of perfectly acceptable approaches to development that are NOT test driven development (TDD)?

  - by markbruns

  The TDD cycle is test, code, refactor, (repeat) and then ship. TDD implies development that is driven by testing, specifically that means understanding requirements and then writing tests first before developing or writing code. My natural inclination is a philosophical bias in favor of TDD; I would like to be convinced that there are other approaches that now work well or even better than TDD so I have asked this question. What are examples of perfectly acceptable approaches that NOT test driven development? I can think of plenty approaches that are not TDD but could be a lot more trouble than what they are worth ... it's not moral judgement, it's just that they are cost more than they are worth ... the following are simply examples of things that might be ok as learning exercises, but approaches I'd find to be NOT acceptable in serious production and NOT TDD might include: Inspecting quality into your product -- Focusing efforts on developing a proficiency in testing/QA can be problematic, especially if you don't work on the requirements and development side first ... symptom of this include bug triaging where the developers have so many different bugs to deal with it, it is necessary to employ a form of triage -- each development cycle gets worse and worse, programmers work more and more hours, sleep less and less, struggle to keep going in death march until they are consumed. Superstition ... believing in things that you don't understand -- this would involve borrowing code that you believe has been proven or tested from somewhere, e.g. legacy code, a magic code starter wizard or an open source project, and you go forward hacking up a storm of modifications, sliding FaceBook Connect into your the user interface, inventing some new magic features on the fly (e.g. a mashup using the Twitter API, GoogleMaps API and maybe Zappos API), showing off your cool new "product" to a few people and then writing up a simple "specification" and list of "test cases" and turning that over to Mechanical Turk for testing.

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• Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used.

  - by Kevin Buchan

  Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used. I apologize for asking a question that I should be able to answer from the documentation, but I have read and read and searched and cannot answer this question, which leads me to believe that I have a fundamentally flawed understanding of what AppFabric's caching capabilities are intended for. I work for a geographically disperse company. We have a particular application that was originally written as a client/server application. It’s so massive and business critical that we want to baby step converting it to a better architected solution. One of the ideas we had was to convert the app to read its data using WCF calls to a co-located web server that would cache communication with the database in the United States. The nature of the application is such that everyone will tend to be viewing the same 2000 records or so with only occasional updates and those updates will be made by a limited set of users. I was hoping that AppFabric’s cache mechanism would allow me to set up one global cache and when a user in Asia, for example, requested data that was not in the cache or was stale that the web server would read from the database in the USA, provide the data to the user, then update the cache which would propagate that data to the other web servers so that they would know not to go back to the database themselves. Can AppFabric work this way or should I just have the servers retrieve their own data from the database?

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• Override one css class with another?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I have a list, with an li style defined. I want to replace the style of an individual element, but it doesn't seem to have any visual effect. Example: .myList li { background-color: yellow; } .foo { background-color: green; } <ul class='myList'> <li>Hello</li> </ul> When I add an item to the list, it has the .myList li style applied properly. I try now to remove all styles and apply the foo style to a single item (using jquery): $(item).removeClass(); $(item).addClass("foo"); the item does not change color to green though, but this reports the class is set to 'foo': alert($(item).attr('class')); so I guess I'm not understanding css rules here, looks like the li class definition is just overriding whatever else I do, however I want the reverse to be true, I want to override the li style definition with foo. How do we do this? Thanks

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• What rules govern the copying of variables in Javascript closures?

  - by int3

  I'd just like to check my understanding of variable copying in Javascript. From what I gather, variables are passed/assigned by reference unless you explicitly tell them to create a copy with the new operator. But I'm a little uncertain when it comes to using closures. Say I have the following code: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; console.log(x); }); } fnlist[2](); // returns 20 I gather that this is because fnlist[2] only looks up the value of data at the point where it is invoked. So I tried an alternative tack: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; return function() { console.log(x); } }()); } fnlist[2](); // returns 10 So now it returns the 'correct' value. Am I right to say that it works because a function resolves all variable references to their 'constant' values when it is invoked? Or is there a better way to explain it? Any explanations / links to explanations regarding this referencing / copying business would be appreciated as well. Thanks!

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• PHP Multi-Domain Sessions; ini_set Not Working?

  - by SumWon

  Hello, I'm trying to set it up so if you log in to my website the session carries over to all sub-domains of my website. For example, if you go to domain.com and log in, then go to sub.domain.com, you'll already be logged in at sub.domain.com. To my understanding, you would want to use ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com') and then session_start(), then set your session variables, but this isn't working. Example of what I'm doing: Code for domain.com: <?php ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com'); session_start(); $_SESSION['variable'] = 1; ?> Code for sub.domain.com: <?php session_start(); echo $_SESSION['variable']; ?> But $_SESSION['variable'] isn't set. I've also tried using ini_set() in the sub.domain.com code, but it made no difference. I've verified that setting session.cookie_domain is working by using ini_get(). What am I doing wrong? Thanks!

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• Force calling the derived class implementation within a generic function in C#?

  - by Adam Hardy

  Ok so I'm currently working with a set of classes that I don't have control over in some pretty generic functions using these objects. Instead of writing literally tens of functions that essentially do the same thing for each class I decided to use a generic function instead. Now the classes I'm dealing with are a little weird in that the derived classes share many of the same properties but the base class that they are derived from doesn't. One such property example is .Parent which exists on a huge number of derived classes but not on the base class and it is this property that I need to use. For ease of understanding I've created a small example as follows: class StandardBaseClass {} // These are simulating the SMO objects class StandardDerivedClass : StandardBaseClass { public object Parent { get; set; } } static class Extensions { public static object GetParent(this StandardDerivedClass sdc) { return sdc.Parent; } public static object GetParent(this StandardBaseClass sbc) { throw new NotImplementedException("StandardBaseClass does not contain a property Parent"); } // This is the Generic function I'm trying to write and need the Parent property. public static void DoSomething<T>(T foo) where T : StandardBaseClass { object Parent = ((T)foo).GetParent(); } } In the above example calling DoSomething() will throw the NotImplemented Exception in the base class's implementation of GetParent(), even though I'm forcing the cast to T which is a StandardDerivedClass. This is contrary to other casting behaviour where by downcasting will force the use of the base class's implementation. I see this behaviour as a bug. Has anyone else out there encountered this?

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• Why is it possible to enumerate a LinqToSql query after calling Dispose() on the DataContext?

  - by DanM

  I'm using the Repository Pattern with some LinqToSql objects. My repository objects all implement IDisposable, and the Dispose() method does only thing--calls Dispose() on the DataContext. Whenever I use a repository, I wrap it in a using person, like this: public IEnumerable<Person> SelectPersons() { using (var repository = _repositorySource.GetNew<Person>(dc => dc.Person)) { return repository.GetAll(); } } This method returns an IEnumerable<Person>, so if my understanding is correct, no querying of the database actually takes place until Enumerable<Person> is traversed (e.g., by converting it to a list or array or by using it in a foreach loop), as in this example: var persons = gateway.SelectPersons(); // Dispose() is fired here var personViewModels = ( from b in persons select new PersonViewModel { Id = b.Id, Name = b.Name, Age = b.Age, OrdersCount = b.Order.Count() }).ToList(); // executes queries In this example, Dispose() gets called immediately after setting persons, which is an IEnumerable<Person>, and that's the only time it gets called. So, a couple questions: How does this work? How can a disposed DataContext still query the database for results when I walk the IEnumerable<Person>? What does Dispose() actually do? I've heard that it is not necessary (e.g., see this question) to dispose of a DataContext, but my impression was that it's not a bad idea. Is there any reason not to dispose of it?

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• Javascript object properties access functions in parent constructor?

  - by Bob Spryn

  So I'm using this pretty standard jquery plugin pattern whereby you can grab an api after applying the jquery function to a specific instance. This API is essentially a javascript object with a bunch of methods and data. So I wanted to essentially create some private internal methods for the object only to manipulate data etc, which just doesn't need to be available as part of the API. So I tried this: // API returned with new $.TranslationUI(options, container) $.TranslationUI = function (options, container) { // private function? function monkey(){ console.log("blah blah blah"); } // extend the default settings with the options object passed this.settings = $.extend({},$.TranslationUI.defaultSettings,options); // set a reference for the container dom element this.container = container; // call the init function this.init(); }; The problem I'm running into is that init can't call that function "monkey". I'm not understanding the explanation behind why it can't. Is it because init is a prototype method?($.TranslationUI's prototype is extended with a bunch of methods including init elsewhere in the code) $.extend($.TranslationUI, { prototype: { init : function(){ // doesn't work monkey(); // editing flag this.editing = false; // init event delegates here for // languagepicker $(this.settings.languageSelector, this.container).bind("click", {self: this}, this.selectLanguage); } } }); Any explanations would be helpful. Would love other thoughts on creating private methods with this model too. These particular functions don't HAVE to be in prototype, and I don't NEED private methods protected from being used externally, but I want to know how should I have that requirement in the future.

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• Can somebody please explain this recursive function for me?

  - by capncoolio

  #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> void reprint(char *a[]) { if(*a) { printf("%d ",a); reprint(a+1); printf("%s ",*a); } } int main() { char *coll[] = {"C", "Objective", "like", "don't", "I", NULL}; reprint(coll); printf("\n"); return EXIT_SUCCESS; } As the more experienced will know, this prints the array in reverse. I don't quite understand how! I need help understanding what reprint(char *a[]) does. I understand pointer arithmetic to a degree, but from inserting printf's here and there, I've determined that the function increments up to the array end, and then back down to the start, only printing on the way down. However, I do not understand how it does this; all I've managed to understand by looking at the actual code is that if *a isn't NULL, then call reprint again, at the next index. Thanks guys!

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• Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

  - by mystify

  For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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• Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

  - by mystify

  For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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• What is the common way to program action listeners?

  - by Roman

  I just started to learn how to use action listeners. To my understanding it works in the following way: There are some classes which contains "addActionListener" method by default (for example classes for buttons). Using this method we add an action listener to an object. For example: listenedObject.addActionListener(listeningObject). When an action with the "listenedObject" is performed, the "actionPerformed" method of the "listeningObject" will be called. So, it means that when we program a class for the listeningObject, we need to put there "actionPerformed" method. What is not clear to me, should we create a new class for every object that we want to listen. It does not seem to me as an elegant solution. On the other hand, if we have one action listener class for all (or at least many) object, than we have a problem since a instance of this class will not know which object is calling the "actionPerformed" method (and we need to know that since actions performed by the actionPerformed differs depending on who is called for this method). In my opinion, for every listened object we need to create are "personal" action listener and we can do it by setting a specific value to the corresponding field of the action listener. But I am not sure that it is a standard way to go? How do usually people do it?

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• Adding an keyUp-event to form objects

  - by reporter

  Hello folks, I've got the issue to add a browser event to some input fields. The challenge I have to face is, that one parameter of my target function is the 'event'-variable and the second one an object. For a better understanding here some codes:The HTML object: <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced" class="xp set"> <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced_label" class="label">Birthday</div> <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced_value" class="value date"> <input class="day" name="dayOfBirth" value="66" maxlength="2" type="text"> <input class="month" name="monthOfBirth" value="67" maxlength="2" type="text"> <input class="year" name="yearOfBirth" value="" maxlength="4" type="text"> </div> </div> The source code of target method is like below: function advancedDateFields(currentFieldAsObject, nextField, currentValueLength, ev){} Unfortunatly the HTML and the Javascript code is generated automatically, so I'm unable to refactore the code. My question is, how can I pass the key word 'event' and the other parameters? My tries did always fail. :-(

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• Custom collision

  - by bali182

  I was recently assigned to create a siple game using the Corona SDK. The main pillar of the game would be a simple event: the user should put a ball in a basket, and I should be able to handle this event. Here is a picture for better understanding: I successfully managed to create the collision shape for the basket, but i have trouble with the collision of the inside of this basket. My first thought was the following: create a new shape size and position it to fit the "belly" of this basket add it to the physics-world, and listen to the collision. With hybrid drawing it looks like this: But there is a problem: if i add this shape to the physics, it wouldn't let the ball fall into the, basket, it will handle this shape as a solid object as well. So my question is: How could I get this custom object to collide, without blocking the ball to fall through it? I have read a lots of forum post with similar questions but none of them got a proper answer. There must be a way to do this in an elegant way. And one note: Please don't suggest checking the collision manually, with rectangle intersection, because in this simple case it would work, but later I may need to change the shape of the basket, and then it will be useless!

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• GTK+ and GdkPixbuf

  - by Daniel

  Hi all, I think I've got an understanding problem of GTK. My simple application has a stream of images and I'd like to display them within my GTK Window. Up to now, it looks like this: GdkPixbuf *pb = gdk_pixbuf_new_from_data(img2, GDK_COLORSPACE_RGB, FALSE, 24/3, 320, 240, 320*3, NULL, NULL); if(pb == NULL) fprintf(stderr, "Pixbuf is null!\n"); if(image != NULL) gtk_container_remove(GTK_CONTAINER(window), image); image = gtk_image_new_from_pixbuf(pb); gtk_container_add(GTK_CONTAINER(window), image); printf("Updated!\n"); img2 is my (rgb) buffer that gets updated from a stream each time. I guess gtk_container_remove and gtk_container_add might be stupid to use for this? Here's what I've got in addition: GtkWidget *window; GtkWidget *image; gtk_init(&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new(GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); gtk_signal_connect(GTK_OBJECT(window), "destroy", GTK_SIGNAL_FUNC(destroy), NULL); /* ... */ start_routine_for_stream_that_calls_the_above(...) /* ... */ gtk_widget_show_all(window); gtk_main(); My problem is that it's not working this way... either I see only the last GdkPixbuf image or I see none, which is the correct behaviour ... But how do I manage it to show an (stream of) updated GdkPixbuf? Thanks for help

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• iphone: re-sizing gradient after shift from portrait to landscape

  - by d_CFO

  In viewDidLoad, I can create a gradient with no problem: CAGradientLayer *blueGradient = [[CAGradientLayer layer] retain]; blueGradient.frame = CGRectMake(gradientStartX,gradientStartY,gradientWidth,gradientHeight); where gradientWith is device-defined as 320 or 1024 as appropriate. What I can’t do is resize it inside willRotateToInterfaceOrientation: -– and thus get rid of that empty black space off to the right -- after the user changes to landscape mode. (The nav bar and tab bar behave nicely.) (1) Recalibrating the gradient’s new dimensions according to the new mid-point, (2) using kCALayerMaxXMargin, and (3) employing bounds all looked like they would do the job. bounds looked a litte more intuitive, so I tried that. I don’t want to admit that I have made zero progress. I will say that I’ve been reduced to the brute force method of trying every permutation of self, view, layer, bounds, blueGradient, and CGRect(gradientStartX,gradientStartY,newGradientWidth,newGradientHeight) with zero success. This is not difficult. My lack of understanding is making it difficult. Anyone out there “Been there, done that”?

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• Removing index.php on MAMP

  - by djeetee

  this questions was asked before and has had many responses. The problem is nothing i tried worked. Background: i use MAMP and all of my web project are located under WebProjects which I relocated out of its standard location within the MAMP folder in Applications. so my structure is something like this: Documents/WebProjects/GreatSite/Application/... What happened so far: my understanding is that removing index.php can be done either through httpd.conf or .htaccess. anytime i touched httpd.conf, Apache refuses to start. I tried various edits to .htaccess including the one in codeigniter.com/wiki/mod-rewrite and the last one from a post on SO which is this: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] this give me the following error when i access the site: An Error Was Encountered Unable to determine what should be displayed. A default route has not been specified in the routing file. I have updated config.php to have $config['index_page'] = ''; and i have placed the .htaccess file in the GreatSite folder. One other note, my CI system folder is up a level from GreatSite. Not sure if this has any impact. also, apache has the module loaded. so, I'm hoping someone has successfully done this on MAMP and could provide direction specifically around the content of their .htaccess (or even httpd.conf), it's location and any other mods they had to make to get this going. thanks

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• C# language questions

  - by Water Cooler v2

  1) What is int? Is it any different from the struct System.Int32? I understand that the former is a C# alias (typedef or #define equivalant) for the CLR type System.Int32. Is this understanding correct? 2) When we say: IComparable x = 10; Is that like saying: IComparable x = new System.Int32(); But we can't new a struct, right? or in C like syntax: struct System.In32 *x; x=>someThing = 10; 3) What is String with a capitalized S? I see in Reflector that it is the sealed String class, which, of course, is a reference type, unlike the System.Int32 above, which is a value type. What is string, with an uncapitalized s, though? Is that also the C# alias for this class? Why can I not see the alias definitions in Reflector? 4) Try to follow me down this subtle train of thought, if you please. We know that a storage location of a particular type can only access properties and members on its interface. That means: Person p = new Customer(); p.Name = "Water Cooler v2"; // legal because as Name is defined on Person. but // illegal without an explicit cast even though the backing // store is a Customer, the storage location is of type // Person, which doesn't support the member/method being // accessed/called. p.GetTotalValueOfOrdersMade(); Now, with that inference, consider this scenario: int i = 10; // obvious System.object defines no member to // store an integer value or any other value in. // So, my question really is, when the integer is // boxed, what is the *type* it is actually boxed to. // In other words, what is the type that forms the // backing store on the heap, for this operation? object x = i;

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• Voice Recognition Google API

  - by user2966744

  thanks for reading. I'm creating a simple web based drawing app that uses speech recognition. I have created a simple page, the project is on github here: https://github.com/a5hton/speechdraw It has a 16x16 pixel grid. I would like to be able to draw on this grid by using simple words. For example if you say "right", the pixel to the right will be colored black. If you say "down" the pixel below the last one will be colored black. You can say up, down, left or right and the corresponding pixels will be colored. Saying "erase" will switch to erase mode, colouring the pixels back to their original color. Saying "lift" will lift the pen off the page. Saying "draw" will enable the draw mode. Could you please help me work out how to make this happen. Please see the simple page at to get an understanding. Thank you! Cheers, Michael

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• Difference between std::result_of and decltype

  - by Luc Touraille

  I have some trouble understanding the need for std::result_of in C++0x. If I understood correctly, result_of is used to obtain the resulting type of invoking a function object with certain types of parameters. For example: template <typename F, typename Arg> typename std::result_of<F(Arg)> invoke(F f, Arg a) { return f(a); } I don't really see the difference with the following code: template <typename F, typename Arg> auto invoke(F f, Arg a) -> decltype(f(a)) //uses the f parameter { return f(a); } or template <typename F, typename Arg> auto invoke(F f, Arg a) -> decltype(F()(a)); //"constructs" an F { return f(a); } The only problem I can see with these two solutions is that we need to either: have an instance of the functor to use it in the expression passed to decltype. know a defined constructor for the functor. Am I right in thinking that the only difference between decltype and result_of is that the first one needs an expression whereas the second does not?

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• Need Explanation of couchdb reduce function

  - by Alan

  From http://wiki.apache.org/couchdb/Introduction_to_CouchDB_views The couchdb reduce function is defined as function (key, values, rereduce) { return sum(values); } key will be an array whose elements are arrays of the form [key,id] values will be an array of the values emitted for the respective elements in keys i.e. reduce([ [key1,id1], [key2,id2], [key3,id3] ], [value1,value2,value3], false) I am having trouble understanding when/why the array of keys would contain different key values. If the array of keys does contain different key values, how would I deal with it? As an example, assume that my database contains movements between accounts of the form. {"amount":100, "CreditAccount":"account_number", "DebitAccount":"account_number"} I want a view that gives the balance of an account. My map function does: emit( doc.CreditAccount, doc.amount ) emit( doc.DebitAccount, -doc.amount ) My reduce function does: return sum(values); I seem to get the expected results, however I can't reconcile this with the possibility that my reduce function gets different key values. Is my reduce function supposed to group key values first? What kind of result would I return in that case?

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• boost::function & boost::lambda - call site invocation & accessing _1 and _2 as the type

  - by John Dibling

  Sorry for the confusing title. Let me explain via code: #include <string> #include <boost\function.hpp> #include <boost\lambda\lambda.hpp> #include <iostream> int main() { using namespace boost::lambda; boost::function<std::string(std::string, std::string)> f = _1.append(_2); std::string s = f("Hello", "There"); std::cout << s; return 0; } I'm trying to use function to create a function that uses the labda expressions to create a new return value, and invoke that function at the call site, s = f("Hello", "There"); When I compile this, I get: 1>------ Build started: Project: hacks, Configuration: Debug x64 ------ 1>Compiling... 1>main.cpp 1>.\main.cpp(11) : error C2039: 'append' : is not a member of 'boost::lambda::lambda_functor<T>' 1> with 1> [ 1> T=boost::lambda::placeholder<1> 1> ] Using MSVC 9. My fundamental understanding of function and lambdas may be lacking. The tutorials and docs did not help so far this morning. How do I do what I'm trying to do?

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• Cookies NULL On Some ASP.NET Pages (even though it IS there!)

  - by DaveDev

  Hi folks I'm working on an ASP.NET application and I'm having difficulty in understanding why a cookie appears to be null. On one page (results.aspx) I create a cookie, adding entries every time the user clicks a checkbox. When the user clicks a button, they're taken to another page (graph.aspx) where the contents of that cookie is read. The problem is that the cookie doesn't seem to exist on graph.aspx. The following code returns null: Request.Cookies["MyCookie"]; The weird thing is this is only an issue on our staging server. This app is deployed to a production server and it's fine. It also works perfectly locally. I've put debug code on both pages: StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); foreach (string cookie in Request.Cookies.AllKeys) { sb.Append(cookie.ToString() + "<br />"); } this.divDebugOutput.InnerHtml = sb.ToString(); On results.aspx (where there are no problems), I can see the cookies are: MyCookie __utma __utmb __utmz _csoot _csuid ASP.NET_SessionId __utmc On graph.aspx, you can see there is no 'MyCookie' __utma __utmb __utmz _csoot _csuid ASP.NET_SessionId __utmc With that said, if I take a look with my FireCookie, I can see that the same cookie does in fact exist on BOTH pages! WTF?!?!?!?! (ok, rant over :-) ) Has anyone seen something like this before? Why would ASP.NET claim that a cookie is null on one page, and not null on another?

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• '<=' operator is not working in sql server 2000

  - by Lalit

  Hello, Scenario is, database is in the maintenance phase. this database is not developed by ours developer. it is an existing database developed by the 'xyz' company in sql server 2000. This is real time database, where i am working now. I wanted to write the stored procedure which will retrieve me the records From date1 to date 2.so query is : Select * from MyTableName Where colDate>= '3-May-2010' and colDate<= '5-Oct-2010' and colName='xyzName' whereas my understanding I must get data including upper bound date as well as lower bound date. but somehow I am getting records from '3-May-2010' (which is fine but) to '10-Oct-2010' As i observe in table design , for ColDate, developer had used 'varchar' to store the date. i know this is wrong remedy by them. so in my stored procedure I have also used varchar parameters as @FromDate1 and @ToDate to get inputs for SP. this is giving me result which i have explained. i tried to take the parameter type as 'Datetime' but it is showing error while saving/altering the stored procedure that "@FromDate1 has invalid datatype", same for "@ToDate". situation is that, I can not change the table design at all. what i have to do here ? i know we can use user defined table in sql server 2008 , but there is version sql server 2000. which does not support the same. Please guide me for this scenario. **Edited** I am trying to write like this SP: CREATE PROCEDURE USP_Data (@Location varchar(100), @FromDate DATETIME, @ToDate DATETIME) AS SELECT * FROM dbo.TableName Where CAST(Dt AS DATETIME) >=@fromDate and CAST(Dt AS DATETIME)<=@ToDate and Location=@Location GO but getting Error: Arithmetic overflow error converting expression to data type datetime. in sql server 2000 What should be that ? is i am wrong some where ? also (202 row(s) affected) is changes every time in circular manner means first time sayin (122 row(s) affected) run again saying (80 row(s) affected) if again (202 row(s) affected) if again (122 row(s) affected) I can not understand what is going on ?

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• why would i get a different views when called from different controller actions in asp.net-mvc

  - by ooo

  I have 2 different controller actions. As seen below, one calls the same view as the other one. The fitness version has a bunch of jquery ui tabs. public ActionResult FitnessByTab(string tab, DateTime entryDate) { return View("Fitness", GetFitnessVM(DateTime.Today.Date)); } public ActionResult Fitness() { return View(GetFitnessVM(DateTime.Today.Date)); } private FitnessVM GetFitnessVM(DateTime dt) { FitnessVM vm = new FitnessVM(); vm.Date = dt; // a bunch of other date that comes from a database return vm; } the issue is that on the action FitnessByTab() the tabs dont load correctly but on the Fitness() it loads fine. How could this be as my understanding is that they would be going through the same code path at that point. As you can see i am hard coded both to the same date to make sure its not a different date causing the issue. EDIT Issues has been solved. It was the relative referencing of all my links. I didn't get any issues until i used firebug that highlighted some missing references due to "../../" instead of Url.Content("

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