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• Code completion in NetBeans' python plugin does not work properly

  - by T.K.

  I am asking on StackOverflow because surely I am doing something completely silly and I hope S.O. might provide me with a quick answer. I've installed the latest stable Python-plugin for NetBeans. It works great, and I tested code completion with various packages such as sys, os and so on. It works beautifully. However, it does not seem to pick up the code completion for the code in my own project. I created a package called mypackage (it has _init_.py as well), and in it I have a module called mymodule.py. Inside mymodule I've put a class called MyClass, complete with doc-strings and all. Please refer to this screenshot to describe what happens in code-completion: As you see, it's suggesting irrelevant things, as opposed to just MyClass. (Note that if I execute mymodule.MyClass() it works 100%, it's just that I would really like code completion on my own code) Hope I'm just doing something silly here... Any ideas?

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• How to include NetBeans Platform Source code into module dependencies

  - by Ben Hammond

  I am debugging a NetBeans Platform application. I have downloaded the NetBeans Platform source code .zip file. I would really really like to attach the source code to the debugger so that I can seamlessly jump to internal NB source code. Normally I would edit the Library configuration to tell NB where to find the source code, and it would just work. However this is not possible for NetBeans Modules; when I look at the Utilities API module dependency it does not look like a normal NB library and there is nowhere to add in the source code. I suspect that if I were to rebuild my project using Maven this would work automatically. But thats a terrible reason to switch to maven. How can I get the NB Platform Source code included into my Module Dependencies ?

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• Why can't I reclaim my dynamically allocated memory using the "delete" keyword?

  - by synaptik

  I have the following class: class Patient { public: Patient(int x); ~Patient(); private: int* RP; }; Patient::Patient(int x) { RP = new int [x]; } Patient::~Patient() { delete [] RP; } I create an instance of this class on the stack as follows: void f() { Patient p(10); } Now, when f() returns, I get a "double free or corruption" error, which signals to me that something is attempted to be deleted more than once. But I don't understand why that would be so. The space for the array is created on the heap, and just because the function from inside which the space was allocated returns, I wouldn't expect the space to be reclaimed. I thought that if I allocate space on the heap (using the new keyword), then the only way to reclaim that space is to use the delete keyword. Help! :)

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• How to protect HtmlHelper code in MVC controls

  - by Oats

  I am writing a custom mvc control (commercial), and all of the control's code lives in the custom htmlhelper code that i will have to distribute to the user. I am ok with this for my commercial license sale, but for evaluating the controls, if i give out the htmlhelper code locally for my potential customers to evaluate, the user can simply "get" all the code and hence he may never buy it since he's got teh control code. How do i protect my htmlhelper code while somebody is evaluation my cusotm mvc controls? Is this a general problem or (I wish) i am missing something here? Thanks.

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• Write a dll that is accessable from VS 2003 VC++ code

  - by John

  I need to be able to write a DLL in either C# or VC++ that is accessible from code that is written in Visual Studio 2003 VC++. It looks like the code is unmanaged (uses * for pointers) VC++ and this DLL needs to be able to drop right in and be accessed by the current code. The DLL is an RS232 driver that needs to be able to return an int for an error code and pass back, by reference, some measured values, to the calling program. Will I even be able to write this in C#? If not, I only have access to Visual Studio 2005 or 2008. Will I be able to write my code in either, and will that DLL be able to be called from the current code base? Or do I have to go looking on ebay for a copy of VS 2003?

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• Trouble compiling some decompiled C# code

  - by Colin O'Dell

  I was decompiling an open-source project (because the source for the latest version hasn't been released yet). Using RedGate's Reflector tool, it gave me this block of code: if(somecondition == true) { ref Vector3i vectoriRef; float num17 = length - num; Vector3i end = vectori3; (vectoriRef = (Vector3i) &end)[1] = vectoriRef[1] - ((int) num17); } somecondition is a boolean. length and num are floats defined outside the code. vectori3 is also defined outside the code and is of type Vector3i. The type Vector3i is essentially this code, but with x, y, and z stored as integers. When I try to compile this decompiled code, I get the following errors: Line 2: Only assignment, call, increment, decrement, and new object expressions can be used as a statement Line 3: ; expected Line 3: Invalid expression term 'ref' Line 6: 'Vector3i' is a 'type' but is used like a 'variable' Any thoughts on how I can fix this code so it compiles correctly and does whatever it was intended to do?

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• DataGridView validating old value insted of new value.

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I have a DataGridView that is bound to a DataTable, it has a column that is a double and the values need to be between 0 and 1. Here is my code private void dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { if (e.ColumnIndex == dtxtPercentageOfUsersAllowed.Index) { double percentage; if(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value.GetType() == typeof(double)) percentage = (double)dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value; else if (!double.TryParse(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value.ToString(), out percentage)) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; return; } if (percentage < 0 || percentage > 1) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; } } } However my issue when dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating fires dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value will contain the old value before the edit, not the new value. For example lets say the old value was .1 and I enter 3. The above code runs when you exit the cell and dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value will be .1 for that run, the code validates and writes 3 the data to the DataTable. I click on it a second time, try to leave, and this time it behaves like it should, it raises the error icon for the cell and prevents me from leaving. I try to enter the correct value (say .7) but the the Value will still be 3 and there is now no way out of the cell because it is locked due to the error and my validation code will never push the new value. Any recommendations would be greatly appreciated. EDIT -- New version of the code based off of Stuart's suggestion and mimicking the style the MSDN article uses. Still behaves the same. private void dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { if (e.ColumnIndex == dtxtPercentageOfUsersAllowed.Index) { dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = String.Empty; double percentage; if (!double.TryParse(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].FormattedValue.ToString(), out percentage) || percentage < 0 || percentage > 1) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; return; } } }

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• Bad allocation exceptions in C++

  - by me1982

  Hello, In a school project of mine I was requested to create a program not using STL. In the program I use alot of Pointer* = new Something; if (Pointer == NULL) throw AllocationError(); My question is about allocation errors: 1. is there an autamtic exception thrown by new when allocation fails? 2. if so how can I catch it if I'm not using STL (#include "exception.h) 3. is using the NULL testing enugh? thank you. I'm using eclipseCDT(C++) with MinGW on windows 7.

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• Tag <code>: how to "correct" publish it ?

  - by stighy

  Hi, i'm not sure to explain what i'm looking for. What's the name of the "source code parser" for publish code, in HTML ? For example, when i write some source code here in stack overflow, system auto-detect the sintax and write "correct" source code in html. I've noticed that exists the HTML <"code" tag, but it simply write source code in "courier" font. So i'm asking you if exists some "external" component that, given a text, parse it out correctly in a HTML page. Thank you!

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• new operator overwriting an existing object

  - by dvpdiner2

  I have a custom FastStack class, implemented as a fixed size array and an index into that array. In my copy constructor, I allocate the array and then assign each object from the copy's array into the new array. There's some refcounting in the objects on the stack, hence assignment is used rather than a simple copy. The problem is that when allocating the array, it sometimes overwrites part of the other stack's array. As can be expected, this leads to eventual segmentation faults when that data is dereferenced. class FastStack { private: int m_size, m_ptr; ObjectRef* m_stack; public: FastStack(int size) : m_size(size), m_ptr(-1) { m_stack = new ObjectRef[m_size]; } FastStack(const FastStack& copy) : m_size(copy.m_size), m_ptr(copy.m_ptr) { long a = (long)copy.m_stack[0]; m_stack = new ObjectRef[m_size]; if ((long)copy.m_stack[0] != a) fprintf(stderr, "\nWe have a serious problem!\n\n"); for (int i = 0; i <= m_ptr; i++) m_stack[i] = copy.m_stack[i]; } ~FastStack() { delete[] m_stack; } }; class ObjectRef { private: DataObj* m_obj; public: ObjectRef() : m_obj(0) { } ObjectRef(DataObj* obj) : m_obj(obj) { if (m_obj) m_obj->addRef(); } ObjectRef(const ObjectRef& obj) : m_obj(obj.m_obj) { if (m_obj) m_obj->addRef(); } ~ObjectRef() { if (m_obj) m_obj->delRef(); } ObjectRef& operator=(DataObj* obj) { if (obj) obj->addRef(); if (m_obj) m_obj->delRef(); m_obj = obj; return *this; } ObjectRef& operator=(const ObjectRef& obj) { if (obj.m_obj) obj.m_obj->addRef(); if (m_obj) m_obj->delRef(); m_obj = obj.m_obj; return *this; } }; I see that "We have a serious problem!" line shortly before a segfault, and stepping through it with gdb I can see that one of the ObjectRefs created by new has the same address as the other stack's array. My first instinct is to say that new should never be allocating memory that is already in use, but that clearly seems to be the case here and I am at a complete loss as to what can be done. Added: At the time that I see this happen, m_size = 2 and m_ptr = 0.

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• PHP class referencing confusion across multiple files

  - by DssTrainer

  I have an index.php file that has 3 includes <?php require_once('mod.php'); $mod = new Mod(); require_once('start.php'); require_once('tools.php'); ....some code.... ?> I need to be able to reference the $mod object inside the start.php and tools.php. How do I pass that object to be referenced by those 2 other require files? Basically the mod.php is a class that has an array list generated in its __construct(). I want to use that array list data inside the startup.php and tools.php file but not sure how to pass in the existing one without calling "new" inside both of those files separately which doesn't do what I need since it resets everything. Thanks!

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• Visual Studio swapping code between projects?!?!?!?!??!

  - by Tom

  Are there any known issues with visual studio and code being swapped between projects? I had a project running in VS2008 and when i went back to it, the code from another project had been swapped in the Program.cs class. I havent made any mistakes, im not talking about some code- i mean the whole project had been swapped out. Its as if the .proj files or .soln files had been swapped from their project folders??? EDIT Ive restarted laptop, opened the code again and its still showing the wrong code BUT when i execute it, its the right code?!?!?!

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• overriding new ubuntu installation

  - by tkoomzaaskz

  I've got a ubuntu 11.10 which has lost its support in May 2013, now I'd like to reintall up to the most up-to-date LTS, which is 12.04. My question is regarding my current partitions and doing backups. Is there a safe way to backup my data on some local partitions instead of copying files into DVDs/external drives (this is very uncormortable in my situation). Following are system commands shoing my disk: $ lsblk NAME MAJ:MIN RM SIZE RO MOUNTPOINT sda 8:0 0 232,9G 0 +-sda1 8:1 0 48,8G 0 +-sda2 8:2 0 63G 0 +-sda3 8:3 0 1K 0 +-sda4 8:4 0 53,7G 0 / +-sda5 8:5 0 18,6G 0 +-sda6 8:6 0 25,5G 0 +-sda7 8:7 0 23,3G 0 [SWAP] sr0 11:0 1 1024M 0 and $ sudo fdisk -l [sudo] password for xyz: Disk /dev/sda: 250.1 GB, 250059350016 bytes glowic: 255, sektorów/sciezke: 63, cylindrów: 30401, w sumie sektorów: 488397168 Jednostka = sektorów, czyli 1 * 512 = 512 bajtów Rozmiar sektora (logiczny/fizyczny) w bajtach: 512 / 512 Rozmiar we/wy (minimalny/optymalny) w bajtach: 512 / 512 Identyfikator dysku: 0xc3ffc3ff Device Boot Beginning End Blocks ID System /dev/sda1 * 2048 102402047 51200000 7 HPFS/NTFS/exFAT /dev/sda2 215044096 347080703 66018304 7 HPFS/NTFS/exFAT /dev/sda3 347082750 488392064 70654657+ 5 Extended /dev/sda4 102402048 215042047 56320000 83 Linux /dev/sda5 395905923 434975939 19535008+ 83 Linux /dev/sda6 434976003 488392064 26708031 83 Linux /dev/sda7 347082752 395905023 24411136 82 Linux swap / Solaris In the beginning I had Windows Vista pre-installed with the machine when it was bought (damn!) and I installed linux (the one I have now). The windows-program in master boot record has been overriden by grub and now I can boot with both Windows and Linux. This is list of mounted devices: $ mount /dev/sda4 on / type ext4 (rw,errors=remount-ro,commit=0) proc on /proc type proc (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) sysfs on /sys type sysfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) fusectl on /sys/fs/fuse/connections type fusectl (rw) none on /sys/kernel/debug type debugfs (rw) none on /sys/kernel/security type securityfs (rw) udev on /dev type devtmpfs (rw,mode=0755) devpts on /dev/pts type devpts (rw,noexec,nosuid,gid=5,mode=0620) tmpfs on /run type tmpfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,size=10%,mode=0755) none on /run/lock type tmpfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev,size=5242880) none on /run/shm type tmpfs (rw,nosuid,nodev) binfmt_misc on /proc/sys/fs/binfmt_misc type binfmt_misc (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) gvfs-fuse-daemon on /home/tomasz/.gvfs type fuse.gvfs-fuse-daemon (rw,nosuid,nodev,user=tomasz) It's strange (I don't remember such thing) that my current linux uses only one partition (/dev/sda4). But, anyway, it seems like that. My final question is: am I able to use one of the existing linux partitions for a backup and install ubuntu 12.04 without removing neither windows nor ubuntu 11.04? I mean - will grub automatically accept both old windows vista and 2 linuxes (old 11.10 and "new" 12.04)? Is there any hidden operation done while installation that could harm my custom-backup-partition while installing? my fstab file: proc /proc proc nodev,noexec,nosuid 0 0 # / was on /dev/sda4 during installation UUID=d44e89f5-9da2-48eb-83b3-887652ec95d2 / ext4 errors=remount-ro 0 1 # swap was on /dev/sda7 during installation UUID=bbe50535-ba57-434a-9272-211d859f0e00 none swap sw 0 0 sda5 and sda6 are trash partitions created during unsuccessful linux installation (this was linux installation before my current installation), I didn't delete these partitions, but I have access to them (and I can use them as backup partitions). edit: second question is: why does lsblk show /dev/sda having 232,9G while fdisk shows that it has 250.1GB? Where does the difference come from?

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• nginx + php-fpm cycle redirection error on linode new vps

  - by chifliiiii

  I'm new to nginx, and I'm trying to make my first server run. I followed this guide as I'm trying to use it for a multisite wordpress site. After installing everything, I get a 500 Internal server error. If I check logs, I see this: 012/09/27 08:55:54 [error] 11565#0: *8 rewrite or internal redirection cycle while internally redirecting to "/index.html", client: xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, server: localhost, request: "GET /favicon.ico HTTP/1.1", host: "www.mydomain.com" 2012/09/27 08:59:32 [error] 11618#0: *1 rewrite or internal redirection cycle while internally redirecting to "/index.html", client: xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, server: localhost, request: "GET /phpmyadmin HTTP/1.1", host: "www.mydomain.com" My conf files are the following: nano /etc/nginx/sites-available/mydomain.com server { listen 80 default_server; server_name mydomain.com *.mydomain.com; root /srv/www/aciup.com/public; access_log /srv/www/mydomain.com/log/access.log; error_log /srv/www/mydomain.com/log/error.log; location / { index index.php; try_files $uri $uri/ /index.php?$args; } # Add trailing slash to */wp-admin requests. rewrite /wp-admin$ $scheme://$host$uri/ permanent; # Directives to send expires headers and turn off 404 error logging. location ~* \.(js|css|png|jpg|jpeg|gif|ico)$ { expires 24h; log_not_found off; } # this prevents hidden files (beginning with a period) from being served location ~ /\. { access_log off; log_not_found off; deny all; } # Pass uploaded files to wp-includes/ms-files.php. rewrite /files/$ /index.php last; if ($uri !~ wp-content/plugins) { rewrite /files/(.+)$ /wp-includes/ms-files.php?file=$1 last; } # Rewrite multisite '.../wp-.*' and '.../*.php'. if (!-e $request_filename) { rewrite ^/[_0-9a-zA-Z-]+(/wp-.*) $1 last; rewrite ^/[_0-9a-zA-Z-]+.*(/wp-admin/.*\.php)$ $1 last; rewrite ^/[_0-9a-zA-Z-]+(/.*\.php)$ $1 last; } location ~ \.php$ { client_max_body_size 25M; fastcgi_pass unix:/var/run/php5-fpm.sock; fastcgi_index index.php; include /etc/nginx/fastcgi_params; } } nano /etc/nginx/nginx.conf user www-data; worker_processes 4; worker_cpu_affinity 0001 0010 0100 1000; error_log /var/log/nginx/error.log; pid /var/run/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 2048; } http { include /etc/nginx/mime.types; access_log /var/log/nginx/access.log; sendfile on; tcp_nopush on; keepalive_timeout 5; tcp_nodelay on; server_tokens off; gzip on; gzip_types text/plain text/css application/x-javascript text/xml application/xml application/xml+rss text/javascript; gzip_disable "MSIE [1-6]\.(?!.*SV1)"; include /etc/nginx/conf.d/*.conf; include /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/*; } Any help will be appreciated.

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• error: unexplained error (code 130) at rsync.c(541) [sender=3.0.7]

  - by brazorf

  This error: unexplained error (code 130) at rsync.c(541) [sender=3.0.7] error is happening after i changed router. Actually, i found out that this error just happens on a ctrl+c signal, so it could be not representative about the error itself. The command i run is very basic: rsync -avz --delete /local/path/ username@host:/path/to/remote/directory Basically, the rsync just stuck there and nothing's happening, until i ctrl+c. After interrupting the process i got the error in subject. I past the whole thing here: rsync -avvvvz --delete /source/path/ username@host:/path/to/direectory cmd=<NULL> machine=HOSTNAME user=username path=/path/to/direectory cmd[0]=ssh cmd[1]=-l cmd[2]=username cmd[3]=HOSTNAME cmd[4]=rsync cmd[5]=--server cmd[6]=-vvvvlogDtprze.iLsf cmd[7]=--delete cmd[8]=. cmd[9]=/path/to/direectory opening connection using: ssh -l username HOSTNAME rsync --server -vvvvlogDtprze.iLsf --delete . /path/to/direectory note: iconv_open("UTF-8", "UTF-8") succeeded. ^C[sender] _exit_cleanup(code=20, file=rsync.c, line=541): entered rsync error: unexplained error (code 130) at rsync.c(541) [sender=3.0.7] [sender] _exit_cleanup(code=20, file=rsync.c, line=541): about to call exit(130) The authentication runs on ssh via rsa key. I tried basic troubleshoot such as: ping the remote host ssh -l username remote.host check software firewall logs i asked the remote host sysadmin to check for logs, and when i run that command a ssh connection is actually being established and i can state there is no comunication/authentication/name resolution issue here. Rolling back to old router make this work again. Both client and server are running ubuntu 10.04. Try to take a look at my router configuration, where i'm no experienced at all, but i didnt see any "suspect" (what i was looking for is firewall blocking something) setting. The router itself is DLINK DVA-G3670B. Any suggestion? Thank You F.

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• Email from my new vps is marked as spam

  - by Chriswede

  I got a new vps from x10vps (x10hosting) and set up the domain via cloudflare. This is what the email looks like: Delivered-To: [email protected] Received: by 10.64.19.240 with SMTP id i16csp357708iee; Tue, 9 Oct 2012 01:29:48 -0700 (PDT) Received: by 10.50.57.130 with SMTP id i2mr908846igq.56.1349771387599; Tue, 09 Oct 2012 01:29:47 -0700 (PDT) Return-Path: <[email protected]> Received: from power.SOURCEAPE.COM ([198.91.90.116]) by mx.google.com with ESMTPS id v8si25630942ica.46.2012.10.09.01.29.46 (version=TLSv1/SSLv3 cipher=OTHER); Tue, 09 Oct 2012 01:29:47 -0700 (PDT) Received-SPF: temperror (google.com: error in processing during lookup of [email protected]: DNS timeout) client-ip=198.91.90.116; Authentication-Results: mx.google.com; spf=temperror (google.com: error in processing during lookup of [email protected]: DNS timeout) [email protected] Received: from nk11p03mm-asmtp010.mac.com ([17.158.232.169]:54276) by power.SOURCEAPE.COM with esmtp (Exim 4.80) (envelope-from <[email protected]>) id 1TLVBD-0004Ig-1Y for [email protected]; Tue, 09 Oct 2012 12:28:43 +0400 I then tried to enable SPF and DKIM and got following massage In order to ensure that SPF or DKIM takes effect, you must confirm that this server is an authoritative nameserver for chvw.de. If you need help, contact your hosting provider. Status: Enabled Warning: cPanel is unable to verify that this server is an authoritative nameserver for chvw.de. [?] and the email header now looks like this: Delivered-To: [email protected] Received: by 10.50.183.227 with SMTP id ep3csp14506igc; Tue, 9 Oct 2012 01:55:23 -0700 (PDT) Received: by 10.50.40.133 with SMTP id x5mr992934igk.32.1349772923717; Tue, 09 Oct 2012 01:55:23 -0700 (PDT) Return-Path: <[email protected]> Received: from power.SOURCEAPE.COM ([198.91.90.116]) by mx.google.com with ESMTPS id ng8si25688859icb.42.2012.10.09.01.55.23 (version=TLSv1/SSLv3 cipher=OTHER); Tue, 09 Oct 2012 01:55:23 -0700 (PDT) Received-SPF: temperror (google.com: error in processing during lookup of [email protected]: DNS timeout) client-ip=198.91.90.116; Authentication-Results: mx.google.com; spf=temperror (google.com: error in processing during lookup of [email protected]: DNS timeout) [email protected]; dkim=neutral (bad format) [email protected] DKIM-Signature: v=1; a=rsa-sha256; q=dns/txt; c=relaxed/relaxed; d=chvw.de; s=default; h=Message-ID:Subject:To:From:Date:Content-Transfer-Encoding:Content-Type:MIME-Version; bh=iugsx3Lx0KnqjR7dj3wyQHnJ9pe/z3ntYEVk80k8rx4=; b=IrYsCtHdoPubXVOvLqxd7sLE/TyQTS5P3OrEg5SSUSKnQQcQ/fWWyBrmsrgkFSsw6jCmmRWMDR09vH5bQRpFPMA57B7pf8QRKhwXOWFBV+GnVUqICsfRjnNPvhx/lNp5; Received: from localhost ([127.0.0.1]:46539 helo=direct.chvw.de) by power.SOURCEAPE.COM with esmtpa (Exim 4.80) (envelope-from <[email protected]>) id 1TLVb0-0004dZ-Kd for [email protected]; Tue, 09 Oct 2012 12:55:22 +0400

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• Linux security: The dangers of executing malignant code as a standard user

  - by AndreasT

  Slipping some (non-root) user a piece of malignant code that he or she executes might be considered as one of the highest security breaches possible. (The only higher I can see is actually accessing the root user) What can an attacker effectively do when he/she gets a standard, (let's say a normal Ubuntu user) to execute code? Where would an attacker go from there? What would that piece of code do? Let's say that the user is not stupid enough to be lured into entering the root/sudo password into a form/program she doesn't know. Only software from trusted sources is installed. The way I see it there is not really much one could do, is there? Addition: I partially ask this because I am thinking of granting some people shell (non-root) access to my server. They should be able to have normal access to programs. I want them to be able to compile programs with gcc. So there will definitely be arbitrary code run in user-space...

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• Can we 301 redirect to a new page, but still publish the old content somewhere else?

  - by KBS

  We have a page on the site which ranks well for an SEO term (top 5) but contains old information. We have added a new page but Google doesn't rank it that well. Information on these pages is time sensitive. Old: example.com/2013-related-information.html New: example.com/2014-related-information.html Obvious solution is to delete old page and do a 301 redirect to the new page. Now, can we still keep the old page by giving it a new URL. example.com/2013-related-information.html is redirected to example.com/2014-related-information.html example.com/2014-related-information.html is recreated with a new address such as example.com/new-2013-related-information.html What we are trying to do is to send the user to the fresh page but still not destroying the record copy if someone wants to go and dig up the old information.

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• Entity Framework - adding new items via a navigation property

  - by Robert

  I have come across what appears to be very peculiar behaviour using entity framework 4.0. I have a User entity, which has a Company (A Company has many Users). If I do this, everything works as expected and I get a nice shiny new user in the database: var company = _model.Companies.First(); company.Users.Add(new User(1, "John", "Smith")); _model.SaveChanges(); However, if I do this, then I get nothing new in the database, and no exceptions thrown: var existingUser = _model.Users.First(); var company = existingUser.Company; company.Users.Add(new User(1, "John", "Smith")); _model.SaveChanges(); So it appears that if I add a User to the Company that is pulled directly from the model, then everything works fine. However if the User is added to a Company that is pulled as a navigation property of another object, then it doesn't work. Can someone tell me if this is expected behaviour, or if there is something I can do to make it so that it is? Thanks!

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• New HandleProcessCorruptedStateExceptions attribute in .Net 4

  - by Yaakov Davis

  I'm trying to crash my WPF application, and capture the exception using the above new .Net 4 attribute. I managed to manually crash my application by calling Environment.FailFast("crash");. (Also managed to crash it using Hans's code from here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2950130/how-to-simulate-a-corrupt-state-exception-in-net-4). The app calls the above crashing code when pressing on a button. Here are my exception handlers: protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.FirstChanceException += CurrentDomain_FirstChanceException; AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += CurrentDomain_UnhandledException; DispatcherUnhandledException += app_DispatcherUnhandledException; } [HandleProcessCorruptedStateExceptions] void CurrentDomain_UnhandledException(object sender, UnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { //log.. } [HandleProcessCorruptedStateExceptions] void CurrentDomain_FirstChanceException(object sender, System.Runtime.ExceptionServices.FirstChanceExceptionEventArgs e) { //log.. } [HandleProcessCorruptedStateExceptions] void app_DispatcherUnhandledException(object sender, System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherUnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { //log.. } The //log... comment shown above is just for illustration; there's real logging code there. When running in VS, an exception is thrown, but it doesn't 'bubble' up to those exception handler blocks. When running as standalone (w/o debugger attached), I don't get any log, despite what I expect. Does anyone has an idea why is it so, and how to make the handling code to be executed? Many thanks, Yaakov

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• javascript new Date(0) class shows 16 hours?

  - by Jonah

  interval = new Date(0); return interval.getHours(); The above returns 16. I expect it to return 0. Any pointers? getMinutes() and getSeconds() return zero as expected. Thanks! I am trying to make a timer: function Timer(onUpdate) { this.initialTime = 0; this.timeStart = null; this.onUpdate = onUpdate this.getTotalTime = function() { timeEnd = new Date(); diff = timeEnd.getTime() - this.timeStart.getTime(); return diff + this.initialTime; }; this.formatTime = function() { interval = new Date(this.getTotalTime()); return this.zeroPad(interval.getHours(), 2) + ":" + this.zeroPad(interval.getMinutes(),2) + ":" + this.zeroPad(interval.getSeconds(),2); }; this.start = function() { this.timeStart = new Date(); this.onUpdate(this.formatTime()); var timerInstance = this; setTimeout(function() { timerInstance.updateTime(); }, 1000); }; this.updateTime = function() { this.onUpdate(this.formatTime()); var timerInstance = this; setTimeout(function() { timerInstance.updateTime(); }, 1000); }; this.zeroPad = function(num,count) { var numZeropad = num + ''; while(numZeropad.length < count) { numZeropad = "0" + numZeropad; } return numZeropad; } } It all works fine except for the 16 hour difference. Any ideas?

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• New to Linux Kernel/Driver development...

  - by CVS-2600Hertz-wordpress-com

  Recently, i began developing a driver of an embedded device running linux. Until now i have only read about linux internals. Having no prior experience in driver devlopment, i am finding it a tad difficult to land my first step. I have downloaded the kernel source-code (v2.6.32). I have read (skimped) Linux Device Drivers (3e) I read a few related posts here on StackOverflow. I understand that linux has a "monolithic" approach. I have built kernel (included existing driver in menuconfig etc.) I know the basics of kconfig and makefile files so that should not be a problem. Can someone describe the structure (i.e. the inter-links) of the various folders in the kernel-source code. In other words given a source-code file, which other files would it refer to for related code (The "#include"-s provide a partial idea) Could someone please help me in getting a better idea? Any help will be greatly appreciated Thank You.

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• Can't submit new object to WCF DataService because of Primary Key constraint

  - by Rob

  I've got a SQL database that uses Guid's for PK's and upon insert, it generates a NewId(). I have an EF data context setup pointing to that database with the primary keys setup with the Entity key:true, Setter:private and StoreGeneratedPattern:Identity because I want the DB to manage the keys and not have code set the PK property. I have an OData (System.Web.Data.Services.DataService) endpoint to access this data (just like: Hanselman did. I have another app that has a service reference to this service. Upon trying to create a new object from this reference (i.e. Product), the ProductId Primary Key is being defaulted to Guid.Empty when doing var serviceEntities = new ServiceEntities(serviceUri); //OData endpoint var product = new Product(); product.Name = "New Product"; serviceEntities.AddToProducts(product); serviceEntities.SaveChanges(); // error happens here When debugging, I look at the Product.ProductId property and it's set to Guid.Empty. When called SaveChanges, I do not want the ProductId field to be sent to the service. The response I get is: Error processing request stream. Property 'ProductId' is a read-only property and cannot be updated. Please make sure that this property is not present in the request payload. Is there a way to do this or what can I do to get this setup correctly and still have the DB generated the keys. Here is the same setup as the Product example above.

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• Add new language to existing Xcode project localization

  - by leolobato

  Hey guys, I'm working on an existing Xcode 3.2.2 Universal iPhone OS project which is already localized for 4 languages (EN, IT, DE and FR). We are now adding a new language (JA) into this project. Each existing .lproj folder (en.lproj, it.lproj, de.lproj and fr.lproj) has almost 60 files - including PNGs, HTMLs and the Localizable.strings file. Each one of those files appear as localized groups inside Groups & Files in Xcode. They're spread all over the tree. If I right-click one of those groups (say, Localizable.strings) inside Xcode, Get Info, click on "Add Localization" and type "ja" - as the Xcode docs suggest, nothing happens. From what I read in this newgroup, it's possibly because of the way those folders are named. If they were named like English.lproj and Italian.lproj, this was supposed to work. So, for me to actually import a new language localized file into the existing group, I have to: Right-click the localized group file. Choose "Add Existing File". Select the corresponding file inside the ja.lproj folder. I'm about to get a new ja.lproj folder with those 60 localized files and would love to import them in the project in a way that doesn't involve searching for every single file in Groups & Trees and performing those steps... for every one of those 60 files. Is that possible? Is there a right (or better) way to import a new language into this Xcode project?

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• WF performance with new 20,000 persisted workflow instances each month

  - by Nikola Stjelja

  Windows Workflow Foundation has a problem that is slow when doing WF instances persistace. I'm planning to do a project whose bussiness layer will be based on WF exposed WCF services. The project will have 20,000 new workflow instances created each month, each instance could take up to 2 months to finish. What I was lead to belive that given WF slownes when doing peristance my given problem would be unattainable given performance reasons. I have the following questions: Is this true? Will my performance be crap with that load(given WF persitance speed limitations) How can I solve the problem? We currently have two possible solutions: 1. Each new buisiness process request(e.g. Give me a new drivers license) will be a new WF instance, and the number of persistance operations will be limited by forwarding all status request operations to saved state values in a separate database. 2. Have only a small amount of Workflow Instances up at any give time, without any persistance ofso ever(only in case of system crashes etc.), by breaking each workflow stap in to a separate worklof and that workflow handling each business process request instance in the system that is at that current step(e.g. I'm submitting my driver license reques form, which is step one... we have 100 cases of that, and my step one workflow will handle every case simultaneusly). I'm very insterested in solution for that problem. If you want to discuss that problem pleas be free to mail me at [email protected]

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