Search Results

Search found 6020 results on 241 pages for 'valid'.

Page 193/241 | < Previous Page | 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200  | Next Page >

• How can I sign a Windows Mobile application for internal use?

  - by AR

  I'm developing a Windows Mobile application for internal company use, using the Windows Mobile 6 Professional SDK. Same old story: I've developed and tested on the emulator and all is well, but as soon as I deploy to advice I get an UnauthorizedAccessException when writing files or creating directories. I'm aware that an application installed to a device needs to be signed but I'm running into roadblocks at every turn: Using the project properties 'Devices' window I select 'Sign the project output with this certificate, and choose one of the sample certificates from the SDK. This results in a build error: "The signer's certificate is not valid for signing" when running SignTool. If I try to run SignTool.exe from the commandline, I get an error telling me to run SignTool.exe from a location in the system's PATH. I can't use the 'Signing' tab in the Project Properties to create a test certificate - this is greyed out (presumably for WinMobile projects?). If at all possible, I would like to avoid having to go through Versign or the like to get a Mobile2Market certificate. If I have to go this route for a final version that's fine, but I need to at least be able to test the app on real devices. Any advice would be most welcome!

  Read the article

• Screen information while Windows system is locked (.NET)

  - by Matt

  We have a nightly process that updates applications on a user's pc, and that requires bringing the application down and back up again (not looking to get into changing that process). The problem is that we are building a Windows AppBar on launch which requires a valid screen, and when the system is locked there isn't one in the Screen class. So none of the visual effects are enabled and it shows up real ugly. The only way we currently have around this is to detect a locked screen and just spin and wait until the user unlocks the desktop, then continue launching. Leaving it down isn't an option, as this is a key part of our user's workflow, and they expect it to be up and running if they left it that way the night before. Any ideas?? I can't seem to find the display information anywhere, but it has to be stored off someplace, since the user is still logged in. The contents of the Screen.AllScreens array: ** When Locked: Device Name : DISPLAY Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 0 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=2560,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} ** When Unlocked: Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY1 Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=994} Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY2 Primary : False Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=964}

  Read the article

• verifying the signature of x509

  - by sid

  Hi All, While verifying the certificate I am getting EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH My Aim - Verify the certificate signature. I am having 2 certificates : 1. a CA certificate 2. certificate issued by CA. I extracted the 'RSA Public Key (key)' Modulus From CA Certificate using, pPublicKey = X509_get_pubkey(x509); buf_len = (size_t) BN_num_bytes (bn); key = (unsigned char *)malloc (buf_len); n = BN_bn2bin (bn, (unsigned char *) key); if (n != buf_len) LOG(ERROR," : key error\n"); if (key[0] & 0x80) LOG(DEBUG, "00\n"); Now, I have CA public key & CA key length and also having certificate issued by CA in buffer, buffer length & public key. To verify the signature, I have following code int iRet1, iRet2, iRet3, iReason; iRet1 = EVP_VerifyInit(&md_ctx, EVP_sha1()); iRet2 = EVP_VerifyUpdate(&md_ctx, buf, buflen); iRet3 = EVP_VerifyFinal(&md_ctx, (const unsigned char *)CAkey, CAkeyLen, pubkey); iReason = ERR_get_error(); if(ERR_GET_REASON(iReason) == EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH) { LOG(ERROR, "EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH\n"); } LOG(INFO,"EVP_VerifyInit returned %d : EVP_VerifyUpdate returned %d : EVP_VerifyFinal = %d \n", iRet1, iRet2, iRet3); EVP_MD_CTX_cleanup(&md_ctx); EVP_PKEY_free(pubkey); if (iRet3 != 1) { LOG(ERROR,"EVP_VerifyFinal() failed\n"); ret = -1; } LOG(INFO,"signature is valid\n"); I am unable to figure out What might went wrong??? Please if anybody faced same issues? What EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH Error means? Thanks in Advance - opensid

  Read the article

• Does not contain a definition for GetDataFromNumber But i have it defined!?!?!

  - by JB

  public void button2_Click(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { string text = textBox1.Text; Mainform = this; this.Hide(); GetSchedule myScheduleFinder = new GetSchedule(); string result = myScheduleFinder.GetDataFromNumber(text);// says there is no definition if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(result)) { MessageBox.Show(result); } else { MessageBox.Show("Enter A Valid ID Number!"); } } says it does not contain definition for it but on my GetSchedule .cs file i have it defined public string GetDataFromNumber(string ID)//defined here { foreach (IDnumber IDCandidateMatch in IDnumbers) { if (IDCandidateMatch.ID == ID) { StringBuilder myData = new StringBuilder(); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.Name); myData.AppendLine(": "); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.ID); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.year); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class1); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class2); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class3); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class4); //return myData; return myData.ToString(); } } return ""; }

  Read the article

• Should I return an NSMutableString in a method that returns NSString

  - by Casey Marshall

  Ok, so I have a method that takes an NSString as input, does an operation on the contents of this string, and returns the processed string. So the declaration is: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str; The question: should I just return the NSMutableString instance that I used as my "work" buffer, or should I create a new NSString around the mutable one, and return that? So should I do this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return work; } Or this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return [NSString stringWithString: work]; // or [work stringValue]? } The second one makes another copy of the string I'm returning, unless NSString does smart things like copy-on-modify. But the first one is returning something the caller could, in theory, go and modify later. I don't care if they do that, since the string is theirs. But are there valid reasons for preferring the latter form over the former? And, is either stringWithString or stringValue preferred over the other?

  Read the article

• Pass Memory in GB Using Import-CSV Powershell to New-VM in Hyper-V Version 3

  - by PowerShell

  I created the below function to pass memory from a csv file to create a VM in Hyper-V Version 3 Function Install-VM { param ( [Parameter(Mandatory=$true)] [int64]$Memory=512MB ) $VMName = "dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng" $vmpath = "c:\2012vms" New-VM -MemoryStartupBytes ([int64]$memory*1024) -Name $VMName -Path $VMPath -Verbose } Import-Csv "C:\2012vms\Vminfo1.csv" | ForEach-Object { Install-VM -Memory ([int64]$_.Memory) } But when i try to create the VM it says mismatch between the memory parameter passed from import-csv, i receive an error as below VERBOSE: New-VM will create a new virtual machine "dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng". New-VM : 'dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng' failed to modify device 'Memory'. (Virtual machine ID CE8D36CA-C8C6-42E6-B5C6-2AA8FA15B4AF) Invalid startup memory amount assigned for 'dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng'. The minimum amount of memory you can assign to a virtual machine is '8' MB. (Virtual machine ID CE8D36CA-C8C6-42E6-B5C6-2AA8FA15B4AF) A parameter that is not valid was passed to the operation. At line:48 char:9 + New-VM -ComputerName $HyperVHost -MemoryStartupBytes ([int64]$memory*10 ... + ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ + CategoryInfo : InvalidArgument: (Microsoft.HyperV.PowerShell.VMTask:VMTask) [New-VM], VirtualizationOpe rationFailedException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : InvalidParameter,Microsoft.HyperV.PowerShell.Commands.NewVMCommand Also please not in the csv file im passing memory as 1,2,4.. etc as shown below, and converting them to MB by multiplying them with 1024 later Memory 1 Can Anyone help me out on how to format and pass the memory details to the function

  Read the article

• How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

  - by johnrock

  I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

  Read the article

• formatting an array of mobile numbers

  - by Kyle Hudson

  Hi, I am creating a SMS app the following code is supposed to: check if the mobile/cell number is 11 characters long. check if the number starts with 07. If neither of these conditions are met, it should remove the number from the array. So the following numbers would be valid: 07123456789,07123456790,07123456791,07123456792,07123456793,07123456794 However the following wouldn't (and need to be removed): 0801458,07855488,6695522214124514 $param["number"] = "07123456789,07123456790,07123456791,07123456792,07123456793,07123456794,0801458,07855488,6695522214124514"; $number = explode(',', $param["number"]); foreach($number as $num){ if (!substr_compare($num, "07", 0, 3, false)) { unset($num); } elseif (substr_compare($num, "07", 0, 3, true)) { if(strlen($num) == 11) { $li .= "447" . substr($num, 2) . ','; } } } $il .= substr($li, 0, strlen($li)-1); echo $il; // $request = substr($request, 0, strlen($request)-1); // return $n; } I also need to remove the final comma from the result. Any help will be appriciated. Thanks, Kyle

  Read the article

• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by burnt_hand

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

  Read the article

• Javascript callback with AJAX + jQuery

  - by Fred

  Hey! I have this jQuery code (function () { function load_page (pagename) { $.ajax({ url: "/backend/index.php/frontend/pull_page/", type: "POST", data: {page: pagename}, success: function (json) { var parsed = $.parseJSON(json); console.log(parsed); return parsed; }, error: function (error) { $('#content').html('Sorry, there was an error: <br>' + error); return false; } }); } ... var json = load_page(page); console.log(json); if (json == false) { $('body').fadeIn(); } else { document.title = json.pagename + ' | The Other Half | freddum.com'; $("#content").html(json.content); $('#header-navigation-ul a:Contains('+page+')').addClass('nav-selected'); $('body').fadeIn(); } })(); and, guessed it, it doesn't work. The AJAX fires fine, the server returns valid JSON but the console.log(json); returns undefined and the js crashes when it gets to json.pagename. The first console.log(parsed) also returns good data so it's just a problem with the return (I think). I knew I was clutching at straws and would be extremely if this worked, but it doesn't. To be honest, I don't know how to program callback functions for this situation. Any help is greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Web Shop Schema - Document Db

  - by Maxem

  I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

  Read the article

• Matlab GUI - How to get the previous value entered from a callback function?

  - by Graham

  Hi, I know that this is probably a simple problem but I am new to Matlab GUI's and basically want to get the old value which used to be stored in the text box to replace the value which has just been entered. E.g. Text box contains a valid string, User enters invalid string, Callback func, validates input and realises new input is an error and reverts to the old previous value. How should this be implemented or done? Atm I am just using the get and set property values. Below is some sample code: function sampledist_Callback(hObject, eventdata, handles) % hObject handle to sampledist (see GCBO) % eventdata reserved - to be defined in a future version of MATLAB % handles structure with handles and user data (see GUIDATA) % Hints: get(hObject,'String') returns contents of sampledist as text % str2double(get(hObject,'String')) returns contents of sampledist as a double input = str2double(get(hObject,'String')); if(input < 0 || input > 500) errordlg('Sampled Dist. must be > 0 and < 500','Sample Dist - Input Error'); set(handles.sampledist,'String',['10']); %<--- I would like this value 10 to be the previous entry! guidata(hObject,handles); else set(handles.sampledist,'String',['',input]); guidata(hObject,handles); end

  Read the article

• small code redundancy within while-loops (doesn't feel clean)

  - by wallacoloo

  So, in Python (though I think it can be applied to many languages), I find myself with something like this quite often: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") while the_input != "quit": print the_input the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") Maybe I'm being too picky, but I don't like how the line the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") has to get repeated. It decreases maintainability and organization. But I don't see any workarounds for avoiding the duplicate code without further decreasing the problem. In some languages, I could write something like this: while ((the_input=raw_input("what to print?\n")) != "quit") { print the_input } This is definitely not Pythonic, and Python doesn't even allow for assignment within loop conditions AFAIK. This valid code fixes the redundancy, while 1: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") if the_input == "quit": break print the_input But doesn't feel quite right either. The while 1 implies that this loop will run forever; I'm using a loop, but giving it a fake condition and putting the real one inside it. Am I being too picky? Is there a better way to do this? Perhaps there's some language construct designed for this that I don't know of?

  Read the article

• Safari doesn't detect my Extension Certificate

  - by Questor

  Hello, all! I have registered for the Safari Development Program and have a valid Apple ID. I've followed all the steps given by Apple. The problem is that Windows XP (Service Pack 2) does not recognize the command 'certreq', whereas the instructions said it would work on any Windows machine. However, the command 'certreq' was working on Windows Vista on the machine of my co-worker's, I downloaded the certificate (the .cer file) and installed it and Safari detected it. However, I don't have Windows Vista. I installed Windows 7 now on my machine, the command 'certreq' works and I have the Safari Extension Certificate (the .cer file) but when I open Safari's Extension Builder, my certificate does not appear there. I entered mmc in Start -- Run and checked if the certificate was installed there. It was in the 'Other People' but not in 'Personal'. Even on Internet Explorer 7+, when I go to Tools -- Internet Options -- Content (Tab) -- Certificates, the certificate is not there in the Personal tab, (WHEREAS IT GOT INSTALLED IN THE PERSONAL FOLDER AUTOMATICALLY IN WINDOWS VISTA). I tried importing the certificate (the .cer file) into the Peronal folder, the import is successful but still neither does it appear in the personal folder nor does Safari recognize/detect it when I go to the Extension Builder. ANY HELP?! I need to make an extension for my office project and the deadline is approaching. I really need to get it done. Thanks a million in anticipation.

  Read the article

• Selective JQuery validation

  - by TenaciousImpy

  Hi, I'm using JQuery Validation to validate a particular textbox in my form. The textbox is an optional website section, which uses the url validation method. This works fine and validates accordingly. I would like to have http:// preset into the textbox, to save the user having to type it. However, when the text is set, the validator becomes 'active', and prevents anything on the form being submitted until either the http:// is manually removed, or a valid website is entered. Is there a way of preseting text into the textbox, which won't cause the validator to start validating? I tried to use $("[id$='tbWebsite']").val("http://"); just before I call form.validate(), but it doesn't work (i.e. it still gets checked). I've never used JQuery Validator before, so hopefully there's a fix for this that I'm missing! An alternate solution for my case in particular, could be to activate the validator if a certain button is pressed (instead of any button on the form). Would that be possible? Thanks

  Read the article

• Prevent two users from editing the same data

  - by Industrial

  Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

  Read the article

• Php JSON Response Array

  - by Nick Kl

  I have this php code. As you can see i query a mysql database through a function showallevents. I return a the $result to the $event variable. I try to return all rows of the data that i take with the msql_fetch_assoc. I don't get response even when i encode the $response variable. It returns null to all fields. Can anyone help me on what i am doing wrong. I had a valid code but it was returning only 1 row of data so i tried to make an associative array but seems i am failing. if ($tag == 'showallevents') { // Request type is show all events // show all events $event = $db->showallevents(); if ($event != false) { $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($event)) { $data[] = array( $response["success"] = 1, $response["uid"] = $event["uid"], $response["event"]["date"] = $event["date"], $response["event"]["hours"] = $event["hours"], $response["event"]["store_name"] = $event["store_name"], $response["event"]["event_information"] = $event["event_information"], $response["event"]["event_type"] = $event["event_type"], $response["event"]["Phone"] = $event["Phone"], $response["event"]["address"] = $event["address"], $response["event"]["created_at"] = $event["created_at"], $response["event"]["updated_at"] = $event["updated_at"]); } echo json_encode($data); } else { // event not found // echo json with error = 1 $response["error"] = 1; $response["error_msg"] = "Events not found"; echo json_encode($response); } } else { echo "Access Denied"; } } ?>

  Read the article

• Glassfish 3: How do I get and use a developers build so I can navigate a stack trace including Glas

  - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen

  I am migrating a JSF 1.1 application to JEE 6 Web profile, and doing it in steps. I am in the process of moving from JSP with JSF 1.1 to Facelets under JSF 1.2 using the jsf-facelets.jar for JSF 1.2, and received an "interesting" stack trace when trying to lookup a key in a Map using a "{Bean.foo.map.key}" where the stacktrace complained about "key" not being a valid integer. (After code introspection I am workarounding it using a number as the key). That bug is not what this question is about. In such a situation it is essential to be able to navigate the source of every line in the stack trace. In Eclipse I normally attach a source jar to every jar on the build path, but in this particular case the Glassfish server adapter creates a library automatically containing the jars. Also there is to my knowledge no debug build of Glassfish where sources are included in the bundle. Glassfish is a non-trivial Maven project, and a bit picky too. I am not very familiar with maven, but have managed to checkout the code from Subversion and build it for the 3.0 tag according to http://wiki.glassfish.java.net/Wiki.jsp?page=V3FullBuildInstructions#section-V3FullBuildInstructions-CheckoutTheWorkspace - it appears to be the code corresponding to the official released 3.0 version. After finishing the "mvn -U install" part, I have then tried to create Eclipse projects by first using "mvn -DdownloadSources=true eclipse:eclipse" and then import them in Eclipse JEE 3.5.2 and specifying the M2_REPO variable but many of the projects still have compilation errors, and I cannot locate any instructions from Oracle about how to do this. I'd appreciate some help in just getting a functional IDE workspace reflecting the 3.0 version of Glassfish. I have Eclipse 3.5.2, Netbeans 6.8 and 6.9 beta, and IntelliJ IDEA 9, and Linux/Windows/OS X do do it on.

  Read the article

• IE8 claims my page has an error, firefox doesn't, and I can't find any error. Help!

  - by Bears will eat you

  This is something of a follow-up question to my question here. You can find the HTML source in a text file here. When I load that page in IE8, I get the "Done, but with errors on page." message in my status bar. The detail view shows Expected identifier sms Line: 147 Code: 0 Char: 67 and I see absolutely no problems anywhere near there. In IE8, the page is still behaving erratically w/r/t the randomly losing focus as mentioned in my other question. When I load the same exact page in Firefox (using Firebug) the console shows no errors and the page works perfectly. Any thoughts on what's going on here? This is driving me nuts and making me want to give up on even trying to write an IE friendly page. Edit: Thanks for all the comments! This page is written as a JSP, so I edit in Eclipse. I found an Eclipse warning about the onblur event for the username field. I switched it from onblur="alert(document.activeElement + ' class:' + document.activeElement.class)" to onblur="alert(document.activeElement)" and that made the bizarre IE page error vanish. I had been trying to give more info (namely, its CSS class) about specifically which element is stealing focus - to my own detriment, apparently, since Javascript was interpreting the '.class' part in the Java(script) sense. And, no, the page doesn't validate. But the errors were mostly/all ones that just didn't make sense, such as Line 14, Column 41: Attribute "LANGUAGE" is not a valid attribute. Did you mean "language"? to which I say, WTF?! But I'm still stuck trying to figure out why, as I enter text in the username & password fields, focus randomly switches to a div (working on figuring out which div currently). Edit 2: It's the div between the two "global nav" comments, at the very top of the body. Still no idea why it's happening, though.

  Read the article

• Attempting to Convert Byte[] into Image... but is there platform issues involved

  - by user305535

  Greetings, Current, I'm attempting to develop an application that takes a Byte Array that is streamed to us from a Linux C language program across a TCPClient (stream) and reassemble it back into an image/jpg. The "sending" application was developed by a off-site developer who claims that the image reassembles back into an image without any problems or errors in his test environment (all Linux)... However, we are not so fortunate. I (believe) we successfully get all of the data sent, storing it as a string (lets us append the stream until it is complete) and then we convert it back into a Byte[]. This appears to be working fine... But, when we take the byte[] we get from the streaming (and our string assembly) and try to convert it into an image using the System.Drawing.Image.FromStream() we get errors.... Anyone have any idea what we're doing wrong? Or, does anyone know if this is a cross-platform issue? We're developing our app for Windows XP and C# .net, but the off-site developer did his work in c and Linux... perhaps there's some difference as to how each Operating System Coverts Images into Byte Arrays? Anyway, here's the code for converting our received ByteArray (from the TCPClient Stream) into an image. This code works when we send an image from a test machine we built that RUNS on XP, but not from the Linux box... System.Text.ASCIIEncoding encoding = new System.Text.ASCIIEncoding(); byte[] imageBytes = encoding.GetBytes(data); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(imageBytes, 0, imageBytes.Length); // Convert byte[] to Image ms.Write(imageBytes, 0, imageBytes.Length); System.Drawing.Image image = System.Drawing.Image.FromStream(ms, false); <-- DIES here, throws a {System.ArgumentException: Parameter is not valid.} error Any advice, suggestions, theories, or HELP would be GREATLY appreciated! Please let me know??? Best wishes all! Thanks in advance! Greg

  Read the article

• Converting Generic Type into reference type after checking its type using GetType(). How ?

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  i am trying to call a function that is defined in a class RFIDeas_Wrapper(dll being used). But when i checked for type of reader and after that i used it to call function it shows me error Cannot convert type T to RFIDeas_Wrapper. EDIT private List<string> GetTagCollection<T>(T Reader) { TagCollection = new List<string>(); if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(RFIDeas_Wrapper)) { ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); // here Reader is of type RFIDeas_Wrapper //, but i m not able to convert Reader into its datatype. string Tag_Id = ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).TagID(); //Adds Valid Tag Ids into the collection if(Tag_Id!="0") TagCollection.Add(Tag_Id); } else if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(AlienReader)) TagCollection = ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; return TagCollection; } ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); , ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; I want this line to be executed without any issue. As Reader will always be of the type i m specifying. How to make compiler understand the same thing.

  Read the article

• Implementing a scrabble trainer

  - by bstullkid

  Hello, I've recently been playing alot of online scrabble so I decided to make a program that quickly searches through a dictionary of 200,000+ words with an input of up to any 26 letters. My first attempt was fail as it took a while when you input 8 or more letters (just a basic look through dictionary and cancel out a letter if its found kind of thing), so I made a tree like structure containing only an array of 26 of the same structure and a flag to indicate the end of a word, doing that It can output all possible words in under a second even with an input of 26 characters. But it seems that when I input 12 or more letters with some of the same characters repeated i get duplicates; can anyone see why I would be getting duplicates with this code? (ill post my program at the bottom) Also, the next step once the duplicates are weeded out is to actually be able to input the letters on the game board and then have it calculate the best word you can make on a given board. I am having trouble trying to figure out a good algorithm that can analyze a scrabble board and an input of letters and output a result; the possible words that could be made I have no problem with but actually checking a board efficiently (ie can this word fit here, or here etc... without creating a non dictionary word in the process on some other string of letters) Anyone have a idea for an approach at that? (given a scrabble board, and an input of 7 letters, find all possible valid words or word sets that you can make) lol crap i forgot to email myself the code from my other computer thats in another state... ill post it on monday when I get back there! btw the dictionary im using is sowpods (http://www.calvin.edu/~rpruim/scrabble/ospd3.txt)

  Read the article

• Dealing with expired authentication for a partially filled form?

  - by aaronls

  I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

  Read the article

• MySQL Ratings From Two Tables

  - by DirtyBirdNJ

  I am using MySQL and PHP to build a data layer for a flash game. Retrieving lists of levels is pretty easy, but I've hit a roadblock in trying to fetch the level's average rating along with it's pointer information. Here is an example data set: levels Table: level_id | level_name 1 | Some Level 2 | Second Level 3 | Third Level ratings Table: rating_id | level_id | rating_value 1 | 1 | 3 2 | 1 | 4 3 | 1 | 1 4 | 2 | 3 5 | 2 | 4 6 | 2 | 1 7 | 3 | 3 8 | 3 | 4 9 | 3 | 1 I know this requires a join, but I cannot figure out how to get the average rating value based on the level_id when I request a list of levels. This is what I'm trying to do: SELECT levels.level_id, AVG(ratings.level_rating WHERE levels.level_id = ratings.level_id) FROM levels I know my SQL is flawed there, but I can't figure out how to get this concept across. The only thing I can get to work is returning a single average from the entire ratings table, which is not very useful. Ideal Output from the above conceptually valid but syntactically awry query would be: level_id | level_rating 1| 3.34 2| 1.00 3| 4.54 My main issue is I can't figure out how to use the level_id of each response row before the query has been returned. It's like I want to use a placeholder... or an alias... I really don't know and it's very frustrating. The solution I have in place now is an EPIC band-aid and will only cause me problems long term... please help!

  Read the article

• Can I specify default value?

  - by atch

  Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200  | Next Page >