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  • Database nesting layout confusion

    - by arzon
    I'm no expert in databases and a beginner in Rails, so here goes something which kinda confuses me... Assuming I have three classes as a sample (note that no effort has been made to address any possible Rails reserved words issue in the sample). class File < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :records, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :records, :allow_destroy => true end class Record < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :file has_many :users, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :users, :allow_destroy => true end class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :record end Upon entering records, the database contents will appear as such. My issue is that if there are a lot of Files for the same Record, there will be duplicate record names. This will also be true if there will be multiple Records for the same user in the the Users table. I was wondering if there is a better way than this so as to have one or more files point to a single Record entry and one or more Records will point to a single User. BTW, the File names are unique. Files table: id name 1 name1 2 name2 3 name3 4 name4 Records table: id file_id record_name record_type 1 1 ForDaisy1 ... 2 2 ForDonald1 ... 3 3 ForDonald2 ... 4 4 ForDaisy1 ... Users table: id record_id username 1 1 Daisy 2 2 Donald 3 3 Donald 4 4 Daisy Is there any way to optimize the database to prevent duplication of entries, or this should really the correct and proper behavior. I spread out the database into different tables to be able to easily add new columns in the future.

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  • First could access the repository next cannot

    - by Banani
    Hi! I have configured svnserve (1.6.5,plain, without apache) on Fedora 12. I could ran the following svn subcommands which access the repository after configuration. Such as, commit, update,checkout, list. But, when next time ( after stopping,ctrl-c and then starting svnserve)I tried above commands, could not access the repository. This is happening both from local and remote machine. I ran svn and svnserve as below. 'svn commit svn://127.0.0.1/myrepository/' from local client. 'svnserve -d --foregorund --listen-port=3690 -r /path-to-repository/mypository/' To understand the problem better, I created another repository and found similar behavior . Frist I could access the repository and next I could not. I tried doing strace on svnserve, but don't uderstand much of it. Below is the partial output. accept(3, {sa_family=AF_INET, sin_port=htons(54425), sin_addr=inet_addr("127.0.0 .1")}, [16]) = 4 fcntl64(4, F_GETFD) = 0 fcntl64(4, F_SETFD, FD_CLOEXEC) = 0 waitpid(-1, 0xbfcdf31c, WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = -1 ECHILD (No child processes) clone(child_stack=0, flags=CLONE_CHILD_CLEARTID|CLONE_CHILD_SETTID|SIGCHLD, chil d_tidptr=0xb7743758) = 9737 close(4) = 0 accept(3, 0xbfcdf2bc, [128]) = ? ERESTARTSYS (To be restarted) --- SIGCHLD (Child exited) @ 0 (0) --- sigreturn() = ? (mask now []) waitpid(-1, [{WIFEXITED(s) && WEXITSTATUS(s) == 0}], WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = 9737 waitpid(-1, 0xbfcdf31c, WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = -1 ECHILD (No child processes) My question: Why user are not able to access the repository anymore? What information the strace output gives about this problem? Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. Banani

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  • problem when cloning jQuery UI datepicker

    - by h3
    I have a div in which there is a datepicker. I use something like this to clone it: mydiv = $('#someDiv'); // works fine so far mydiv.find('input.datefield').datepicker(); // clone without the events and insert newDiv = myDiv.clone(false).insertAfter(myDiv); // datepicker won't re-init if this class is present newDiv.find('.hadDatepicker').removeClass('hadDatepicker'); // reinitialize datepicker newDiv.find('input.datefield').datepicker(); This is a stripped down version of my code. It works and the calendar shows up as expected where it is expected .. but when a date is clicked, the previous datepicker's value gets updated.. (the one from which it was cloned). I've tried to destroy the (inexisting) instance before like this: newDiv.find('input.datefield').datepicker('destroy').datepicker(); No luck .. I've checked how it keeps track of instances and manually cleared the data like this: newDiv.find('input.datefield').data('datepicker', false).datepicker('destroy').datepicker(); Still no luck. What I don't understand is that only the date selection behavior is buggy, everything else works as expected. I really don't know what else to check now ..

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  • NetBeans parameter fill after code completion

    - by byte
    This is a particularly annoying problem I'm having, and I can't be the only one to have issue with it. In NetBeans, when you type part of a method, then hit CTRL-SPACE, it displays the code-completion popup, whereupon you can hit tab to finish out the word. This is great, and pretty much how all IDE's operate. Example: Thread.sl < CTRL-SPACE Thread.sleep Yay! Problem is that in this context, once you type in a paren, it auto-fills the parameters for the method with their default names, and inserts a closing paren (regardless of whether you have disabled the option to automatically close them on the preferences page for code completion). This behavior is NOT present if you had manually typed out the full name. How is this helpful to anyone? You've got to type over it your actual variable that you will be passing, and NetBeans gives you no option to prevent the closing paren on code-completion. Does anyone have a way to solve this issue, without having to dive into the netbeans source and build it just for this minor of an issue?

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  • Problem pushing multiple view controllers onto navigation controller stack

    - by Jim
    Hi, I am trying to push three view controllers onto the navigation controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:one animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:two animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:three animated:YES]; The desired behavior is that view three will show, and when the back button is pressed it will go to view two and then to view one... What actually happens is that view one is visible and pressing back goes to view two and then back again it goes to view one. Which is to say that view one is shown instead of view three. Very strangely, looking at the viewController array of the navigationController after the calls above show the right entries, and looking at the visibleViewController property shows that it has view three in it... even though view one is visible. If i navigate to a sub view from the visible view one (that shows in the place of view three) and press back from that sub view... it goes to view three. It looks like it is showing view one, but knows it is on view three... I am completely confused... any ideas? Jim

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  • Why are symbols not frozen strings?

    - by Alex Chaffee
    I understand the theoretical difference between Strings and Symbols. I understand that Symbols are meant to represent a concept or a name or an identifier or a label or a key, and Strings are a bag of characters. I understand that Strings are mutable and transient, where Symbols are immutable and permanent. I even like how Symbols look different from Strings in my text editor. What bothers me is that practically speaking, Symbols are so similar to Strings that the fact that they're not implemented as Strings causes a lot of headaches. They don't even support duck-typing or implicit coercion, unlike the other famous "the same but different" couple, Float and Fixnum. The mere existence of HashWithIndifferentAccess, and its rampant use in Rails and other frameworks, demonstrates that there's a problem here, an itch that needs to be scratched. Can anyone tell me a practical reason why Symbols should not be frozen Strings? Other than "because that's how it's always been done" (historical) or "because symbols are not strings" (begging the question). Consider the following astonishing behavior: :apple == "apple" #=> false, should be true :apple.hash == "apple".hash #=> false, should be true {apples: 10}["apples"] #=> nil, should be 10 {"apples" => 10}[:apples] #=> nil, should be 10 :apple.object_id == "apple".object_id #=> false, but that's actually fine All it would take to make the next generation of Rubyists less confused is this: class Symbol < String def initialize *args super self.freeze end (and a lot of other library-level hacking, but still, not too complicated) See also: http://onestepback.org/index.cgi/Tech/Ruby/SymbolsAreNotImmutableStrings.red http://www.randomhacks.net/articles/2007/01/20/13-ways-of-looking-at-a-ruby-symbol Why does my code break when using a hash symbol, instead of a hash string? Why use symbols as hash keys in Ruby? What are symbols and how do we use them? Ruby Symbols vs Strings in Hashes Can't get the hang of symbols in Ruby

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  • Have I found a security problem in an API or do I just not understand SSL?

    - by jamieb
    I'm working on building a set of Python bindings around an XML-based API provided by a vendor. The vendor requires that all transactions be conducted over SSL. Using a Linux box, I created a key file and a CSR for my application. Using their self-service web portal, I then generate a certificate using that CSR. Both the key file and the certificate are used when making the SSL request to the API. I'm now working on designing exception classes to make error messages more verbose (and, hopefully, more useful to developers using my bindings). Part of my testing has included altering the key file: transpose a couple characters here, replace 4 or 5 with random characters there, etc. To my surprise, altering the key file had no effect! As long as I didn't change the total length of it, the API didn't complain about a bad key file. The only way I was able to throw an error was by swapping in a completely different key from another application. At that point, the API complained about the Common Name not matching. Is this normal behavior or has the vendor not properly implemented SSL?

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  • WinForms programing - Modal and Non-Modal forms problem

    - by Povilas
    I have a problem with modality of the forms under C#.NET. Let's say I have main form #0 (see the image below). This form represents main application form, where user can perform various operations. However, from time to time, there is a need to open additional non-modal form to perform additional main application functionality supporting tasks. Let's say this is form #1 in the image. On this #1 form there might be opened few additional modal forms on top of each other (#2 form in the image), and at the end, there is a progress dialog showing a long operation progress and status, which might take from few minutes up to few hours. The problem is that the main form #0 is not responsive until you close all modal forms (#2 in the image). I need that the main form #0 would be operational in this situation. However, if you open a non-modal form in form #2, you can operate with both modal #2 form and newly created non modal form. I need the same behavior between the main form #0 and form #1 with all its child forms. Is it possible? Or am I doing something wrong? Maybe there is some kind of workaround, I really would not like to change all ShowDialog calls to ShowDialog...

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  • Trap SIGPIPE when trying to write without reader

    - by Matt
    I am trying to implement a named-pipe communication solution in BASH between two processes. The first process runs a script which echo something in a named-pipe: send(){ echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } And the second script is supposed to read the named-pipe via another script which contains: while true;do if read line < $NAMEDPIPE;do someCommands fi done Not that the named pipe has been previously created using the traditional command mkfifo $NAMEDPIPE My problem is that the reader script is not always running so that if the writer script try to write in the named-pipe it stay blocked until a reader connect the pipe. I want to avoid this behavior, and a solution would be to trap a SIGPIPE signal. Indeed, according to man 7 signal is supposed to be send when trying to write in a pipe with no reader. So I changed my red function by: read(){ trap 'echo "SIGPIPE received"' SIGPIPE echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } But when I run the reader script, the script stay blocked, and not "SIGPIPE received" appears... Am I mistaking on the signal mechanism or is there any better solution to my problem ? Thank you for your help.

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  • iPad keyboard will not dismiss if navigation controller presentation style is "form sheet".

    - by Kalle
    UPDATE: This is apparently "works as intended" classed by Apple. See accepted answer below for details. Update: this question is about a behavior discovered in the iPad keyboard, where it refuses to be dismissed if shown in a modal dialog with a navigation controller. Basically, if I present the navigation controller with the following line: navigationController.modalPresentationStyle = UIModalPresentationFormSheet; The keyboard refuses to be dismissed. If I comment out this line, the keyboard goes away fine. ... I've got two textFields, username and password; username has a Next button and password has a Done button. The keyboard won't go away if I present this in a modal navigation controller. WORKS broken *b = [[broken alloc] initWithNibName:@"broken" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview:b.view]; DOES NOT WORK broken *b = [[broken alloc] initWithNibName:@"broken" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:b]; navigationController.modalPresentationStyle = UIModalPresentationFormSheet; navigationController.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; [navigationController release]; [b release]; If I remove the navigation controller part and present 'b' as a modal view controller by itself, it works. Is the navigation controller the problem? WORKS broken *b = [[broken alloc] initWithNibName:@"broken" bundle:nil]; b.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:b animated:YES]; [b release]; WORKS broken *b = [[broken alloc] initWithNibName:@"broken" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:b]; [self presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; [navigationController release]; [b release];

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  • Calling a subclass method from a superclass

    - by Shaun
    Preface: This is in the context of a Rails application. The question, however, is specific to Ruby. Let's say I have a Media object. class Media < ActiveRecord::Base end I've extended it in a few subclasses: class Image < Media def show # logic end end class Video < Media def show # logic end end From within the Media class, I want to call the implementation of show from the proper subclass. So, from Media, if self is a Video, then it would call Video's show method. If self is instead an Image, it would call Image's show method. Coming from a Java background, the first thing that popped into my head was 'create an abstract method in the superclass'. However, I've read in several places (including Stack Overflow) that abstract methods aren't the best way to deal with this in Ruby. With that in mind, I started researching typecasting and discovered that this is also a relic of Java thinking that I need to banish from my mind when dealing with Ruby. Defeated, I started coding something that looked like this: def superclass_method # logic this_media = self.type.constantize.find(self.id) this_media.show end I've been coding in Ruby/Rails for a while now, but since this was my first time trying out this behavior and existing resources didn't answer my question directly, I wanted to get feedback from more-seasoned developers on how to accomplish my task. So, how can I call a subclass's implementation of a method from the superclass in Rails? Is there a better way than what I ended up (almost) implementing?

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  • String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

    - by Justin R.
    My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

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  • stop background of iphone webapp from responding to swipes

    - by JoeS
    I'm making a mobile version of my website, and trying to make it feel as native as possible on the iphone. However, any background areas of the page respond to swiping gestures such that you can shift the page partway off the screen. Specifically, if the user touches and swipes left, for example, the content shifts off the edge of the screen and one can see a gray background 'behind' the page. How can this be prevented? I'd like to have the page itself be 320x480 with scroll-swiping disabled (except on list elements that I choose). I have added the following meta tags to the top of the page: <meta name="viewport" content="width=320; height=480; initial-scale=1.0; maximum-scale=1.0; user-scalable=0;"/> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-capable" content="yes" /> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-status-bar-style" content="black" /> I've also tried the following as the event handler for the touchstart, touchmove, and touchend events of the body element: function cancelTouchEvent(e) { if (!e) var e = window.event; e.cancelBubble = true; if (e.stopPropagation) e.stopPropagation(); if (e.preventDefault) e.preventDefault(); return false; } It doesn't stop the swiping behavior, but does prevent clicks on all links on the page... Any help is much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Using PLINQ to calculate and update values within the enclosure does not work

    - by Keith
    I recently needed to do a running total on a report. Where for each group, I order the rows and then calculate the running total based on the previous rows within the group. Aha! I thought, a perfect use case for PLINQ! However, when I wrote up the code, I got some strange behavior. The values I was modifying showed as being modified when stepping through the debugger, but when they were accessed they were always zero. Sample Code: class Item { public int PortfolioID; public int TAAccountID; public DateTime TradeDate; public decimal Shares; public decimal RunningTotal; } List<Item> itemList = new List<Item> { new Item { PortfolioID = 1, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 1), Shares = 5.335m, }, new Item { PortfolioID = 1, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 2), Shares = -2.335m, }, new Item { PortfolioID = 2, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 1), Shares = 7.335m, }, new Item { PortfolioID = 2, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 2), Shares = -3.335m, }, }; var found = (from i in itemList where i.TAAccountID == 1 select new Item { TAAccountID = i.TAAccountID, PortfolioID = i.PortfolioID, Shares = i.Shares, TradeDate = i.TradeDate, RunningTotal = 0 }); found.AsParallel().ForAll(x => { var prevItems = found.Where(i => i.PortfolioID == x.PortfolioID && i.TAAccountID == x.TAAccountID && i.TradeDate <= x.TradeDate); x.RunningTotal = prevItems.Sum(s => s.Shares); }); foreach (Item i in found) { Console.WriteLine("Running total: {0}", i.RunningTotal); } Console.ReadLine(); If I change the select for found to be .ToArray(), then it works fine and I get calculated reuslts. Any ideas what I am doing wrong?

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  • What is the preferred way in C++ for converting a builtin type (int) to bool?

    - by Martin
    When programming with Visual C++, I think every developer is used to see the warning warning C4800: 'BOOL' : forcing value to bool 'true' or 'false' from time to time. The reason obviously is that BOOL is defined as int and directly assigning any of the built-in numerical types to bool is considered a bad idea. So my question is now, given any built-in numerical type (int, short, ...) that is to be interpreted as a boolean value, what is the/your preferred way of actually storing that value into a variable of type bool? Note: While mixing BOOL and bool is probably a bad idea, I think the problem will inevitably pop up whether on Windows or somewhere else, so I think this question is neither Visual-C++ nor Windows specific. Given int nBoolean; I prefer this style: bool b = nBoolean?true:false; The following might be alternatives: bool b = !!nBoolean; bool b = (nBoolean != 0); Is there a generally preferred way? Rationale? I should add: Since I only work with Visual-C++ I cannot really say if this is a VC++ specific question or if the same problem pops up with other compilers. So it would be interesting to specifically hear from g++ or users how they handle the int-bool case. Regarding Standard C++: As David Thornley notes in a comment, the C++ Standard does not require this behavior. In fact it seems to explicitly allow this, so one might consider this a VC++ weirdness. To quote the N3029 draft (which is what I have around atm.): 4.12 Boolean conversions [conv.bool] A prvalue of arithmetic, unscoped enumeration, pointer, or pointer to member type can be converted to a prvalue of type bool. A zero value, null pointer value, or null member pointer value is converted to false; any other value is converted to true. (...)

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  • Message driven bean not responding until client method is complete

    - by poijoi
    Hi, I have a MDB deployed on Jboss 4.2.2 and a client on the same server that produces messages and expects a reply from the MDB via a temporary queue created before the message is sent. When I run the client, I see that it creates the message, puts it in the queue and waits for the reply (no problem so far) ... but when I check in the logs I see that the timeout is reached and no response is received. When the timeout occurs and the client's method is complete the MDB starts processing the message that should have been processed the moment the client put it in the queue. As a consequence of this timing issue, when the MDB tries to reply to the temp queue, it fails since the client is already gone. If I run the same client from a remote server, I have no problem... The MDB picks up the message from the queue right away and the client receives its response right after the processing is complete. I'm using container managed transactions. I suspect it has something to do with that... I think the client's "send message/receive reply" might be all be considered a transaction before it commits to put the message in the queue... but I'm not sure if this is correct. If this is the case, why did I not see the same behavior from the remote client? is client managed transaction the default setting and that's what my remote server was using? Any idea how to fix this? Thanks in advance! PJ

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  • Creating a blocking Queue<T> in .NET?

    - by spoon16
    I have a scenario where I have multiple threads adding to a queue and multiple threads reading from the same queue. If the queue reaches a specific size all threads that are filling the queue will be blocked on add until an item is removed from the queue. The solution below is what I am using right now and my question is: How can this be improved? Is there an object that already enables this behavior in the BCL that I should be using? internal class BlockingCollection<T> : CollectionBase, IEnumerable { //todo: might be worth changing this into a proper QUEUE private AutoResetEvent _FullEvent = new AutoResetEvent(false); internal T this[int i] { get { return (T) List[i]; } } private int _MaxSize; internal int MaxSize { get { return _MaxSize; } set { _MaxSize = value; checkSize(); } } internal BlockingCollection(int maxSize) { MaxSize = maxSize; } internal void Add(T item) { Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("BlockingCollection add waiting: {0}", Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId)); _FullEvent.WaitOne(); List.Add(item); Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("BlockingCollection item added: {0}", Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId)); checkSize(); } internal void Remove(T item) { lock (List) { List.Remove(item); } Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("BlockingCollection item removed: {0}", Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId)); } protected override void OnRemoveComplete(int index, object value) { checkSize(); base.OnRemoveComplete(index, value); } internal new IEnumerator GetEnumerator() { return List.GetEnumerator(); } private void checkSize() { if (Count < MaxSize) { Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("BlockingCollection FullEvent set: {0}", Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId)); _FullEvent.Set(); } else { Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("BlockingCollection FullEvent reset: {0}", Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId)); _FullEvent.Reset(); } } }

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  • Reordering methods in ComImport interfaces throws COMException (0x80041001)

    - by Ohad Schneider
    Consider the following code for COM interop with internet shortcuts: [ComImport] [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] [Guid("CABB0DA0-DA57-11CF-9974-0020AFD79762")] public interface IUniformResourceLocatorW { void SetUrl([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] string pcszUrl, int dwInFlags); void GetUrl([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] out StringBuilder ppszUrl); void InvokeCommand(IntPtr purlici); } [ComImport] [Guid("FBF23B40-E3F0-101B-8488-00AA003E56F8")] public class InternetShortcut { } The following works as expected: var ishort = new InternetShortcut(); ((IPersistFile)ishort).Load("MyLink.url", 0); ((IUniformResourceLocatorW)ishort).GetUrl(out url); However: If I comment out IUniformResourceLocatorW.SetUrl (which I am not using), IUniformResourceLocatorW.GetUrl throws a COMException (HResult 0x80041001). If I switch between IUniformResourceLocatorW.SetUrl and IUniformResourceLocatorW.GetUrl (that is place the former below the latter) the same exception is thrown If I comment out IUniformResourceLocatorW.InvokeCommand the code runs fine. It's as if the order has to be preserved "up to" the invoked method. Is this behavior by design? documented somewhere? I'm asking because some COM interfaces are composed of many methods with possibly many supporting types and I'd rather avoid defining what I don't need if possible.

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  • SQL Server performance issue.

    - by Jit
    Hi Friends, I have been trying to analyze performance issue with SQL Server 2005. We have 30 jobs, one for each databases (30 databases, one per each client). The jobs run at early morning at an interval of 5 minutes. When I run the job individually for testing, for most of the databases it finishes in 7 to 9 minutes. But when these jobs run at early morning, I see few jobs taking 2 to 3 hours to finish and the same takes few minutes as mentioned above if ran independently. We dont have any other job scheduled during that time, other than these 30 jobs. If we restart the server then for 2 or so days all the jobs finishes in few minutes, but over the period of time (from 3rd day suddenly), few jobs start taking hours to finish. What could be the possible reason of performance degradation over the period of time? I verified all the SPs and we uses temp tables and I made sure none of the temp table is left without dropping at the end of SP. Let me know what are the possible reasons for such behavior. Appreciate your time and help. Thanks

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  • PHP array value becomes blank. What is going on?

    - by Michael Bruce
    I have written a web page that works fine expect for some weird behavior. The code below gets all expected values and populates them correctly except for $v-data["quick_phone_id"] and $v-data["quick_email_id"] which are integers. Those values come out blank in the string I am creating. The value for $v-data["id"] is another integer and works as expected. My only clue is that when I uncomment the commented out line, the code works properly. So I'm guessing this has to do with referencing getting broken for the array. Any ideas? I'd like to fix my code and my PHP knowledge. $contacts = ContactInfo::loadMyContacts($userId); $sb = new StringBuilder(); $idx = 0; //$vals = "vals: ".$contacts[0]->data["quick_phone_id"]; $sb->append(' dataRows = ['); foreach($contacts as $k => $v) { $sb->append('{ id:"'.strval($v->data["id"]).'",'); $sb->append('url:"edit_contact.php?id='.$v->data["id"].'",'); $sb->append('gname:"'.$v->data["given_name"].'",'); $sb->append('fname:"'.$v->data["family_name"].'",'); $sb->append('phone1id2:"'.strval($v->data["quick_phone_id"]).'",'); $sb->append('phone1type:"'.$v->data["quick_phone_type"].'",'); $sb->append('phone1:"'.$v->data["quick_phone"].'",'); $sb->append("email1id2:'".strval($v->data["quick_email_id"])."',"); $sb->append('email1type:"'.$v->data["quick_email_type"].'",'); $sb->append("email1:'".$v->data["quick_email"]."',"); $sb->append("dirty:false },\n"); } $sb->append('];');

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  • TextBox change is not saved to DataTable

    - by SeaDrive
    I'm having trouble with a simple table edit in a Winform application. I must have missed a step. I have a DataSet containing a DataTable connected to a database with a SqlDataAdapter. There is a SqlCommandBuilder on the SqlDataAdapter. On the form, there are TextBoxes which are bound to the DataTable. The binding was done in the Designer and it machine-produced statements like this: this.tbLast.DataBindings.Add(new System.Windows.Forms.Binding("Text", this.belkData, "belk_mem.last", true)); When I fill the row in the DataTable, the values from the database appear in the textboxes, but when I change contents of the TextBox, the changes are apparently not being going to the DataTable. When I try to save change both of the following return null: DataTable dtChanges = dtMem.GetChanges(); DataSet dsChanges = belkData.GetChanges(); What did I forget? Edit - response to mrlucmorin: The save is under a button. Code is: BindingContext[belkData, "belk_mem"].EndCurrentEdit(); try { DataSet dsChanges = belkData.GetChanges(); if (dsChanges != null) { int nRows = sdaMem.Update(dsChanges); MessageBox.Show("Row(s) Updated: " + nRows.ToString()); belkData.AcceptChanges(); } else { MessageBox.Show("Nothing to save.", "No changes"); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("Error: " + ex.Message); } I've tried putting in these statements without any change in behavior: dtMem.AcceptChanges(); belkData.AcceptChanges();

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  • Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

    - by Kent Boogaart
    I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

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  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

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  • spring.net proxy factory with target type needs property virtual ?

    - by Vince
    Hi all, I'm creating spring.net proxy in code by using ProxyFactory object with ProxyTargetType to true to have a proxy on a non interfaced complex object. Proxying seems ok till i call a method on that object. The method references a public property and if this property is not virtual it's value is null. This doesn't happen if i use Spring.Aop.Framework.AutoProxy.InheritanceBasedAopConfigurer in spring config file but in this case i can't use this because spring context doesn't own this object. Is this normal to have such behavior or is there a tweak to perform what i want (proxying object virtual method without having to change properties virtual)? Note that i tried factory.AutoDetectInterfaces and factory.ProxyTargetAttributes values but doesn't help. My proxy creation code: public static T CreateMethodCallStatProxy<T>() { // Proxy factory ProxyFactory factory = new ProxyFactory(); factory.AddAdvice(new CallMonitorTrackerAdvice()); factory.ProxyTargetType = true; // Create instance factory.Target = Activator.CreateInstance<T>(); // Get proxy T proxiedClass = (T)factory.GetProxy(); return proxiedClass; } Thanks for your help

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  • VS2010: Why do my custom Toolbox tabs and contained controls keep disappearing?

    - by Velika2
    This is how I expected the toolbox to work: Let's say I add a custom Tab to the Toolbox called "Ajaxtoolkit." To add controls to the new tab, I right mouse click and select "Choose Items" and browse to a file, Ajaxtoolkit.dll, that is of a particular version number. I would expect that when I save and reopen the solution, that the Ajax Toolkit custom tab would still be in my Toolbox and that it would contain the same controls that were there last time, the controls that were in the dll that I referenced when the controls were added. If I created a brand new web app, I (possibly) wouldn't expect to see the same Ajax Toolkit custom tab. However, I could perform the same steps as above and add a "Ajax Toolkit" tab and perhaps, this time, select a DIFFERENT VERSION of the tookit, and the state of the toolkit would be retained with each solution file. Another possibility would be for the original Ajaxtoolkit to be retained when the 2nd web solution is created, and perhaps, if I wanted to mix versions of the toolkit across diffreent web sites in my solution, I should start naming my custom toolkit tabs with version specific names like "Ajaxtoolkit 4.0," etc. ...But instead, the Ajaxtoolkit tab disappears when I close VS2010 and reopen it. Why? Is this desirable behavior or a bug?

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