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  • How can I get git to work with a remote server?

    - by Adrienne
    I am the CM person for a small company that just started using Git. We have two Git repositories currently hosted on a Windows box that is our all-purpose Windows server. But, we just set up a dedicated server for our CM software on an Ubuntu Linux server named "Callisto". So I created a test Git repository on Callisto. I gave its directory all of the proper permissions recursively. I had the sysadmin create a login for me on Callisto, and I created a key to use for logging in via SSH. I set up my key to use a passphrase; I don't know if that could be contributing to my problems? Anyway, I know my SSH login works because I tested it through puTTY. But, even after hours of trials and head scratching, I can't get my Windows Git bash (mSysGit) to talk to Callisto for the purposes of pushing or pulling Callisto's git repository files. I keep getting "Fatal error. The remote end hung up unexpectedly." And I've even gotten the error that Git doesn't recognize the test repository on Callisto as a git repository. I read online that the "Fatal error...hung up unexpectedly" is usually a problem with the server connection or permissions. So what am I missing or overlooking here? And why doesn't a pull using the git:// protocol work, since that only uses read-only access? Group and public permissions for the git repository's directory on Callisto are set to read and execute, but not write. If anyone could help, I would be so grateful. Thank you.

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  • how do I best create a set of list classes to match my business objects

    - by ken-forslund
    I'm a bit fuzzy on the best way to solve the problem of needing a list for each of my business objects that implements some overridden functions. Here's the setup: I have a baseObject that sets up database, and has its proper Dispose() method All my other business objects inherit from it, and if necessary, override Dispose() Some of these classes also contain arrays (lists) of other objects. So I create a class that holds a List of these. I'm aware I could just use the generic List, but that doesn't let me add extra features like Dispose() so it will loop through and clean up. So if I had objects called User, Project and Schedule, I would create UserList, ProjectList, ScheduleList. In the past, I have simply had these inherit from List< with the appropriate class named and then written the pile of common functions I wanted it to have, like Dispose(). this meant I would verify by hand, that each of these List classes had the same set of methods. Some of these classes had pretty simple versions of these methods that could have been inherited from a base list class. I could write an interface, to force me to ensure that each of my List classes has the same functions, but interfaces don't let me write common base functions that SOME of the lists might override. I had tried to write a baseObjectList that inherited from List, and then make my other Lists inherit from that, but there are issues with that (which is really why I came here). One of which was trying to use the Find() method with a predicate. I've simplified the problem down to just a discussion of Dispose() method on the list that loops through and disposes its contents, but in reality, I have several other common functions that I want all my lists to have. What's the best practice to solve this organizational matter?

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  • Protecting my apps security from deassembling

    - by sandis
    So I recently tested deassembling one of my android apps, and to my horror I discovered that the code was quite readable. Even worse, all my variable names where intact! I thought that those would be compressed to something unreadable at compile time. The app is triggered to expire after a certain time. However, now it was trivial for me to find my function named checkIfExpired() and find the variable "expired". Is there any good way of making it harder for a potential hacker messing with my app? Before someone states the obvious: Yes, it is security through obscurity. But obviously this is my only option since the user always will have access to all my code. This is the same for all apps. The details of my deactivation-thingy is unimportant, the point is that I dont want deassembler to understand some of the things I do. side questions: Why are the variable names not compressed? Could it be the case that my program would run faster if I stopped using really long variable names, as are my habit?

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  • Need help getting Wysihat to work

    - by slythic
    Hi all, I'm using Wysihat in a rails project and am stumped by it's inability to bind to my textarea named post_description (model name Post field name description). I have the following in my head tag: <%= javascript_include_tag 'prototype_1.7'%> <%= javascript_include_tag 'wysihat' %> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> document.on("dom:loaded", function() { var editor = WysiHat.Editor.attach('post_description'); var toolbar = new WysiHat.Toolbar(editor); toolbar.addButtonSet(WysiHat.Toolbar.ButtonSets.Basic); // Hide our error message if the editor loads fine $('error').hide(); }); </script> I'm able to see Wysihat works (the bold, italic, and underline tools are shown and when click works as intended). The following in the source of the posts/new HTML: <div id="post_description_editor" class="editor" contenteditable="true"></div> <textarea cols="40" id="post_description" name="post[description]" rows="20" style="display: none; "></textarea> However, when I type something in the description field and click submit the post validation fails saying the description field is empty. Anyone have any clue on how I can get this to work? Thanks in advance!

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  • Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

    - by TrueWill
    We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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  • CREATE VIEW called multiple times not creating all views

    - by theninepoundhammer
    Noticing strange behavior in SQL 2005, both Express and Enterprise Edition: In my code I need to loop through a series of values (about five in a row), and for each value, I need to insert the value into a table and dynamically create a new view using that value as part of the where clause and the name of the view. The code runs pretty quickly, but what I'm noticing is that all the values are inserted into the table correctly but only the LAST view is being created. Every time. For example, if the values I'm using are X1, X2, X3, X4, and X5, I'll run the process, open up Mgmt Studio, and see five rows in the table with the correct five values, but only one view named MyView_x5 that has the correct WHERE clause. At first, I had this loop in an SSIS package as part of a larger data flow. When I started noticing this behavior, I created a stored proc that would create the CREATE VIEW statement dynamically after the insert and called EXECUTE to create the view. Same result. Finally, I created some C# code using the Enterprise Library DAAB, and did the insert and CREATE VIEW statements from my DLL. Same result every time. Most recently, I turned on Profiler while running against the Enterprise Edition and was able to verify that the Batch Started and Batch Completed events were being fired off for each instance of the view. However, like I said, only the last view is actually being created. Does anyone have any idea why this might be happening? Or any suggestions about what else to check or profile? I've profiled for error messages, exceptions, etc. but don't see any in my trace file. My express edition is 9.00.1399.06. Not sure about the Enterprise edition but think it is SP2.

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  • Sql Server 2005 multiple insert with c#

    - by bottlenecked
    Hello. I have a class named Entry declared like this: class Entry{ string Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} } and then a method that will accept multiple such Entry objects for insertion into the database using ADO.NET: static void InsertEntries(IEnumerable<Entry> entries){ //build a SqlCommand object using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()){ ... const string refcmdText = "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id{0},@name{0});"; int count = 0; string query = string.Empty; //build a large query foreach(var entry in entries){ query += string.Format(refcmdText, count); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@id{0}",count), entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@name{0}",count), entry.Name); count++; } cmd.CommandText=query; //and then execute the command ... } } And my question is this: should I keep using the above way of sending multiple insert statements (build a giant string of insert statements and their parameters and send it over the network), or should I keep an open connection and send a single insert statement for each Entry like this: using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(){ using(SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(){ //assign connection string and open connection ... cmd.Connection = conn; foreach(var entry in entries){ cmd.CommandText= "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id,@name);"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@name", entry.Name); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } } What do you think? Will there be a performance difference in the Sql Server between the two? Are there any other consequences I should be aware of? Thank you for your time!

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  • GWT with JPA - no persistence provider...

    - by meliniak
    GWT with JPA There are two projects in my eclipse workspace, let's name them: -JPAProject -GWTProject JPAProject contains JPA configuration stuff (persistence.xml, entity classes and so on). GWTProject is an examplary GWT project (taken from official GWT tutorial). Both projects work fine alone. That is, I can create EMF (EntityManagerFactory) in JPAProject and get entities from the database. GWTProject works fine too, I can run it, fill the field text in the browser and get the response. My goal is to call JPAProject from GWTProject to get entities. But the problem is that when calling DAO, I get the following exception: [WARN] Server class 'com.emergit.service.dao.profile.ProfileDaoService' could not be found in the web app, but was found on the system classpath [WARN] Adding classpath entry 'file:/home/maliniak/workspace/emergit/build/classes/' to the web app classpath for this session [WARN] /gwttest/greet javax.persistence.PersistenceException: No Persistence provider for EntityManager named emergitPU at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Unknown Source) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Unknown Source) at com.emergit.service.dao.profile.JpaProfileDaoService.<init>(JpaProfileDaoService.java:19) at pl.maliniak.server.GreetingServiceImpl.<init>(GreetingServiceImpl.java:21) . . . at org.mortbay.jetty.HttpConnection.handle(HttpConnection.java:380) at org.mortbay.io.nio.SelectChannelEndPoint.run(SelectChannelEndPoint.java:395) at org.mortbay.thread.QueuedThreadPool$PoolThread.run(QueuedThreadPool.java:488) [ERROR] 500 - POST /gwttest/greet (127.0.0.1) 3812 bytes I guess that the warnings at the beginning can be omitted for now. Do you have any ideas? I guess I am missing some basic point. All hints are highly apprecieable.

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Why does a Silverlight application show a blank browser screen when created from exported template?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I created a silverlight app (without website) named TestApp, with one TextBox: <UserControl x:Class="TestApp.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="640" d:DesignHeight="480"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <TextBlock Text="this is a test"/> </Grid> </UserControl> I press F5 and see "this is a test" in my browser (firefox). I select File | Export Template | name it TestAppTemplate and save it. I create a new silverlight app based on the above template. The MainPage.xaml has the exact same XAML as above. I press F5 and see a blank screen in my browser. I look at the HTML source of both of these and they are identical. Everything I have compared in both projects is identical. What do I have to do so that a Silverlight application which is created from my exported template does not show a blank screen? (creating a WPF application from an exported template like this works fine)

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  • Jquery tabs with cookie support restore wrong tab position after page refresh.

    - by zenonych
    Hello, all. I have tricky problem which I can't completely understand... It's jquery tabs with cookie support. I've following code: $(document).ready(function() { var $tabs = $("#tabs").tabs(); $tabs.tabs('select', $.cookie("tabNumber")); $('#tabs ul li a').click(function() { $.cookie("tabNumber", $tabs.tabs('option', 'selected')); }); $('#btnSelect').click(function() { //alert($.cookie("tabNumber")); //$tabs.tabs('select', 2); $tabs.tabs('select', $.cookie("tabNumber")); }); }); So, I've 3 tabs (with positions 0,1,2) inside div named "tabs". When user selects one tab, then tab position stores in cookie. After that if user refresh page, active tab position must be restored. But each time I refresh page I get active tab in previous position (if I select 2nd tab, then after refresh I got active tab in position 1, etc.). I add some test in code (button btnSelect with onclick handler which duplicates load position functionality). So, if I uncomment and use $tabs.tabs('select', 2); Then after I click btnSelect I've got right position. Ok, that's right. Then I comment that line and uncomment next one: alert($.cookie("tabNumber")); So, I select tab, click button, get dialog message "2", and after that tab in position 1 became active. Why?? In both cases I call 'select' method with parameter 2... I know I can use aliases for tabs, but I want to understate why my code doesn't work properly.

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  • Two "Calendar" entries listed on iPad - can't write to calendar using EventKit

    - by Neal
    My iOS app integrates with the device's calendar. On my iPad when I view the calendar app and tap the Calendars button on the top left to choose which calendars to show I see one entry named "Calendar". In my app when I loop through available calendars per the code below "Calendar" is listed twice. One is CalDAV for the type, the other is Local. I'm unable to create calendar entries in one of them, I believe the "Local" one, not sure why. Why do I see "Calendar" listed twice when I do NOT see it listed twice in the iCal app? public static List<string> Calendars { get { var calendars = new List<string>(); var ekCalendars = EventStore.Calendars; if (ekCalendars != null && ekCalendars.Length > 0) { foreach (EKCalendar cal in ekCalendars) { if (cal.AllowsContentModifications) calendars.Add(cal.Title); } calendars.Sort(); } return calendars; } }

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  • CakePHP Observe field for validation check(already exists)

    - by deck john
    i have already user observe field in cakephp 1.3 Now i want to do the same thing in cakephp 2.0 I have one form.there is a one field named email. When user insert email. onblur there is a popup one message that displays "email already exists" or "right" for that i have write below code in my projects. the below code is my add file code <?php $options = array('url' => array( 'controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'is_exist'), 'update' => 'email_exist'); echo $this->ajax->observeField('UserEmailId',array('url' => array( 'controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'is_exist'), 'update' => 'email_exists')); ?> In my controller i have created one function like public function is_exist($id = null) { $result = "yes"; $this->set('existdata',$result); } i have also created is_exists.ctp fiel in view/uers. i dont know why its not working. i did the same thing in Cakephp 1.3 and its working file but not in cakephp 2.0 can anyone tell me how i implement this ? thanks in advance

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  • How to check at runtime if a class implements certain interface?

    - by mare
    Let's say I have some content classes like Page, TabGroup, Tab, etc. Certain of those will be implementing my IWidgetContainer interface - it means they will geet an additional field named ContainedItems from the interface and some methods for manipulating this field. Now I need to reflect the fact that some class implements this interface by rendering out some special custom controls in my ASP.NET MVC Views (like jQuery Add/Remove/Move/Reorder buttons). For instance, TabGroup will implement IWidgetContainer because it will contain tabs but a tab will not implement it because it won't have the ability to contain anything. So I have to somehow check in my view, when I render my content objects (The problem is, I use my base class as strong type in my view not concrete classes), whether it implements IWidgetContainer. How is that possible or have I completely missed something? To rephrase the question, how do you reflect some special properties of a class (like interface implementation) in the UI in general (not necessarily ASP.NET MVC)? Here's my code so far: [DataContract] public class ContentClass { [DataMember] public string Slug; [DataMember] public string Title; [DataMember] protected ContentType Type; } [DataContract] public class Group : ContentClass, IWidgetContainer { public Group() { Type = ContentType.TabGroup; } public ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } public void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } [DataContract] public class GroupElement : ContentClass { public GroupElement() { Type = ContentType.Tab; } } Interface: interface IWidgetContainer { [DataMember] ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd); void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove); }

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  • RewriteRule to store thousands of files in subdirectories

    - by Brandon
    I have a website that will have millions of pages in a directory. I'd like to store those files on-disk in a bunch of subdirectories based on the first characters of the page name. For example http://mysite.com/hugedir/somefile.html would be stored in /var/www/html/hugedir/s/o/m/e/f/ile.html That is fairly trivial to do with a RewriteRule like so: RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}/$6.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}.html However, the file name may contain hyphens or other non-standard characters and I'd really like to avoid having a directory named with a strange character. Ideally, I'd like to have a list of 'approved' characters and either eliminate or transform the unapproved characters to an underscore. Can anybody think of a way to do that? Or something else equivalent? Part of the requirement is that these be physical files on disk and it not be parsed with a scripting language.

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  • Make a <div> disappear inside a javascript script

    - by KeenClock
    First of all, I have this line of code on a random page : <script type="text/javascript" src="script.php"></script> On the page named "script.php", I have a <div class="something">random text</div> and the random text is displayed and everything is working fine. Now, I would like to know if it's possible to make that specific <div> to disappear without having to modify the code inside the "script.php" page. Thank you ! Edit: Thank you to all of you, you helped me found a solution, here is an example : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="fr" lang="fr"><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Random page</title> <style type="text/css"> div.something { font-family: Tahoma; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: underline; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function hideSomething() { document.getElementsByClassName("something")[2].style.display = "none"; } </script> </head> <body> <div class="something">random text 1</div> <div class="something">random text 2</div> <div class="something">random text 3</div> <br /><input type="submit" value="Disappear" onclick="hideSomething()" /> </body> </html>

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  • XCode enum woes

    - by Raconteur
    Hi gang, I thought I had this sorted, but I am still missing something. Very simply, I have a Settings class that hold a DAO (sitting on a plist). I want to have a couple of enums for the settings for convenience and readability, such as GamePlayType and DifficultyLevel. Right now I am defining them in the Settings.h file above the @interface line as such: typedef enum { EASY, NORMAL, HARD } DifficultyLevel; and typedef enum { SET_NUMBER_OF_MOVES, TO_COMPLETION } GamePlayType; If I access them from within the Settings class like: - (int)gridSizeForLOD { switch ([self difficultyLevel]) { case EASY: return GRID_SIZE_EASY; case NORMAL: return GRID_SIZE_NORMAL; case HARD: return GRID_SIZE_HARD; default: return GRID_SIZE_NORMAL; } } everything is fine. But, if I try to access them outside of the Settings class, let's say in my main view controller class, like this: if (([settings gameType] == SET_NUMBER_OF_MOVES) && (numMoves == [settings numMovesForLOD])) { [self showLoseScreen]; } I get errors (like EXC_BAD_ACCESS) or the condition always fails. Am I doing something incorrectly? Also, I should point out that I have this code for the call to gameType (which lives in the Settings class): - (GamePlayType)gameType { return [dao gameType]; } and the DAO implements gameType like this: - (int)gameType { return (settingsContent != nil) ? [[settingsContent objectForKey:@"Game Type"] intValue] : 0; } I know I have the DAO returning an int instead of a GamePlayType, but A) the problem I am describing arose there when I tried to use the "proper" data type, and B) I did not think it would matter since the enum is just a bunch of named ints, right? Any help, greatly appreciated. I really want to understand this thoroughly, and something is eluding me... Cheers, Chris

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  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

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  • Accessing vars from another clojure namespace?

    - by erikcw
    In my main namespace, I have a top level var named "settings" which is initialized as an empty {}. My -main fn sets the contents of settings using def and conj based on some command line args (different database hosts for production/development, etc). I'm trying to access the contents of this map from another namespace to pull out some of the settings. When I try to compile with lein into an uberjar, I get a traceback saying "No such var: lb/settings". What am I missing? Is there a more idiomatic way to handle app wide settings such as these? Is it safe to use "def" inside of -main like I am, or should I be use an atom or ref to make this threadsafe? Thanks! (ns main (:use ...) (:gen-class)) (def settings {}) (defn -main [& args] (with-command-line-args... ;set devel? based on args (if (true? devel?) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "127.0.0.1"} :memcached {:host "127.0.0.1"}})) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"} :memcached {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"}}))) ;file2.clj (ns some-other-namespace (:require [main :as lb] ...) ;configure MongoDB (congo/mongo! :db "dbname" :host (:host (mongodb lb/settings)))) ...

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  • Proper API Design for Version Independence?

    - by Justavian
    I've inherited an enormous .NET solution of about 200 projects. There are now some developers who wish to start adding their own components into our application, which will require that we begin exposing functionality via an API. The major problem with that, of course, is that the solution we've got on our hands contains such a spider web of dependencies that we have to be careful to avoid sabotaging the API every time there's a minor change somewhere in the app. We'd also like to be able to incrementally expose new functionality without destroying any previous third party apps. I have a way to solve this problem, but i'm not sure it's the ideal way - i was looking for other ideas. My plan would be to essentially have three dlls. APIServer_1_0.dll - this would be the dll with all of the dependencies. APIClient_1_0.dll - this would be the dll our developers would actual refer to. No references to any of the mess in our solution. APISupport_1_0.dll - this would contain the interfaces which would allow the client piece to dynamically load the "server" component and perform whatever functions are required. Both of the above dlls would depend upon this. It would be the only dll that the "client" piece refers to. I initially arrived at this design, because the way in which we do inter process communication between windows services is sort of similar (except that the client talks to the server via named pipes, rather than dynamically loading dlls). While i'm fairly certain i can make this work, i'm curious to know if there are better ways to accomplish the same task.

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  • Dealing with image upload on server

    - by user1073320
    I have got a the following problem: I have got multi-step form where in one step user upload image to server and then few steps further supplies other information, when this information is invalid no data should be commited - also the image should be deleted. I was thinking about PHP session, but I've read here PHP - Store Images in SESSION data? that it is inefficient way. Every time you proceed step in the form the image is reloaded (in the session) and as somebody mentioned "You will want it to only be as big as it needs to be and you need to delete it as soon as you don't need it because large pieces of information in the session will slow down the session startup." - here i got a question: will it slow down the stratup the session of user who upload file or sessions of all users? I have to mention that I'm looking for solution that doesn't rely on operating system scripts (cron or etc) - I have no permission to run such scripts. The perfect solution for me would be: saving image on disk (for example in some folder named after session id) then after the latest step of form move this image or delete depending on form validation. If user unexpectedly destroy the session (for example closing the browser) of course the folder with image should be deleted. In nutshell I need somethig like callback to event "destroying session".

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  • Member function overloading/template specialization issue

    - by Ferruccio
    I've been trying to call the overloaded table::scan_index(std::string, ...) member function without success. For the sake of clarity, I have stripped out all non-relevant code. I have a class called table which has an overloaded/templated member function named scan_index() in order to handle strings as a special case. class table : boost::noncopyable { public: template <typename T> void scan_index(T val, std::function<bool (uint recno, T val)> callback) { // code } void scan_index(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code } }; Then there is a hitlist class which has a number of templated member functions which call table::scan_index(T, ...) class hitlist { public: template <typename T> void eq(uint fieldno, T value) { table* index_table = db.get_index_table(fieldno); // code index_table->scan_index<T>(value, [&](uint recno, T n)->bool { // code }); } }; And, finally, the code which kicks it all off: hitlist hl; // code hl.eq<std::string>(*fieldno, p1.to_string()); The problem is that instead of calling table::scan_index(std::string, ...), it calls the templated version. I have tried using both overloading (as shown above) and a specialized function template (below), but nothing seems to work. After staring at this code for a few hours, I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas? template <> void scan_index<std::string>(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code }

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • What are these stray zero-byte files extracted from tarball? (OSX)

    - by Scott M
    I'm extracting a folder from a tarball, and I see these zero-byte files showing up in the result (where they are not in the source.) Setup (all on OS X): On machine one, I have a directory /My/Stuff/Goes/Here/ containing several hundred files. I build it like this tar -cZf mystuff.tgz /My/Stuff/Goes/Here/ On machine two, I scp the tgz file to my local directory, then unpack it. tar -xZf mystuff.tgz It creates ~scott/My/Stuff/Goes/, but then under Goes, I see two files: Here/ - a directory, Here.bGd - a zero byte file. The "Here.bGd" zero-byte file has a random 3-character suffix, mixed upper and lower-case characters. It has the same name as the lowest-level directory mentioned in the tar-creation command. It only appears at the lowest level directory named. Anybody know where these come from, and how I can adjust my tar creation to get rid of them? Update: I checked the table of contents on the files using tar tZvf: toc does not list the zero-byte files, so I'm leaning toward the suggestion that the uncompress machine is at fault. OS X is version 10.5.5 on the unzip machine (not sure how to check the filesystem type). Tar is GNU tar 1.15.1, and it came with the machine.

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  • Problem: Movie Clip contains just one frame

    - by Doug
    I'm a newbie at Flash, so started playing with a pretty standard code sample: one layer contains a movie clip with a flying rectangle, another layer has a button to control it. All script code is in Main.as file. The rectangle was named square1 through the Property window. Here is the problem: the constructor for Main has a line: square1.stop(); to prevent clip from playing, but it doesn't help - it plays. I know the constructor fires, because it has trace("stuff") in it. The code does check that the stage has been created. What strange is that square1.currentFrame always returns 1, and square1.totalFrames returns 1 as well. The layer has 24 frames on the timeline. I tried a tween with just 2 keyframes, then converted whole tween into frames - same result. I mean, the thing is flying before my eyes, how can it be 1 frame??? I even added a listener: square1.addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, onFrameChange); The event fires all the time, i.e. the frames change, but currentFrame is still 1. Also, tried to name individual frames and use square1.gotoAndStop("begin") and stuff like that. Nothing helps. I am really stuck with this stupid problem.

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