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  • Dynamically created iframe used to download file triggers onload with firebug but not without

    - by justkt
    EDIT: as this problem is now "solved" to the point of working, I am looking to have the information on why. For the fix, see my comment below. I have an web application which repeatedly downloads wav files dynamically (after a timeout or as instructed by the user) into an iframe in order to trigger the a default audio player to play them. The application targets only FF 2 or 3. In order to determine when the file is downloaded completely, I am hoping to use the window.onload handler for the iframe. Based on this stackoverflow.com answer I am creating a new iframe each time. As long as firebug is enabled on the browser using the application, everything works great. Without firebug, the onload never fires. The version of firebug is 1.3.1, while I've tested Firefox 2.0.0.19 and 3.0.7. Any ideas how I can get the onload from the iframe to reliably trigger when the wav file has downloaded? Or is there another way to signal the completion of the download? Here's the pertinent code: HTML (hidden's only attribute is display:none;): <div id="audioContainer" class="hidden"> </div> JavaScript (could also use jQuery, but innerHTML is faster than html() from what I've read): waitingForFile = true; // (declared at the beginning of closure) $("#loading").removeClass("hidden"); var content = "<iframe id='audioPlayer' name='audioPlayer' src='" + /path/to/file.wav + "' onload='notifyLoaded()'></iframe>"; document.getElementById("audioContainer").innerHTML = content; And the content of notifyLoaded: function notifyLoaded() { waitingForFile = false; // (declared at beginning of the closure) $("#loading").addClass("hidden"); } I have also tried creating the iframe via document.createElement, but I found the same behavior. The onload triggered each time with firebug enabled and never without it. EDIT: Fixed the information on how the iframe is being declared and added the callback function code. No, no console.log calls here.

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  • Lua Operator Overloading

    - by Pessimist
    I've found some places on the web saying that operators in Lua are overloadable but I can't seem to find any example. Can someone provide an example of, say, overloading the + operator to work like the .. operator works for string concatenation? EDIT 1: to Alexander Gladysh and RBerteig: If operator overloading only works when both operands are the same type and changing this behavior wouldn't be easy, then how come the following code works? (I don't mean any offense, I just started learning this language): printf = function(fmt, ...) io.write(string.format(fmt, ...)) end Set = {} Set.mt = {} -- metatable for sets function Set.new (t) local set = {} setmetatable(set, Set.mt) for _, l in ipairs(t) do set[l] = true end return set end function Set.union (a,b) -- THIS IS THE PART THAT MANAGES OPERATOR OVERLOADING WITH OPERANDS OF DIFFERENT TYPES -- if user built new set using: new_set = some_set + some_number if type(a) == "table" and type(b) == "number" then print("building set...") local mixedset = Set.new{} for k in pairs(a) do mixedset[k] = true end mixedset[b] = true return mixedset -- elseif user built new set using: new_set = some_number + some_set elseif type(b) == "table" and type(a) == "number" then print("building set...") local mixedset = Set.new{} for k in pairs(b) do mixedset[k] = true end mixedset[a] = true return mixedset end if getmetatable(a) ~= Set.mt or getmetatable(b) ~= Set.mt then error("attempt to 'add' a set with a non-set value that is also not a number", 2) end local res = Set.new{} for k in pairs(a) do res[k] = true end for k in pairs(b) do res[k] = true end return res end function Set.tostring (set) local s = "{" local sep = "" for e in pairs(set) do s = s .. sep .. e sep = ", " end return s .. "}" end function Set.print (s) print(Set.tostring(s)) end s1 = Set.new{10, 20, 30, 50} s2 = Set.new{30, 1} Set.mt.__add = Set.union -- now try to make a new set by unioning a set plus a number: s3 = s1 + 8 Set.print(s3) --> {1, 10, 20, 30, 50}

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  • ActiveRecord table inheritence using set_table_names

    - by Jinyoung Kim
    Hi, I'm using ActiveRecord in Ruby on Rails. I have a table named documents(Document class) and I want to have another table data_documents(DataDocument) class which is effectively the same except for having different table name. In other words, I want two tables with the same behavior except for table name. class DataDocument < Document #set_table_name "data_documents" self.table_name = "data_documents" end My solution was to use class inheritance as above, yet this resulted in inconsistent SQL statement for create operation where there are both 'documents' table and 'data_documents' table. Can you figure out why and how I can make it work? >> DataDocument.create(:did=>"dd") ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: Mysql::Error: Unknown column 'data_documents.did' in 'where clause': SELECT `documents`.id FROM `documents` WHERE (`data_documents`.`did` = BINARY 'dd') LIMIT 1 from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract_adapter.rb:212:in `log' from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/mysql_adapter.rb:320:in `execute' from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/mysql_adapter.rb:595:in `select' from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/database_statements.rb:7:in `select_all_without_query_cache' from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/query_cache.rb:62:in `select_all'

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  • How do we greatly optimize our MySQL database (or replace it) when using joins?

    - by jkaz
    Hi there, This is the first time I'm approaching an extremely high-volume situation. This is an ad server based on MySQL. However, the query that is used incorporates a lot of JOINs and is generally just slow. (This is Rails ActiveRecord, btw) sel = Ads.find(:all, :select = '*', :joins = "JOIN campaigns ON ads.campaign_id = campaigns.id JOIN users ON campaigns.user_id = users.id LEFT JOIN countries ON countries.campaign_id = campaigns.id LEFT JOIN keywords ON keywords.campaign_id = campaigns.id", :conditions = [flashstr + "keywords.word = ? AND ads.format = ? AND campaigns.cenabled = 1 AND (countries.country IS NULL OR countries.country = ?) AND ads.enabled = 1 AND campaigns.dailyenabled = 1 AND users.uenabled = 1", kw, format, viewer['country'][0]], :order = order, :limit = limit) My questions: Is there an alternative database like MySQL that has JOIN support, but is much faster? (I know there's Postgre, still evaluating it.) Otherwise, would firing up a MySQL instance, loading a local database into memory and re-loading that every 5 minutes help? Otherwise, is there any way I could switch this entire operation to Redis or Cassandra, and somehow change the JOIN behavior to match the (non-JOIN-able) nature of NoSQL? Thank you!

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  • System.Dynamic bug?

    - by ControlFlow
    While I playing with the C# 4.0 dynamic, I found strange things happening with the code like this: using System.Dynamic; sealed class Foo : DynamicObject { public override bool TryInvoke( InvokeBinder binder, object[] args, out object result) { result = new object(); return true; } static void Main() { dynamic foo = new Foo(); var t1 = foo(0); var t2 = foo(0); var t3 = foo(0); var t4 = foo(0); var t5 = foo(0); } } Ok, it works but... take a look at IntelliTrace window: So every invokation (and other operations too on dynamic object) causes throwing and catching strange exceptions twice! I understand, that sometimes exceptions mechanism may be used for optimizations, for example first call to dynamic may be performed to some stub delegate, that simply throws exception - this may be like a signal to dynamic binder to resolve an correct member and re-point delegate. Next call to the same delegate will be performed without any checks. But... behavior of the code above looks very strange. Maybe throwing and catching exceptions twice per any operation on DynamicObject - is a bug?

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  • Using Git to work with subversion: Ignoring modifications to tracked files

    - by Chris Nicola
    I am currently working with a subversion repository but I am using git to work locally on my machine. It makes work much easier, but it also makes some of the bad behavior going on in the subversion repo quite glaring and that creates problems for me. There is a somewhat complex local build process after pulling down the code and it creates (and unfortunately modifies) a number of files. Obviously these changes are not meant to be committed back to the repository. Unfortunately the build process is actually modifying some tracked files (yes, most likely because someone mistakenly committed these build artifacts at some point to the subversion repository). Since these are modifications adding them to my ignore file does nothing for me. I can avoid checking these changes back it, I simple don't stage or commit them, but having unstaged local changes means I can't rebase without first cleaning them up. What I would like to know is if there any way to ignore future changes to a set of tracked files? Alternatively, is there another way to handle the problem I am having, or will I just have to tell whoever checked in these files to clean them up?

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  • Java 7u4 webstart security exception: Class does not match trust level

    - by Glstunna
    We began to notice that with Java 7 (particularly with update 4), that all our users began to see this with our Webstart app: [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) java.lang.SecurityException: class "CLASSNAME" does not match trust level of other classes in the same package [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at com.sun.deploy.security.CPCallbackHandler$ChildElement.checkResource(Unknown Source) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at com.sun.deploy.security.DeployURLClassPath$JarLoader.checkResource(Unknown Source) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at com.sun.deploy.security.DeployURLClassPath$JarLoader.getResource(Unknown Source) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at com.sun.deploy.security.DeployURLClassPath.getResource(Unknown Source) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at com.sun.jnlp.JNLPClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) [14:42:58,422] AWT-EventQueue-0(DEBUG) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source)...More Where CLASSNAME = pretty much every class at random points from several jars in the app execution, breaking several behavior. If our users were to use Java 6, they have no problems! Just 7 (update 4). We sign ALL our jars, both the main application jar and it's library jars. i.e Users launching our webstart app see the blue shield instead of yellow or red. This is obviously an issue as users are more frequently now upgrading to Java 7. I have tried to force our app to use Java 6 on the user machine either by using a previous installation(works), or installing a new one....with the j2se version="1.6" tag around resources but this causes it's own problems that would probably be best to make into it's own thread (the auto-jre-installation part). Did Oracle break Webstart security with Java 7u4? How do I solve this securityexception issue?

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  • Rails: constraint violation on create but not on update

    - by justinbach
    Note: This is a "railsier" (and more succinct) version of this question, which was getting a little long. I'm getting Rails behavior on a production server that I can't replicate on the development server. The codebases are identical save for credentials and caching settings, and both are powered by Oracle 10g databases with identical schema (but different data). My Rails application contains a user model, which has_one registration; registration in turn has_and_belongs_to_many company_ownerships through a registration_ownerships table. Upon registering, users fill out data pertinent to all three models, including a series of checkboxes indicating what registration_ownerships might apply to their account. On the dev server, the registration process is seamless, no matter what data is entered. On production, however, if users check off any of the company ownership fields before submitting their registration, Oracle complains about a constraint violation on the primary key of the company_ownerships table (which is a two-field key based on company_ownership_id and registration_id) and users get the standard Rails 500 error screen. In every case, I've verified that no conflicting record on these two fields exists in the production database, so I don't know why the constraint is getting violated. To further confuse things, if a user registers without listing any ownerships and later goes back and modifies their account to reflect ownership data (which is done through the same interface), the application happily complies with their request and Oracle is well-behaved (this is both on production and dev). I've spent the past couple days trying to figure out what might be causing this problem and am reaching the end of my wits. Any advice would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Why do properties behave this way?

    - by acidzombie24
    from http://csharpindepth.com/Articles/Chapter8/PropertiesMatter.aspx using System; struct MutableStruct { public int Value { get; set; } public void SetValue(int newValue) { Value = newValue; } } class MutableStructHolder { public MutableStruct Field; public MutableStruct Property { get; set; } } class Test { static void Main(string[] args) { MutableStructHolder holder = new MutableStructHolder(); // Affects the value of holder.Field holder.Field.SetValue(10); // Retrieves holder.Property as a copy and changes the copy holder.Property.SetValue(10); Console.WriteLine(holder.Field.Value); Console.WriteLine(holder.Property.Value); } } 1) Why is a copy (of Property?) being made? 2) When changing the code to holder.Field.value and holder.Property.value = 10 i get the error below. That just blew my mind Error 1 Cannot modify the return value of 'MutableStructHolder.Property' because it is not a variable Why would i ever not be allowed to assign a value inside of a property!?! both property are get/set! and finally WHY would you EVER want behavior mentioned in 1 and 2. (It never came up for me, i always used get only properties). Please explain well, i cant imagine ever wanting the 2nd much less then the first. It is just so weird to me.

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  • Django's post_save signal behaves weirdly with models using multi-table inheritance

    - by hekevintran
    Django's post_save signal behaves weirdly with models using multi-table inheritance I am noticing an odd behavior in the way Django's post_save signal works when using a model that has multi-table inheritance. I have these two models: class Animal(models.Model): category = models.CharField(max_length=20) class Dog(Animal): color = models.CharField(max_length=10) I have a post save callback called echo_category: def echo_category(sender, **kwargs): print "category: '%s'" % kwargs['instance'].category post_save.connect(echo_category, sender=Dog) I have this fixture: [ { "pk": 1, "model": "animal.animal", "fields": { "category": "omnivore" } }, { "pk": 1, "model": "animal.dog", "fields": { "color": "brown" } } ] In every part of the program except for in the post_save callback the following is true: from animal.models import Dog Dog.objects.get(pk=1).category == u'omnivore' # True When I run syncdb and the fixture is installed, the echo_category function is run. The output from syncdb is: $ python manage.py syncdb --noinput Installing json fixture 'initial_data' from '~/my_proj/animal/fixtures'. category: '' Installed 2 object(s) from 1 fixture(s) The weird thing here is that the dog object's category attribute is an empty string. Why is it not 'omnivore' like it is everywhere else? As a temporary (hopefully) workaround I reload the object from the database in the post_save callback: def echo_category(sender, **kwargs): instance = kwargs['instance'] instance = sender.objects.get(pk=instance.pk) print "category: '%s'" % instance.category post_save.connect(echo_category, sender=Dog) This works but it is not something I like because I must remember to do it when the model inherits from another model and it must hit the database again. The other weird thing is that I must do instance.pk to get the primary key. The normal 'id' attribute does not work (I cannot use instance.id). I do not know why this is. Maybe this is related to the reason why the category attribute is not doing the right thing?

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  • stack overflow on XMLListCollection collectionEvent

    - by reidLinden
    I'm working on a Flex 3 project, and I'm using a pair of XMLListCollection(s) to manage a combobox and a data grid. The combobox piece is working perfectly. The XMLListCollection for this is static. The user picks an item, and, on "change", it fires off an addItem() to the second collection. The second collection's datagrid then displays the updated list, and all is well. The datagrid, however, is editable. A further complication is that I have another event handler bound to the second XMLLIstCollection's "change" event, and in that handler, I do make additional changes to the second list. This essentially causes an infinite loop (a stack overflow :D ), of the second lists "change" handler. I'm not really sure how to handle this. Searching has brought up an idea or two regarding AutoUpdate functionality, but I wasn't able to get much out of them. In particular, the behavior persists, executing the 'updates' as soon as I re-enable, so I imagine I may be doing it wrong. I want the update to run, in general, just not DURING that code block. Thanks for your help!

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  • Advice welcomed on creating my own Swing component

    - by Toto
    Recently I asked which was the best Swing component to bind to a BigDecimal variable (with some particular editing properties). It turns out that none of the standard Swing components suit me completely, nor did the third-party Swing component libraries I've found out there. So I’ve decided to create my own Swing component. Component description: I want to extend JTextField or JFormattedTextField, so my new component can be easily bound to a BigDecimal variable. The component will have customizable scale and length properties. Behavior: When the component is drawn, it shows only the decimal point and space for scale digits to its right. When the component receives focus the caret should be positioned left to the decimal point. As the user types numbers (any other character is ignored) they appear to the left of the caret, only length – scale numbers are accepted, any other number typed is ignored as the integer portion is full. Any time the user types the decimal point the caret moves to the right side of the decimal point. The following numbers typed are shown in the decimal part, only scale numbers are considered any other number typed is ignored as the decimal portion is full. Additionally, thousand separators should appear as the user types numbers left to the decimal point. Invoking a getValue() method on the component should yield the BigDecimal representing the number just entered. I’ve never created my own Swing component; I’ve barely used the standard ones. So I would appreciate any good tutorial/info/tip on creating the component described. This is the only thing I've got so far. Thanks in advance.

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  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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  • How to implement or emulate an "abstract" OCUnit test class?

    - by Quinn Taylor
    I have a number of Objective-C classes organized in an inheritance hierarchy. They all share a common parent which implements all the behaviors shared among the children. Each child class defines a few methods that make it work, and the parent class raises an exception for the methods designed to be implemented/overridden by its children. This effectively makes the parent a pseudo-abstract class (since it's useless on its own) even though Objective-C doesn't explicitly support abstract classes. The crux of this problem is that I'm unit testing this class hierarchy using OCUnit, and the tests are structured similarly: one test class that exercises the common behavior, with a subclass corresponding to each of the child classes under test. However, running the test cases on the (effectively abstract) parent class is problematic, since the unit tests will fail in spectacular fashion without the key methods. (The alternative of repeating the common tests across 5 test classes is not really an acceptable option.) The non-ideal solution I've been using is to check (in each test method) whether the instance is the parent test class, and bail out if it is. This leads to repeated code in every test method, a problem that becomes increasingly annoying if one's unit tests are highly granular. In addition, all such tests are still executed and reported as successes, skewing the number of meaningful tests that were actually run. What I'd prefer is a way to signal to OCUnit "Don't run any tests in this class, only run them in its child classes." To my knowledge, there isn't (yet) a way to do that, something similar to a +(BOOL)isAbstractTest method I can implement/override. Any ideas on a better way to solve this problem with minimal repetition? Does OCUnit have any ability to flag a test class in this way, or is it time to file a Radar? Edit: Here's a link to the test code in question. Notice the frequent repetition of if (...) return; to start a method, including use of the NonConcreteClass() macro for brevity.

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  • ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

    - by Zote
    I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

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  • Custom Modal Window in WPF?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have a WPF application where I'd like to create a custom pop-up that has modal behavior. I've been able to hack up a solution using an equivalent to 'DoEvents', but is there a better way to do this? Here is what I have currently: private void ShowModalHost(FrameworkElement element) { //Create new modal host var host = new ModalHost(element); //Lock out UI with blur WindowSurface.Effect = new BlurEffect(); ModalSurface.IsHitTestVisible = true; //Display control in modal surface ModalSurface.Children.Add(host); //Block until ModalHost is done while (ModalSurface.IsHitTestVisible) { DoEvents(); } } private void DoEvents() { var frame = new DispatcherFrame(); Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(DispatcherPriority.Background, new DispatcherOperationCallback(ExitFrame), frame); Dispatcher.PushFrame(frame); } private object ExitFrame(object f) { ((DispatcherFrame)f).Continue = false; return null; } public void CloseModal() { //Remove any controls from the modal surface and make UI available again ModalSurface.Children.Clear(); ModalSurface.IsHitTestVisible = false; WindowSurface.Effect = null; } Where my ModalHost is a user control designed to host another element with animation and other support.

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  • NSScrollView frame and flipped documentView

    - by StrAbZ
    Hi, I have problems with NSScrollView, It is not displayed the way I want. Yes I know there is a lot of post about it around the web, I need to override the isFlipped, in order to make it return YES, in my NSView subclass. Ok, it's done, so now, my scrollView scroll from top to bottom, and not in the reverse way, as it was before overriding isFlipped. But, this is the second part, my real problem, which I didn't found any answer on the web, how the hell I'm supposed to code, or create my view in interface builder, if everything is flipped? If I put something at the top, it is displayed a the bottom… do you have any magic trick to handle that? And my last problem, is the NSScrollView frame. before setting the documentView of my scroll view, everything is fine, the scrollView is displayed at the place I choose, but, when I set the document view, it looks like the scrollview frame looks bigger, so I have to resize it…. is this a normal behavior? Thank you very much.

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  • Subsonic 3 ActiveRecord nested select for NotIn bug?

    - by Junto
    I have the following Subsonic 3.0 query, which contains a nested NotIn query: public List<Order> GetRandomOrdersForNoReason(int shopId, int typeId) { // build query var q = new SubSonic.Query.Select().Top("1") .From("Order") .Where("ShopId") .IsEqualTo(shopId) .And(OrderTable.CustomerId).NotIn( new Subsonic.Query.Select("CustomerId") .From("Customer") .Where("TypeId") .IsNotEqualTo(typeId)) .OrderDesc("NewId()"); // Output query Debug.WriteLine(q.ToString()); // returned typed list return q.ExecuteTypedList<Order>(); } The internal query appears to be incorrect: SELECT TOP 1 * FROM [Order] WHERE ShopId = @0 AND CustomerId NOT IN (SELECT CustomerId FROM [Customer] WHERE TypeId = @0) ORDER BY NewId() ASC You'll notice that both parameters are @0. I'm assuming that the parameters are enumerated (starting at zero), for each "new" Select query. However, in this case where the two Select queries are nested, I would have expected the output to have two parameters named @0 and @1. My query is based on one that Rob Conery gave on his blog as a preview of the "Pakala" query tool that became Subsonic 3. His example was: int records = new Select(Northwind.Product.Schema) .Where("productid") .In( new Select("productid").From(Northwind.Product.Schema) .Where("categoryid").IsEqualTo(5) ) .GetRecordCount(); Has anyone else seen this behavior? Is it a bug, or is this an error or my part? Since I'm new to Subsonic I'm guessing that this probably programmer error on my part but I'd like confirmation if possible.

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  • SQL Where Clause Against View

    - by Adam Carr
    I have a view (actually, it's a table valued function, but the observed behavior is the same in both) that inner joins and left outer joins several other tables. When I query this view with a where clause similar to SELECT * FROM [v_MyView] WHERE [Name] like '%Doe, John%' ... the query is very slow, but if I do the following... SELECT * FROM [v_MyView] WHERE [ID] in ( SELECT [ID] FROM [v_MyView] WHERE [Name] like '%Doe, John%' ) it is MUCH faster. The first query is taking at least 2 minutes to return, if not longer where the second query will return in less than 5 seconds. Any suggestions on how I can improve this? If I run the whole command as one SQL statement (without the use of a view) it is very fast as well. I believe this result is because of how a view should behave as a table in that if a view has OUTER JOINS, GROUP BYS or TOP ##, if the where clause was interpreted prior to vs after the execution of the view, the results could differ. My question is why wouldn't SQL optimize my first query to something as efficient as my second query?

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  • Impact of ordering of correlated subqueries within a projection

    - by Michael Petito
    I'm noticing something a bit unexpected with how SQL Server (SQL Server 2008 in this case) treats correlated subqueries within a select statement. My assumption was that a query plan should not be affected by the mere order in which subqueries (or columns, for that matter) are written within the projection clause of the select statement. However, this does not appear to be the case. Consider the following two queries, which are identical except for the ordering of the subqueries within the CTE: --query 1: subquery for Color is second WITH vw AS ( SELECT p.[ID], (SELECT TOP(1) [FirstName] FROM [Preference] WHERE p.ID = ID AND [FirstName] IS NOT NULL ORDER BY [LastModified] DESC) [FirstName], (SELECT TOP(1) [Color] FROM [Preference] WHERE p.ID = ID AND [Color] IS NOT NULL ORDER BY [LastModified] DESC) [Color] FROM Person p ) SELECT ID, Color, FirstName FROM vw WHERE Color = 'Gray'; --query 2: subquery for Color is first WITH vw AS ( SELECT p.[ID], (SELECT TOP(1) [Color] FROM [Preference] WHERE p.ID = ID AND [Color] IS NOT NULL ORDER BY [LastModified] DESC) [Color], (SELECT TOP(1) [FirstName] FROM [Preference] WHERE p.ID = ID AND [FirstName] IS NOT NULL ORDER BY [LastModified] DESC) [FirstName] FROM Person p ) SELECT ID, Color, FirstName FROM vw WHERE Color = 'Gray'; If you look at the two query plans, you'll see that an outer join is used for each subquery and that the order of the joins is the same as the order the subqueries are written. There is a filter applied to the result of the outer join for color, to filter out rows where the color is not 'Gray'. (It's odd to me that SQL would use an outer join for the color subquery since I have a non-null constraint on the result of the color subquery, but OK.) Most of the rows are removed by the color filter. The result is that query 2 is significantly cheaper than query 1 because fewer rows are involved with the second join. All reasons for constructing such a statement aside, is this an expected behavior? Shouldn't SQL server opt to move the filter as early as possible in the query plan, regardless of the order the subqueries are written?

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  • What does stdole.dll do?

    - by rc1
    We have a large C# (.net 2.0) app which uses our own C++ COM component and a 3rd party fingerprint scanner library also accessed via COM. We ran into an issue where in production some events from the fingerprint library do not get fired into the C# app, although events from our own C++ COM component fired and were received just fine. Using MSINFO32 to compare the loaded modules on a working system to those on a failing system we determined that this was caused by STDOLE.DLL not being in the GAC and hence not loaded into the faulty process. Dragging this file into the GAC caused events to come back fine from the fingerprint COM library. So what does stdole.dll do? It's 16k in size so it can't be much... is it some sort of link to another library like STDOLE32? How come its absence causes such odd behavior? How do we distribute stdole.dll? This is an XCOPY deploy app and we don't use the GAC. Should we package it as a resource and use the System.EnterpriseServices.Internal.Publish.GacInstall to ensure it's in the GAC?

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • How do you add a key handler to a GWT FlexTable?

    - by Eric Landry
    I'm trying to change the row highlighting in my FlexTable using KeyCodes.KEY_UP/DOWN. This doesn't seem to work (based on 1809155): public class KeyAwareFlexTable extends FlexTable implements KeyDownHandler, HasKeyDownHandlers { public KeyAwareFlexTable() { this.addKeyDownHandler(this); } @Override public void onKeyDown(KeyDownEvent event) { GWT.log("onKeyDown"); // check if up/down & do something useful } @Override public HandlerRegistration addKeyDownHandler(KeyDownHandler handler) { return addDomHandler(handler, KeyDownEvent.getType()); } } I've also tried this (based on this site): FlexTable table = new FlexTable() { @Override public void onBrowserEvent(Event event) { super.onBrowserEvent(event); GWT.log("Event type = " + DOM.eventGetType(event)); switch (DOM.eventGetType(event)) { case Event.ONKEYDOWN: if (DOM.eventGetKeyCode(event) == KeyCodes.KEY_UP) { GWT.log("up"); } else if (DOM.eventGetKeyCode(event) == KeyCodes.KEY_DOWN) { GWT.log("down"); } break; default: break; } } }; table.sinkEvents(Event.ONKEYDOWN); I'm looking for a way to have this behavior more or less. Does anybody have a way to do this in GWT?

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  • Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

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  • Mocking Autofac's "Resolve" extension method with TypeMock

    - by Lockshopr
    I'm trying to mock an Autofac resolve, such as: using System; using Autofac; using TypeMock.ArrangeActAssert; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var inst = Isolate.Fake.Instance<IContainer>(); Isolate.Fake.StaticMethods(typeof(ResolutionExtensions), Members.ReturnNulls); Isolate.WhenCalled(() => inst.Resolve<IRubber>()).WillReturn(new BubbleGum()); Console.Out.WriteLine(inst.Resolve<IRubber>()); } } public interface IRubber {} public class BubbleGum : IRubber {} Coming from Moq, the syntax and exceptions from TypeMock confuse me a great deal. Having initially run this in a TestMethod, I kept getting an exception resembling "WhenCalled cannot be run without a complementing behavior". I tried defining behaviors for everyone and their mothers, but to no avail. Then I debug stepped through the test run, and saw that an actual exception was fired from Autofac: IRubber has not been registered. So it's obvious that the static Resolve function isn't being faked, and I can't get it to be faked, no matter how I go about hooking it up. Isolate.WhenCalled(() => ResolutionExtensions.Resolve<IRubber>(null)).WillReturn(new BubbleGum()); ... throws an exception from Autofac complaining that the IComponentContext cannot be null. Feeding it the presumably faked IContainer (or faking an IComponentContext instead) gets me back to the "IRubber not registered" error.

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