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  • Folder permission and submit button

    - by bob
    I want to create a simple installation script. Below are simple code. <ul> <?php function check_perms($path,$perm) { clearstatcache(); $configmod = substr(sprintf('%o', fileperms($path)), -4); $css = (($configmod != $perm) ? " class='error r2'" : " class='none'"); echo "<li".$css.">\n"; echo '<span style="float:left; padding-right:20px;">'.$path.'</span>'; echo '<span style="float:right; width:100px; text-align:right;"> <strong>'.$perm.'</strong></span>'; echo '<span style="float:right; padding-right:100px;"><strong>'.$configmod.'</strong></span>'; echo '<div class="clear"></div>'; echo "</li>"; } check_perms("config.php","0777"); check_perms("themes","0777"); check_perms("themes/images","0777"); check_perms("useruploads","0777"); ?> </ul> How to make if all file and folder is valid permission to 777 will appear Submit button. <input type='submit' name='submit' value='Submit' /> If there still have incorrect permission do not show the Submit button Let me know.

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  • How to increase PermGen memory for eclipselink StaticWeaveAntTask

    - by rayd09
    We are using Eclipselink and need to weave the code in order for lazy fetching to work property. During the weave process I'm getting the following error: weave: BUILD FAILED java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: PermGen space I have the following tasks within my ant build file: <target name="define_weave_task" description="task definition for EclipseLink static weaving"> <taskdef name="eclipse_weave" classname="org.eclipse.persistence.tools.weaving.jpa.StaticWeaveAntTask"/> </target> <target name="weave" depends="compile,define_weave_task" description="weave eclipselink code into compiled classes"> <eclipse_weave source="${path.classes}" target="${path.classes}"> <classpath refid="compile.classpath"/> </eclipse_weave> </target> It has been working great for a long time. Now that the amount of code to be woven has increased I'm getting the PermGen error. I would like to be able to up the amount of perm space. If I was doing a compile I would be able to up the perm space via a compiler argument such as <compilerarg value="-XX:MaxPermSize=256M"/> but this does not appear to be a valid argument for eclipselink weaving. How can I up the perm space for the weave?

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  • How to use dirent.h correctly.

    - by Nick
    Hello, I am new to C++ and I am experimenting with the dirent.h header to manipulate directory entries. The following little app compiles but pukes after you supple a directory name. Can someone give me a hint? The int quit is there to provide a while loop. I removed the loop in an attempt to isolate my problem. thanks! #include <iostream> #include <dirent.h> using namespace std; int main() { char *dirname = 0; DIR *pd = 0; struct dirent *pdirent = 0; int quit = 1; cout<< "Enter a directory path to open (leave blank to quit):\n"; cin >> dirname; if(dirname == NULL) { quit = 0; } pd = opendir(dirname); if(pd == NULL) { cout << "ERROR: Please provide a valid directory path.\n"; } return 0; }

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • In SQL can I return a tables with a varying number of columns

    - by Matt
    I have a somewhat more complicated scenario, but I think it should be possible. I have a large SPROC whose result is a set of characteristics for a set of persons. So the Table would look something like this: Property | Client1 Client 2 Client3 ----------------------------------------------------------- Sex | M F M Age | 67 56 67 Income | Low Mid Low It's built using cursors, iterating over different datasets. The problem I am facing is that there is a varying number of Clients and Properties, so an equally valid result over different input sets might be: Property | Client1 Client 2 ------------------------------------------- Sex | M F Age | 67 56 Weight | 122 122 The different number of properties is easy, those are just extra rows. My problem is that I need to declare a temporary table with a varying number of columns. There could be 2 clients or 100. Every client in guaranteed to have every property ultimately listed. What SQL structure would statisfy this and how can I declare it and insert things into it? I can't just flip the columns and rows either because there is a variable number of each.

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  • Javascript XMLHttpRequest Post method

    - by user535617
    Hey So I have a question about posting using an XMLHttpRequest. In theory, if I am to post a username and password to an https domain (which I have yet to get working, unfortunately) would the responseText then change to the next website, or should the text fields become filled in? What normally happens is you navigate to this page via browser, enter a username and password, and it uses a POST method when the submit button is clicked, doing some authentication under the hood and returning a different page. I feel like maybe the responseText should even stay exactly the same (which is what happens now), but I don't know as I have no experience with this kind of thing. this.requests[1].open("POST", "https://" + this.address, true); var query = "target=%2Fcgi-bin%2FStatusConfig.cgi%3FPage%3Dindex&userfile=&username=user&password=pass&log+in=Log+in"; this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-length", query.length); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Keep-Alive", 115); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Connection", "keep-alive"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Host", this.address); this.requests[1].send(query); this.requests[1].onreadystatechange = onReadyStateChange1; Then basically onReadyStateChange1 displays the responseText when ready. Any light that could be shed on what SHOULD be happening with the post and responseText would be very appreciated. As would any advice in getting the new, logged into page. For further clarification, what I'm trying to do is log in and then return the new page, because the login page displays only log in information/functionality and the page after logging in has a lot of relevant information. I'm not trying to check the credentials as much as I'm trying to get it (the script) to log in so it can access the next page. Granted, the credentials will have to be valid for that. Thanks all.

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  • PHP: json_decode dumping NULL, BOM not found

    - by SerEnder
    I've been trying to find out why this 'json_encode'd string isn't parsing out correctly, and came across previously answered questions that had the UTF BOM sequence that was throwing the error, but didn't help me here. Here's the code that isn't currently working: //Decode the notes attached to the sig $aNotes = json_decode($rule->getNotes(),true); $bom = pack("CCC",0xef,0xbb,0xbf); if(0 == strncmp($rule->getNotes(),$bom,3)) { print('BOM detected - json encoding in UTF-8<br/>'); } else { print('BOM NOT detected - json encoding correctly<br/>'); } print('rule->getNotes:<br/>' . $rule->getNotes() .'<br/>'); var_dump($aNotes); Which generates this result: BOM NOT detected - json encoding correctly rule->getNotes: [{"lDate":"Unknown","sAuthor":"Unknown","sNote":"This is a general purpose Russian spam rule that matches anything starting with 2, 3 or 4 hex digits followed by a domain name ending with .ru -RSK 2010-05-10"},{"lDate":"1295031463082","sAuthor":"Drew Thorstenson","sNote":"this is Ryan's ru rule"}] NULL I've run it through JSON Lint, which said it was valid, and An Online JSON Parser which parsed it correctly too. Any insight would be greatly appreciated.

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  • htmlspecialchars() - How and when to use and avoid multiple use

    - by naescent
    Hi, I'm building a PHP intranet for my boss. A simple customer, order, quote system. It will be denied access from the Internet and only used by 3 people. I'm not so concerned with security as I am with validation. Javascript is disables on all machines. The problem I have is this: Employee enters valid data into a form containing any of the following :;[]"' etc. Form $_POSTS this data to a validationAndProcessing.php page, and determines whether the employee entered data or not in to the fields. If they didn't they are redirected back to the data input page and the field they missed out is highlighted in red. htmlspecialchars() is applied to all data being re-populated to the form from what they entered earlier. Form is then resubmitted to validationAndProcessing.php page, if successful data is entered into the database and employee is taken to display data page. My question is this: If an employee repeatedly enters no data in step 1, they will keep moving between step 1 and 4 each time having htmlspecialchars() applied to the data. So that:- & becomes:- &amp; becomes:- &amp;amp; becomes:- &amp;amp;amp; etc.. How can I stop htmlspecialchars() being applied multiple times to data that is already cleaned? Thanks, Adam

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  • Why does GetWindowThreadProcessId return 0 when called from a service

    - by Marve
    When using the following class in a console application, and having at least one instance of Notepad running, GetWindowThreadProcessId correctly returns a non-zero thread id. However, if the same code is included in a Windows Service, GetWindowThreadProcessId always returns 0 and no exceptions are thrown. Changing the user the service launches under to be the same as the one running the console application didn't alter the result. What causes GetWindowThreadProcessId to return 0 even if it is provided with a valid hwnd? And why does it function differently in the console application and the service? Note: I am running Windows 7 32-bit and targeting .NET 3.5. public class TestClass { [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(IntPtr hWnd, IntPtr ProcessId); public void AttachToNotepad() { var processesToAttachTo = Process.GetProcessesByName("Notepad") foreach (var process in processesToAttachTo) { var threadID = GetWindowThreadProcessId(process.MainWindowHandle, IntPtr.Zero); .... } } } Console Code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var testClass = new TestClass(); testClass.AttachToNotepad(); } } Service Code: public class TestService : ServiceBase { private TestClass testClass = new TestClass(); static void Main() { ServiceBase.Run(new TestService()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { testClass.AttachToNotepad(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { ... } }

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  • Is it undefined behavior in the case of the private functions call in the initializer list?

    - by Alexey Malistov
    Consider the following code: struct Calc { Calc(const Arg1 & arg1, const Arg2 & arg2, /* */ const ArgN & argn) : arg1(arg1), arg2(arg2), /* */ argn(argn), coef1(get_coef1()), coef2(get_coef2()) { } int Calc1(); int Calc2(); int Calc3(); private: const Arg1 & arg1; const Arg2 & arg2; // ... const ArgN & argn; const int coef1; // I want to use const because const int coef2; // no modification is needed. int get_coef1() const { // calc coef1 using arg1, arg2, ..., argn; // undefined behavior? } int get_coef2() const { // calc coef2 using arg1, arg2, ..., argn and coef1; // undefined behavior? } }; struct Calc is not completely defined when I call get_coef1 and get_coef2 Is this code valid? Can I get UB?

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  • Should I close sockets from both ends?

    - by Roman
    I have the following problem. My client program monitor for availability of server in the local network (using Bonjour, but it does not rally mater). As soon as a server is "noticed" by the client application, the client tries to create a socket: Socket(serverIP,serverPort);. At some point the client can loose the server (Bonjour says that server is not visible in the network anymore). So, the client decide to close the socket, because it is not valid anymore. At some moment the server appears again. So, the client tries to create a new socket associated with this server. But! The server can refuse to create this socket since it (server) has already a socket associated with the client IP and client port. It happens because the socket was closed by the client, not by the server. Can it happen? And if it is the case, how this problem can be solved? Well, I understand that it is unlikely that the client will try to connect to the server from the same port (client port), since client selects its ports randomly. But it still can happen (just by chance). Right?

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  • How to validate properties across Models without repeating the validation logic

    - by Mano
    Hello All, I am building a ASP.NET Mvc app. I have a Data model say User public class user { public int userId {get; private set}; public string FirstName {get; set;} } The validation to be done is that the firstname cannot exceed 50 characters. I have another presentation model in which i have the property FirstName too. I do not want to repeat the validation logic in both the models. I want to have it in one place and that should be it. I can do it in a simpler way by adding a function which can be called while setting the property like private string firstName; public string FirstName { get { return firstName; } set { if (PropertyValidator.ValidName(value)) // assuming ValidName exists and it will throw an exception if the value is not valid { firstName = value; } } } But I am looking for something much simpler so that I do not need to add this for every property I need to have it validated. I looked at ValidationAttribute but then again I can validate this only from a controller (ModelState.IsValid). Since this model could be used by some other type of apps like console app, I could not choose that. But if there is a way to use the Mvc's ModelState.IsValid from outside of a controller, that would be awesome. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks!!

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  • Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

    - by GV India
    In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

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  • Dynamic evaluation of a table column within an insert before trigger

    - by Tim Garver
    HI All, I have 3 tables, main, types and linked. main has an id column and 32 type columns. types has id, type linked has id, main_id, type_id I want to create an insert before trigger on the main table. It needs to compare its 32 type columns to the values in the types table if the main table column has an 'X' for its value and insert the main_id and types_id into the linked table. i have done a lot of searching, and it looks like a prepared statement would be the way to go, but i wanted to ask the experts. The issue, is i dont want to write 32 IF statements, and even if i did, i need to query the types table to get the ID for that type, seems like a huge waist of resources. Ideally i want to do this inside of my trigger: BEGIN DECLARE @types results_set -- (not sure if this is a valid type); -- (iam sure my loop syntax is all wrong here)... SET @types = (select * from types) for i=0;i<types.records;i++ { IF NEW.[i.type] = 'X' THEN insert into linked (main_id,type_id) values (new.ID, i.id); END IF; } END; Anyway, This is what i was hoping to do, maybe there is a way to dynamically set the field name inside of a results loop, but i cant find a good example of this. Thanks in advance Tim

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • Facebook SSO authorize in safari but not in facebook app

    - by Pedro Calero
    My problem: I has developed an app with Facebook SSO in my iPhone/iPad. It was working OK. But I have changed the certificate of my app (so now it has new app ID). I also have changed the "iOS pack ID" property in Facebook: I deleted the old app ID and I added the new one. But now my app doesn't do the Facebook SSO when Facebook app is installed. It does it OK when Facebook app is not installed and it uses Safari. I have read this question and this question that say the problem is the "iOS pack ID" and app ID don't match. I have checked it a lot of times, and it is the same. I have put the old app ID in the "iOS pack ID" property of Facebook, but it still doesn't work. I don't know if Facebook take a time to check if my app ID is valid, and how they show the result. I have been a lot of time with this issue. It seem like the problem is the iOS pack ID is not exactly the app ID, but it is not the problem: they are exactly the same. Thank you very much.

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  • Java: Embedding Soundbank file in JAR

    - by Pyroclastic
    If I have a soundbank stored in a JAR, how would I load that soundbank into my application using resource loading...? I'm trying to consolidate as much of a MIDI program into the jar file as I can, and the last thing I have to add is the soundbank file I'm using, as users won't have the soundbanks installed. I'm trying to put it into my jar file, and then load it with getResource() in the Class class, but I'm getting an InvalidMidiDataException on a soundbank that I know is valid. Here's the code, it's in the constructor for my synthesizer object: try { synth = MidiSystem.getSynthesizer(); channels = synth.getChannels(); instrument = MidiSystem.getSoundbank(this.getClass().getResource("img/soundbank-mid.gm")).getInstruments(); currentInstrument = instrument[0]; synth.loadInstrument(currentInstrument); synth.open(); } catch (InvalidMidiDataException ex) { System.out.println("FAIL"); instrument = synth.getAvailableInstruments(); currentInstrument = instrument[0]; synth.loadInstrument(currentInstrument); try { synth.open(); } catch (MidiUnavailableException ex1) { Logger.getLogger(MIDISynth.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex1); } } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MIDISynth.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (MidiUnavailableException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MIDISynth.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); }

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by Dann
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • what is meant by normalization in huge pointers

    - by wrapperm
    Hi, I have a lot of confusion on understanding the difference between a "far" pointer and "huge" pointer, searched for it all over in google for a solution, couldnot find one. Can any one explain me the difference between the two. Also, what is the exact normalization concept related to huge pointers. Please donot give me the following or any similar answers: "The only difference between a far pointer and a huge pointer is that a huge pointer is normalized by the compiler. A normalized pointer is one that has as much of the address as possible in the segment, meaning that the offset is never larger than 15. A huge pointer is normalized only when pointer arithmetic is performed on it. It is not normalized when an assignment is made. You can cause it to be normalized without changing the value by incrementing and then decrementing it. The offset must be less than 16 because the segment can represent any value greater than or equal to 16 (e.g. Absolute address 0x17 in a normalized form would be 0001:0001. While a far pointer could address the absolute address 0x17 with 0000:0017, this is not a valid huge (normalized) pointer because the offset is greater than 0000F.). Huge pointers can also be incremented and decremented using arithmetic operators, but since they are normalized they will not wrap like far pointers." Here the normalization concept is not very well explained, or may be I'm unable to understand it very well. Can anyone try explaining this concept from a beginners point of view. Thanks, Rahamath

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  • Open txt files from a directory, compare the values, and output the top 15 in PHP

    - by Anon
    Hello, I recently designed a referral game website for the fun of it. There's a simple MySQL user system with a email verification. It's using the UserCake user management system. On top of this i added a php page that the user could give to "victims" that when they visit it they get "infected" and can infect other users or "victims". This page uses GET to get the username from the url. I have a folder that when a user registers it creates a file with 4 digits and then the username. (ex; 0000Username.txt) All the numbers are the same, it's just so that if a user discovers the folder they won't be able to find the files. There is also a txt file in the same format with IPS in the name. (ex; 0000IPSUsername.txt) The file when visited gets the username from the url, then checks if the text file for that username exists. If the username is present in the url, and a valid user it opens the IPS file and adds the IP of the visitor, then opens the user text file, takes the value and adds one to it, and saves. At the end it makes the difference between saying "You are infected, Username has infected (amount) people." or just you have been infected. Now to what i need! I need to add a hi-scores to the website so people can compete to be the one with the most "infections". I thought i could use readdir to get a list of the files and open them with the value in an array, but i need it to also strip the username from the file name. It would be best if it just saves to a text file like "Username | value" because then i can add echo's of the html tags and have it include the file in the page i want it to be one. Many thanks in advance.

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  • Handling Corrupted JPEGs in C#

    - by ddango
    We have a process that pulls images from a remote server. Most of the time, we're good to go, the images are valid, we don't timeout, etc. However, every once and awhile we see this error similar to this: Unhandled Exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException: A generic error occurred in GDI+. at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageCodecInfo encoder, EncoderPa rameters encoderParams) at ConsoleApplication1.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\images\ConsoleApplic ation1\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs:line 24 After not being able to reproduce it locally, we looked closer at the image, and realized that there were artifacts, making us suspect corruption. Created an ugly little unit test with only the image in question, and was unable to reproduce the error on Windows 7 as was expected. But after running our unit test on Windows Server 2008, we see this error every time. Is there a way to specify non-strictness for jpegs when writing them? Some sort of check/fix we can use? Unit test snippet: var r = ReadFile("C:\\images\\ConsoleApplication1\\test.jpg"); using (var imgStream = new MemoryStream(r)) { using (var ms = new MemoryStream()) { var guid = Guid.NewGuid(); var fileName = "C:\\images\\ConsoleApplication1\\t" + guid + ".jpg"; Image.FromStream(imgStream).Save(ms, ImageFormat.Jpeg); using (FileStream fs = File.Create(fileName)) { fs.Write(ms.GetBuffer(), 0, ms.GetBuffer().Length); } } }

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  • What good open source programs exist for fuzzing popular image file types?

    - by JohnnySoftware
    I am looking for a free, open source, portable fuzzing tool for popular image file types that is written in either Java, Python, or Jython. Ideally, it would accept specifications for the fuzzable fields using some kind of declarative constraints. Non-procedural grammar for specifying constraints are greatly preferred. Otherwise, might as well write them all in Python or whatever. Just specifying ranges of valid values or expressions for them. Ideally, it would support some kind of generative programming to export the fuzzer into various programming languages to suit cases where more customization was required. If it supported a direct-manipulation GUI for controlling parameter values and ranges, that would be nice too. The file formats that should be supported are: GIF JPEG PNG So basically, it should be sort of a toolkit consisting of ready-to-run utility, a framework or library, and be capable of generating the fuzzed files directly as well as from programs it generates. It needs to be simple so that test images can be created quickly. It should have a batch capability for creating a series of images. Creating just one at a time would be too painful. I do not want a hacking tool, just a QA tool. Basically, I just want to address concerns that it is taking too long to get commonplace image rendering/parsing libraries stable and trustworthy.

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  • Send SOAP XML via curl, PHP

    - by danrichardson
    Hi. This has been bugging me for days, i'm trying to send a SOAP post via curl but i just keep getting a 'couldn't connect to host' error but i really cant see how. I have an asp version which works fine with the same url and data, i think it's just a php/curl thing...? I currently have the following code (the CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS data is a valid soap envelope string) $soap_do = curl_init(); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_URL, "https://xxx.yyy.com:517/zzz.asmx" ); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true ); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, false); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_POST, true ); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, '<soap:Envelope>...</soap:Envelope>'); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array('Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8', 'Content-Length: '.strlen('<soap:Envelope>...</soap:Envelope>') )); if(curl_exec($soap_do) === false) { $err = 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($soap_do); curl_close($soap_do); return $err; } else { curl_close($soap_do); return 'Operation completed without any errors'; } So any ideas why it just errors all the time? The asp version works fine! The code is; Set xmlhttp = server.Createobject("MSXML2.ServerXMLHTTP") xmlhttp.Open "POST","https://xxx.yyy.com:517/zzz.asmx" xmlhttp.setRequestHeader "Content-Type", "text/xml; charset=utf-8" xmlhttp.Send('<soap:Envelope>...</soap:Envelope>')

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  • I can't get RedirectToAction to work

    - by DaveDev
    I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect from if the user is valid. But nothing happens. The breakpoint in the redirected-to action method never gets hit. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group"); } else { return Json("Invalid"); } } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } And in another Controller, I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect to: // HttpVerbs.Post doesn't work either [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Index(int? page) { const int pageSize = 10; IEnumerable<Group> groups = GetGroups(); var paginatedGroups = new PaginatedList<Group>(groups, page ?? 0, pageSize); return View(paginatedGroups); } private IEnumerable<Group> GetGroups() { return groupRepository.GetGroups(); } Is there anything obviously wrong with what I'm doing? Could somebody suggest a different approach I could take?

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  • How to use boost::fusion::transform on heterogeneous containers?

    - by Kyle
    Boost.org's example given for fusion::transform is as follows: struct triple { typedef int result_type; int operator()(int t) const { return t * 3; }; }; // ... assert(transform(make_vector(1,2,3), triple()) == make_vector(3,6,9)); Yet I'm not "getting it." The vector in their example contains elements all of the same type, but a major point of using fusion is containers of heterogeneous types. What if they had used make_vector(1, 'a', "howdy") instead? int operator()(int t) would need to become template<typename T> T& operator()(T& const t) But how would I write the result_type? template<typename T> typedef T& result_type certainly isn't valid syntax, and it wouldn't make sense even if it was, because it's not tied to the function.

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