Search Results

Search found 21262 results on 851 pages for 'multiple checkbox'.

Page 198/851 | < Previous Page | 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205  | Next Page >

  • Displaying rows in multiple columns

    - by zizo
    Not sure if this is doable using sql alone or not, but here is the problem. I have a weird requirement that data needs to be displayed in columns so users can compare data quickly! Here is what the result set looks like right now CustomerID Company Active 001 ATT Y 002 ATT N 003 ATT Y 001 VZ Y 002 VZ N 003 VZ Y 001 TM Y 002 TM Y 003 TM Y Now this is how they want to see it CustomerID Company Active Company Active Company Active 001 ATT Y VZ Y TM Y 002 ATT N VZ N TM Y 003 ATT Y VZ Y TM Y Assumptions: This could be a pretty long table, that's why they want to see all companies on one row, rather than needing to scroll down to see if active or not. Nummber of companies is between 1-3 in most cases Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Multiple user roles in Ruby on Rails

    - by aguynamedloren
    I am building an inventory management application with four different user types: admin, employee, manufacturer, transporter. I haven't started coding yet, but this is what I'm thinking.. Manufacturers and transporters are related with has_many :through many-to-many association with products as follows: class Manufacturer < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :products has_many :transporters, :through => :products end class Product < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :manufacturer belongs_to :transporter end class Transporter < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :products has_many :manufacturers, :through => :products end All four user types will be able to login, but they will have different permissions and views, etc. I don't think I can put them in the same table (Users), however, because they will have different requirements, ie: vendors and manufacturers must have a billing address and contact info (through validations), but admins and employees should not have these fields. If possible, I would like to have a single login screen as opposed to 4 different screens. I'm not asking for the exact code to build this, but I'm having trouble determining the best way to make it happen. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated - thanks!

    Read the article

  • Programatically select multiple files in windows explorer

    - by Orion Edwards
    I can display and select a single file in windows explorer like this: explorer.exe /select, "c:\path\to\file.txt" However, I can't work out how to select more than one file. None of the permutations of select I've tried work. Help! Note: I looked at these pages for docs, neither helped. http://support.microsoft.com/kb/314853 http://www.infocellar.com/Win98/explorer-switches.htm

    Read the article

  • best practices - multiple functions vs single function with switch case

    - by Amit
    I have a situation where I need to perform several small (but similar) tasks. I can think of two ways to achieve this. First Approach: function doTask1(); function doTask2(); function doTask3(); function doTask4(); Second Approach: // TASK1, TASK2, ... TASK4 are all constants function doTask(TASK) { switch(TASK) { case TASK1: // do task1 break; case TASK2: // do task2 break; case TASK3: // do task3 break; case TASK4: // do task4 break; } } A few more tasks may be added in future (though the chances are rare. but this cannot be ruled out) Please suggest which of the two approaches (or if any other) is a best practice in such a situation.

    Read the article

  • Best solution for a comment table for multiple content types

    - by KRTac
    I'm currently designing a comments table for a site I'm building. Users will be able to upload images, link videos and add audio files to the profile. Each of these types of content must be commentable. Now I'm wondering what's the best approach to this. My current options are: 1. to have one big comments table and a link tables for every content type (comments_videos, ...) with comment_id and _id. 2. to have comments separated by the type of content their for. So each type of content would have his own comments table with the comments for that type.

    Read the article

  • Autorotation and multiple view controllers

    - by alku83
    I'm creating an iPad application which should only work in portrait and portait upsidedown modes. For performance reasons in my applicationDidFinishLaunching method I'm creating several viewControllers, and adding them to my main window as subviews. I then hide the ones I don't want to see straight away. There is no tab bar or navigation controller. My problem is that only the first viewController seems to be receiving the rotate calls. I have verified this by swapping around the order in which I add the subviews to the main window and NSLog's. Is there some way I can force all the controllers to receive the calls? Some of my views are designed to lay over the top of another view, but this behind view will not always be the same one - so it seems to make sense to have the overlay view in a separate view controller. Am I doing something fundamentally wrong, and that's why it's not behaving as I would expect? EDIT: The accepted answer for this question seems to indicate the exact problem I'm facing: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/548142/uiviewcontroller-rotate-methods

    Read the article

  • Dynamic model choice field in django formset using multiple select elements

    - by Aryeh Leib Taurog
    I posted this question on the django-users list, but haven't had a reply there yet. I have models that look something like this: class ProductGroup(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=10, primary_key=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ProductRun(models.Model): date = models.DateField(primary_key=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.date.isoformat() class CatalogItem(models.Model): cid = models.CharField(max_length=25, primary_key=True) group = models.ForeignKey(ProductGroup) run = models.ForeignKey(ProductRun) pnumber = models.IntegerField() def __unicode__(self): return self.cid class Meta: unique_together = ('group', 'run', 'pnumber') class Transaction(models.Model): timestamp = models.DateTimeField() user = models.ForeignKey(User) item = models.ForeignKey(CatalogItem) quantity = models.IntegerField() price = models.FloatField() Let's say there are about 10 ProductGroups and 10-20 relevant ProductRuns at any given time. Each group has 20-200 distinct product numbers (pnumber), so there are at least a few thousand CatalogItems. I am working on formsets for the Transaction model. Instead of a single select menu with the several thousand CatalogItems for the ForeignKey field, I want to substitute three drop-down menus, for group, run, and pnumber, which uniquely identify the CatalogItem. I'd also like to limit the choices in the second two drop-downs to those runs and pnumbers which are available for the currently selected product group (I can update them via AJAX if the user changes the product group, but it's important that the initial page load as described without relying on AJAX). What's the best way to do this? As a point of departure, here's what I've tried/considered so far: My first approach was to exclude the item foreign key field from the form, add the substitute dropdowns by overriding the add_fields method of the formset, and then extract the data and populate the fields manually on the model instances before saving them. It's straightforward and pretty simple, but it's not very reusable and I don't think it is the right way to do this. My second approach was to create a new field which inherits both MultiValueField and ModelChoiceField, and a corresponding MultiWidget subclass. This seems like the right approach. As Malcolm Tredinnick put it in a django-users discussion, "the 'smarts' of a field lie in the Field class." The problem I'm having is when/where to fetch the lists of choices from the db. The code I have now does it in the Field's __init__, but that means I have to know which ProductGroup I'm dealing with before I can even define the Form class, since I have to instantiate the Field when I define the form. So I have a factory function which I call at the last minute from my view--after I know what CatalogItems I have and which product group they're in--to create form/formset classes and instantiate them. It works, but I wonder if there's a better way. After all, the field should be able to determine the correct choices much later on, once it knows its current value. Another problem is that my implementation limits the entire formset to transactions relating to (CatalogItems from) a single ProductGroup. A third possibility I'm entertaining is to put it all in the Widget class. Once I have the related model instance, or the cid, or whatever the widget is given, I can get the ProductGroup and construct the drop-downs. This would solve the issues with my second approach, but doesn't seem like the right approach.

    Read the article

  • How can I disable multiple links with jQuery?

    - by Samantha J
    I have the following HTML: <a title="Login" data-href="/MyAccount/Access/Login" data-title="Admin" data-entity="n/a" id="loginLink" class="nav-button dialogLink"><b>Login</b></a> <a title="Register" data-href="/MyAccount/Access/Register" data-title="Admin" data-entity="n/a" id="registerLink" class="nav-button dialogLink"><b>Register</b></a> When a user clicks on the #loginLink or #registerLink I would like to disable the link and call a dialog script. I created the following function: $("#loginLink, #registerLink") .click(function () { $('#loginLink').prop('disabled', true); $('#registerLink').prop('disabled', true); dialog(this); }); It calls the dialog correctly but doesn't disable the links and if I click the buttons more than once it calls up more than one dialog box. Is there something I am doing wrong? I can't see why it would not work.

    Read the article

  • #Error showing up in multiple LEFT JOIN statement Access query when value should be NULL

    - by lar
    I'm trying to return an ID's last 4 years of data, if existing. The table (call it A_TABLE) looks like this: ID, Year, Val The idea behind the query is this: for each ID/Year in the table, LEFT JOIN with Year-1, Year-2, and Year-3 (to get 4 years of data) and then return Val for each year. Here's the SQL: SELECT a.ID, a.year AS [Year], a.Val AS VAL, a1.year AS [Year-1], a1.Val AS [VAL-1], a2.year AS [Year-2], a2.Val AS [VAL-2], a3.year AS [Year-3], a3.Val AS [VAL-3] FROM ( ([A_TABLE] AS a LEFT JOIN [A_TABLE] AS a1 ON (a.ID = a1.ID) AND (a.year = a1.year+1)) LEFT JOIN [A_TABLE] AS a2 ON (a.ID = a2.ID) AND (a.year = a2.year+2)) LEFT JOIN [A_TABLE] AS a3 ON (a.ID = a3.ID) AND (a.year = a3.year+3) The problem is that, for past years where there is no data (eg, Year-1), I see "#Error" in the appropriate VAL column (eg, [VAL-1]). The weird thing is, I see the expected "null" in the Year column (eg, [YEAR-1]). Some sample data: ID YEAR VAL Dave 2004 1 Dave 2006 2 Dave 2007 3 Dave 2008 5 Dave 2009 0 outputs like this: ID YEAR VAL YEAR-1 VAL-1 YEAR-2 VAL-2 YEAR-3 VAL-3 Dave 2004 1 #Error #Error #Error Dave 2006 2 #Error 2004 1 #Error Dave 2007 3 2006 2 #Error 2004 1 Dave 2008 5 2007 3 2006 2 #Error Dave 2009 0 2008 5 2007 3 2006 2 Does that make sense? Why am I getting the appropriate NULL val for the non-existent YEARs, but an #Error for the non-existent VALs? (This is Access 2000. Conditional statements like "IIf(a1.val is null, -999, a1.val)" do not seem to do anything.) EDIT: It turns out that the errors are somehow caused by the fact that A_TABLE is actually a query. When I put all the data into an actual table and run the same query, everything shows up as it should. Thanks for the help, everyone.

    Read the article

  • MYSQL select query where multiple conditions in same column must exist

    - by David
    I'm putting together a dating site and I'm having a mysql query issue. This works: SELECT * FROM `user` , `desired_partner` , `user_personality` WHERE dob BETWEEN '1957-05-18' AND '1988-05-18' AND country_id = '190' AND user.gender_id = '1' AND user.user_id = desired_partner.user_id AND desired_partner.gender_id = '2' AND user.user_id = user_personality.user_id AND user_personality.personality_id = '2' The sql finds any male (gender_id=1) with ATLEAST personality trait 2 (and possibly other personality traits) between certain age range in the USA (country_id=190) looking for a female (gender_id=2). Question 1) How do I make it so it returns those with personality type 2 ONLY and no other personality traits? Find any man in the USA that is between 22 and 53 that is of personality type 2 (only) that is looking for a woman. Question 2) Supposing I want to find someone that matches personality type 1, personality type 2, and personality type 5 ONLY. There are 14 personality traits in the database and a user can be associated with any of them. Find any man in the USA that is between 22 and 53 that is of personality type 1, 2, and 5 (ONLY) that is looking for a woman.

    Read the article

  • IIS website is sending multiple content-type headers for zip files

    - by frankadelic
    We have a problem with an IIS5 server. When certain users/browsers click to download .zip files, binary gibberish text sometimes renders in the browser window. The desired behavior is for the file to either download or open with the associated zip application. Initially, we suspected that the wrong content-type header was set on the file. The IIS tech confirmed that .zip files were being served by IIS with the mime-type "application/x-zip-compressed". However, an inspection of the HTTP packets using Wireshark reveals that requests for zip files return two Content-Type headers. Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Content-Type: application/x-zip-compressed Any idea why IIS is sending two content-type headers? This doesn't happen for regular HTML or images files. It does happen with ZIP and PDF. Is there a particular place we can ask the IIS tech to look? Or is there a configuration file we can examine?

    Read the article

  • JQuery & Wordpress - Hide multiple divs inside unique ID?

    - by steelfrog
    I'm trying to write a short Wordpress JQuery for Wordpress comments that would allow users to toggle specific comments on and off. This is my first script, and I'm having a tough time. Once overtly simplified, the comments are formatted like so: <li id="li-comment-<?php comment_ID() ?>"> <div class="gravatar"><img src="#" /></div> <div class="comment_poster">Username</div> <div class="comment_options">Option buttons</div> <div class="comment_content">Comment</div> </li> In the "comment_options" DIV is a series of buttons that control the individual comments (reply, quote, edit, close, etc.). The close button is what I'm trying to write this script for. I need it to toggle the "gravtar" and "comment_content" DIVs, but leave the rest in place so that it still displays the user ID and controls. However, I can't seem to figure out how to contain the action. This is what I have so far: $(document).ready(function() { $("div.trigger").click(function() { $("div.gravatar").slideToggle(); $("div.comment_content").slideToggle(); }); }); The problem with this is that it closes are the .gravatar and .comment_content on the page, not just the ones found in the same list item. If you're curious, this is the page I'm working on. Any idea how I could resolve this? Again, this is my firs time with JQuery, so I'm a little fuzzy on how it all works. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Passing unknown amounts of variables using through a string string and eval and multiple functions a

    - by user300797
    I'm not sure how best to describe this problem... In short, I want to use object literal to allow me to pass a random amount of variables in any order to a function. Whilst this is not big deal in theory, in my code, this object literal is passed to a second function call on_change. on_change works comparing an element inner HTML to a string. if it is the same, it sets a time out of to call the function again (this is sort of/almost recursive, but the function dose actually get to end before it is called again). if the elements inner HTML is different from the string, then the third parameter is executed. this will either be a function or a string. either way it will execute. I have tested this function plenty and used it for a while now. how ever, it cannot seem to get the object literal to flow through the function calls... var params = { xpos:'false'}; on_change('window_3_cont_buffer','',' if(Window_manager.windows[3].window_cont_buffer.getElementsByTagName(\'content\')[0].getElementsByTagName(\'p\')[0].innerHTML == \'ERROR\'){ alert(Window_manager.windows[3].window_cont_buffer.getElementsByTagName(\'content\')[0].getElementsByTagName(\'p\')[1].innerHTML); return false; } else { Window_manager.windows[3].load_xml(\'location/view.php?location_ID=3\', \'\', ' + params + ' ); } '); I call this as part of the form submission. after this line, I then call a function to load some content via ajax, which works fine and will trigger the code from the on_change function. I have tested load_xml function it is able to call alert(param.xpos) and get the correct response. I can even added in a check for being undefined so that rest of the times I cam load_xml I don't get swamped with alerts. The load_xml function first set up the on_change function, then calls the function to load the content to a hidden div. Once the AJAX request has updated that DIV, the on_change function should now call the parse_xml function. This pulls out the information from the xml file. How ever... The idea of this object literal param is that it can tell this parse_xml function to ignore certain things. on_change("window_" + this.id + "_cont_buffer", "", "Window_manager.windows[" + this.id + "].parse_xml('" + param + "')"); this is part of load_xml. it works perfectly fine, even with the param bit in there. except, parse_xml dose not seem to be able to use that parameter. I have been able to get it to a point where parse_xml can alert(param) and give [object object] which I would of thought meant that the object litteral had been passed through, but when I try and call alert(param.xpos) I get undefined. I know this is a pig of a problem, and I could get around it by just having the function take a zillion boolean parameters, but its just not practical or elegant. I'm sure you will need to ask me plenty more questions before I can solve this. I will post more complete code, I just cut it down to what is actually going on. Thanks

    Read the article

  • EF4 and multiple abstract levels

    - by Cedric
    I need to use inheritance with EF4 and the TPH model created from DB. I created a new projet to test simples classes. There is my class model: There is my table in SQL SERVER 2008 : VEHICLE ID : int PK Owner : varchar(50) Consumption : float FirstCirculationDate : date Type : varchar(50) Discriminator : varchar(10) I added a condition in my EDMX on the Discriminator field to differentiate the Scooter, Car, Motorbike and Bike entities. MotorizedVehicle and Vehicle are Abstract. But when I compile, this error appears : Error 3032: Problem in mapping fragments starting at lines 78, 85:EntityTypes EF4InheritanceModel.Scooter, EF4InheritanceModel.Motorbike, EF4InheritanceModel.Car, EF4InheritanceModel.Bike are being mapped to the same rows in table Vehicle. Mapping conditions can be used to distinguish the rows that these types are mapped to. Edit : To Ladislav : I try it and error change to become it for all of my entities : Error 3034: Problem in mapping fragments starting at lines 72, 86:An entity is mapped to different rows within the same table. Ensure these two mapping fragments do not map two groups of entities with overlapping keys to two distinct groups of rows. To Henk (with Ladislay suggestion) : There are all of mappings details : What's wrong ? Thanks

    Read the article

  • CakePHP Multiple Nested Joins

    - by Paul
    I have an App in which several of the models are linked by hasMany/belongsTo associations. So for instance, A hasMany B, B hasMany C, C hasMany D, and D hasMany E. Also, E belongs to D, D belongs to C, C belongs to B, and B belongs to A. Using the Containable behavior has been great for controlling the amount of information comes back with each query, but I seem to be having a problem when trying to get data from table A while using a condition that involves table D. For instance, here is an example of my 'A' model: class A extends AppModel { var $name = 'A'; var $hasMany = array( 'B' => array('dependent' => true) ); function findDependentOnE($condition) { return $this->find('all', array( 'contain' => array( 'B' => array( 'C' => array( 'D' => array( 'E' => array( 'conditions' => array( 'E.myfield' => $some_value ) ) ) ) ) ) )); } } This still gives me back all the records in 'A', and if it's related 'E' records don't satisfy the condition, then I just get this: Array( [0] => array( [A] => array( [field1] => // stuff [field2] => // more stuff // ...etc ), [B] => array( [field1] => // stuff [field2] => // more stuff // ...etc ), [C] => array( [field1] => // stuff [field2] => // more stuff // ...etc ), [D] => array( [field1] => // stuff [field2] => // more stuff // ...etc ), [E] => array( // empty if 'E.myfield' != $some_value' ) ), [1] => array( // ...etc ) ) When If 'E.myfield' != $some_value, I don't want the record returned at all. I hope this expresses my problem clearly enough... Basically, I want the following query, but in a database-agnostic/CakePHP-y kind of way: SELECT * FROM A INNER JOIN (B INNER JOIN (C INNER JOIN (D INNER JOIN E ON D.id=E.d_id) ON C.id=D.c_id) ON B.id=C.b_id) ON A.id=B.a_id WHERE E.myfield = $some_value

    Read the article

  • Delphi Application using COMMIT and ROLLBACK for Multiple SQL Updates

    - by Matt
    Is it possible to use the SQL BEGIN TRANSACTION, COMMIT TRANSACTION, ROLLBACK TRANSACTION when embedding SQL Queries into an application with mutiple calls to the SQL for Table Updates. For example I have the following code: Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<Select Some Data>); Q.Open; Set Some Variables Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; What I would like to do is if the second update fails I want to roll back the first transaction. If I set a unique notation for the BEGIN, COMMIT, ROLLBACK so as to specify what is being committed or rolled back, is it feasible. i.e. before the first Update specify BEGIN TRANSACTION_A then after the last update specify COMMIT TRANSACTION_A I hope that makes sense. If I was doing this in a SQL Stored Procedure then I would be able to specify this at the start and end of the procedure, but I have had to break the code down into manageable chunks due to process blocks and deadlocks on a heavy loaded SQL Server.

    Read the article

  • how to bind multiple value in WPF ??

    - by deep
    hai am using the below binding to bind my value 'Name' to textblock1. <TextBlock Text="{Binding Name}" /> now the problem is i want to bind another value called 'ID' with that same textblock1 is it possible to bind value like using Name + ID like that??? :)

    Read the article

  • .NET - downloading multiple pages from a website with a single DNS query

    - by lampak
    I'm using HttpRequest to download several pages from a website (in a loop). Simplifying it looks like this: HttpWebRequest req = (HttpWebRequest)HttpWebRequest.Create( "http://sub.domain.com/something/" + someString ); HttpWebResponse resp = (HttpWebResponse)req.GetResponse(); //do something I'm not quite sure actually but every request seems to resolve the address again (I don't know how to test if I'm right). I would like to boost it a little and resolve the address once and then reuse it for all requests. I can't work out how to force HttpRequest into using it, though. I have tried using Dns.GetHostAddresses, converting the result to a string and passing it as the address to HttpWebRequest.Create. Unfortunately, server returns error 404 then. I managed to google that's probably because the "Host" header of the http query doesn't match what the server expects. Is there a simple way to solve this?

    Read the article

  • Multiple apks, single listing of app for Google TV and Android Phone/Tablet

    - by Yash
    I have an Android phone/tablet apk which is currently in Play store and has these settings in its manifest file: package="com.company.xyz" android:versionCode="0803010008" android:versionName="01.00.08" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="8" android:targetSdkVersion="8" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.RECEIVE_BOOT_COMPLETED" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WAKE_LOCK" /> <uses-library android:name="com.adobe.flashplayer" android:required="true" /> <supports-screens android:anyDensity="true" android:largeScreens="true" android:normalScreens="true" android:smallScreens="false" android:xlargeScreens="true" /> <uses-feature android:name="android.hardware.touchscreen" android:required="true" /> I had uploaded another apk for GoogleTV which has the same package name com.company.xyz as the previous apk and has the following settings in its manifest file: package="com.company.xyz" android:versionCode="1203010001" android:versionName="01.00.01" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="12" android:targetSdkVersion="12" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WAKE_LOCK" /> <uses-feature android:name="android.hardware.touchscreen" android:required="false" /> <uses-feature android:name="com.google.android.tv" android:required="true" /> <supports-screens android:largeScreens="true"/> <uses-configuration android:reqFiveWayNav="true" /> The Google TV apk never showed up on Play Store on GTV boxes, so I updated its manifest with the settings below and with everything else remaining the same package="com.company.xyz" android:versionCode="1203010002" android:versionName="01.00.02" > <supports-screens android:largeScreens="true" android:normalScreens="false" android:smallScreens="false" android:xlargeScreens="false" /> At this point, I am unable to save the app because of the Play Store error "Error: New APK version is lower than previous APK version" even though the GoogleTV apk has a higher version code than the Phone/Tablet version. Does anyone have a solution for this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • using R.zoo to plot multiple series with error bars

    - by dnagirl
    I have data that looks like this: > head(data) groupname ob_time dist.mean dist.sd dur.mean dur.sd ct.mean ct.sd 1 rowA 0.3 61.67500 39.76515 43.67500 26.35027 8.666667 11.29226 2 rowA 60.0 45.49167 38.30301 37.58333 27.98207 8.750000 12.46176 3 rowA 120.0 50.22500 35.89708 40.40000 24.93399 8.000000 10.23363 4 rowA 180.0 54.05000 41.43919 37.98333 28.03562 8.750000 11.97061 5 rowA 240.0 51.97500 41.75498 35.60000 25.68243 28.583333 46.14692 6 rowA 300.0 45.50833 43.10160 32.20833 27.37990 12.833333 14.21800 Each groupname is a data series. Since I want to plot each series separately, I've separated them like this: > A <- zoo(data[which(groupname=='rowA'),3:8],data[which(groupname=='rowA'),2]) > B <- zoo(data[which(groupname=='rowB'),3:8],data[which(groupname=='rowB'),2]) > C <- zoo(data[which(groupname=='rowC'),3:8],data[which(groupname=='rowC'),2]) ETA: Thanks to gd047: Now I'm using this: z <- dlply(data,.(groupname),function(x) zoo(x[,3:8],x[,2])) The resulting zoo objects look like this: > head(z$rowA) dist.mean dist.sd dur.mean dur.sd ct.mean ct.sd 0.3 61.67500 39.76515 43.67500 26.35027 8.666667 11.29226 60 45.49167 38.30301 37.58333 27.98207 8.750000 12.46176 120 50.22500 35.89708 40.40000 24.93399 8.000000 10.23363 180 54.05000 41.43919 37.98333 28.03562 8.750000 11.97061 240 51.97500 41.75498 35.60000 25.68243 28.583333 46.14692 300 45.50833 43.10160 32.20833 27.37990 12.833333 14.21800 So if I want to plot dist.mean against time and include error bars equal to +/- dist.sd for each series: how do I combine A,B,C dist.mean and dist.sd? how do I make a bar plot, or perhaps better, a line graph of the resulting object?

    Read the article

  • Best way to handle multiple getView calls from inside an Adapter

    - by Samuh
    I have a ListView with custom ArrayAdapter. Each of the row in this ListView has an icon and some text. These icons are downloaded in background,cached and then using a callback, substituted in their respective ImageViews. The logic to get a thumbnail from cache or download is triggered every time getView() runs. Now, according to Romain Guy: "there is absolutely no guarantee on the order in which getView() will be called nor how many times." I have seen this happen, for a row of size two getView() was being called six times! How do I change my code to avoid duplicate thumbnail-fetch-requests and also handle view recycling? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Using implicit conversion as a substitute for multiple inheritance in .NET

    - by Daniel Plaisted
    I have a situation where I would like to have objects of a certain type be able to be used as two different types. If one of the "base" types was an interface this wouldn't be an issue, but in my case it is preferable that they both be concrete types. I am considering adding copies of the methods and properties of one of the base types to the derived type, and adding an implicit conversion from the derived type to that base type. Then users will be able treat the derived type as the base type by using the duplicated methods directly, by assigning it to a variable of the base type, or by passing it to a method that takes the base type. It seems like this solution will fit my needs well, but am I missing anything? Is there a situation where this won't work, or where it is likely to add confusion instead of simplicity when using the API?

    Read the article

  • multiple partial views mvc 2

    - by nik1
    Hello World! Hi guys, I have a master page with two partial viewson it both of which submit to the AccountController. When I click Submit on either of the partial views the following happens: If I declare the partial views like Html.BeginForm("PartialAction1","Account") it redirects to that partial view on clicking submit instead bringing back the default HomeContoller Index view with validation errors. If I declare the partial view forms as Html.BeginForm() then it returns to the default index view of the home controller. But it actually fires both partial view actions inside the AccountController and thus returns validation errors for both partial views simultaneously. What I want is version 2 above with only one action firing instead of two. Am I missing, hopefully, something very simple? I hoping someone can help me or point me in the right direction. Here's the code from my master page for the partial views Html.Action("Login1","Account") Html.Action("Login2", "Account") Many Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205  | Next Page >