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  • JPA + EJB + JSF: how can design complicated query

    - by Harry Pham
    I am using netbean 6.8 btw. Let say that I have 4 different tables: Company, Facility, Project, and Document. So the relationship is this. A company can have multiple facilities. A facility can have multiple projects, and a project can have multiple documents. Company: +companyNum: PK +facilityNum: FK Facility: +facilityNum: PK +projectNum: FK Project: +projectNum: PK +drawingNum: FK So when I create Entity Class From Database in netbean 6.8, I have 4 entity classes that named after the above 4 tables. So if I want to see all the Document in the database, then it is easy. In my SessionBean, I would do this: @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; List<Document> documents = em.createNamedQuery("Document.findAll").getResultList(); However, that is not all what I need. Let say that I want to know all the Document from a particular Company, or all the Document from a particular Project from a particular Facility from a particular Company. I am very new to JPA + EJB + JSF as a whole. Please help me out.

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  • How to insert <li> element on <ul> using pure javascript

    - by Damiii
    I am having an issue with javascript and i don't know how to solve it ... Actually my code is working good with jsfiddle, but when i try to insert on my HTML page ,it simply doesnt work anymore ... What i want to, is to add the < li on < ul each time i tried to hit the button named "Add" ! HTML code: .... <td width="50%" valign="top"> <b> SUPER: </b> <ul id="ul"> </ul> </td> .... <input type="submit" value="Add" onclick="add()"/> .... JavaScript code: <script type="text/javascript"> function add(){ var ul = document.getElementById("ul"); var li = document.createElement("li"); li.innerHTML = "LoL"; ul.appendChild(li); } </script> The result with that code : it doesn't add anything on my HTML page when i try to hit the button... Thankfully,

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  • Programmatically Update UITableView in Response to Button Press

    - by Kyle Begeman
    I have a completely custom view that holds a UITableView and a Custom Tab Bar (basically a UIView that contains 6 UIButtons). I am loading data from a plist file, and then I am sorting the data into multiple arrays based on categories (an array for misc items, and array for mail items, etc.) Each button in the tab bar represents a category, and when I press the button I call the custom function "miscSelected" and so on. How can I have the table view completely reload and then display the tableview based on the array selected (select the misc category and the tableview clears itself and loads the misc array data, same for any other category)? The method I have experimented with is created and NSString named "selection" and then in each button function I set selected to equal whatever section I am selecting. In my cellForRoxAtIndexPath method I have this: if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"All Items"]) { NSArray *mainDataArray = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; NSSortDescriptor *brandDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [NSArray arrayWithObject:brandDescriptor]; self.sortedData = [mainDataArray sortedArrayUsingDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; } else if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"Misc Items"]){ self.sortedData = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; } cell.itemTitle.text = [[self.sortedData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; For the sake of example and testing I am simply displaying the same data, just one button displays it in alphabetical order and the other does not. This code works only when I start to scroll down and back up, but it does not actually update on button press. Calling myTable reloadData does not do anything either. Any help would be great, thanks!

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • Exemplars of large document-centric applications with COM/XPCOM/.NET interfaces.

    - by Warren P
    I am looking for exemplars (design examples) showing the use of interfaces (aka 'protocols' for you smalltalkers) to design a document management architecture in a large Word Processor, Spreadsheet, vector graphic or publishing package, or office-productivity (non-database) application with support for as many of the following as possible: any open source project, will be ideal, and language of implementation is unimportant since I am looking for design examples, however an object oriented language with support for "interfaces" is a must. I know at least a dozen languages, and I'm willing to study any application's source. use of "interface" could loosely be applied to either XPCOM or COM interfaces, or .NET interfaces, or even the use of pure-virtual (virtual+abstract) base-classes for OOP languages that lack the ability to declare an interface distinct from a class. I am mostly looking for a robust, thorough and flexible implementation for a document, IDocument, various document views (IDocumentView), and whatever operations make sense in that case. I am particular interested in cases where the product in question is a real-world product. For example, if anybody familiar with OpenOffice can tell me if the code contains a good sample design. I am looking for design documentation that outlines the design of the interfaces for such an application. So for example, if the openoffice spreadsheet has such an interface design, then that might be the best case, because it is a widely used real-world design, with millions of users, rather than a textbook example, which is minimal, and contrived. I know that the Mozilla platform uses XPCOM, and its design is heavily "interface" oriented, but I am looking more for a "word processor" or "spreadsheet" type of document design, rather than a web-browser. I am particularly interested in the interfaces used to access to data and meta-data such as markup (attributes like bold, and italics, and font size), and the ability to search and look up named entities within a document.

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  • Why is Excel's 'Evaluate' method a general expression evaluator?

    - by jtolle
    A few questions have come up recently involving the Application.Evaluate method callable from Excel VBA. The old XLM macro language also exposes an EVALUATE() function. Both can be quite useful. Does anyone know why the evaluator that is exposed can handle general expressions, though? My own hunch is that Excel needed to give people a way to get ranges from string addresses, and to get the value of named formulas, and just opening a portal to the expression evaluator was the easiest way. (The help for the VBA version does say its purpose it to "convert a Microsoft Excel name to an object or a value".) But of course you don't need the ability to evaluate arbitrary expressions just to do that. (That is, Excel could provide a Name.Evaluate method or something instead.) Application.Evaluate seems kind of...unfinished. It's full behavior isn't very well documented, and there are quite a few quirks and limitations (as described by Charles Williams here: http://www.decisionmodels.com/calcsecretsh.htm) with what is exposed. I suppose the answer could be simply "why not expose it?", but I'd be interested to know what design decisions led to this feature taking the form that it does. Failing that, I'd be interested to hear other hunches.

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  • how to do validations when composing object of a class in other class ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I have an IPAddress class which has one property named ip and in its setter I am validating data coming and if data is invalid it throws an error. (Its code is as the following): private string ip; public string IP { get { return ip; } set { string PartsOfIP = value.Split('.'); if (PartsOfIP.Length == 4) { foreach (string part in PartsOfIP) { int a = 0; bool result = int.TryParse(part, out a); if (result != true) { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } else { ip = value; } } } else { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } } In User Class I want to compose an object of IPAddress class. I am doing validations for properties of User in User class and validations of Ip in IPAddress class. My question is how I will compose IPAddress object in UserClass and what will be syntax for this ? If I again mention get and set here with IPAddress object in User class will my earlier mentioned (in IPAddress class) getter and setter work ? plz advice me in details thanks

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  • MTD Expression on a single column - SSRS

    - by Eric
    I need a bit of help here. I have been unable to create an 'Month To Date' expression to a single column on SSRS. I tested the following expression from a similar question in the forum, but it gives me a squiggly line below the variable 'd' =IIF(Fields!CreateDate.Value >= DateAdd(d,-7,Today()), Sum(Fields!Sales.Value), 0) If I run it, of course I got an error telling me that 'd' is not declared. ;) I changed it to ... DateAdd("d",-7,Today()), Sum(Fields!Sales.Value) ... following the example and the squiggly goes below the brackets of "today()" and needless to say it...but still not working. I tried a Dateadd(mm..Datediff ... and still nothing. My report has the following columns: Country | CustomerName | Sales | InvNotProcessed | Open Order | Orders | TotalbyCust What I need is to show the new MTD sales only in the column named "Sales" while the other three shows the rest of the query, which should be open as some orders may take quite a while to manufacture and invoice. the last column sums the totals of all other columns. Any help will be much appreciated. Regards, Eric

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  • C++ Boolean problem (comparison between two arrays)

    - by Martin
    Hello! I have a problem to do. I already did some part of it, however I stuck and don't know exactly what to do next. The question: " You are given two arrays of ints, named A and B. One contains AMAXELEMENTS and the other contains BMAXELEMENTS. Write a Boolean-valued function that returns true if there is at least one point in A that is the same as a point in B, and false if there is no match between two arrays. " The two arrays are made up by me, I think if I know how to compare two arrays I will be fine, and I will be able to finish my problem. This is what I have so far (I changed AMAXELEMENTS to AMAX, and BMAXELEMENTS to BMAX): #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(){ const int AMAX=5, BMAX=6; int i; bool c1=true,c2=false; int A[AMAX]={2,4,1,5,9}; int B[BMAX]={9,12,32,43,23,11}; for(i=0;i<BMAX;i++) if (B[i]==A[i]) // <---- I think this part has to look different, but I can't figure it out. cout<<c1<<endl; else cout<< c2<<endl; return 0; }

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  • get_bookmarks() object doesn't return link_category

    - by ninja
    I'm trying to fetch all link-categories from the built in Wordpress linklist (or bookmarks if you will). To do this, I simply stored all links in a variable like this: <?php $lists = get_bookmarks(); foreach($lists as $list) { $cats[] = $list->link_category; } ?> To my surprise even var_dump'ing $cats gave me "String(0)", so I var_dump'ed out $lists instead, and it gave me this: array(8) { [0]=> object(stdClass)#5126 (13) { ["link_id"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_url"]=> string(27) "http://codex.wordpress.org/" ["link_name"]=> string(13) "Documentation" ["link_image"]=> string(0) "" ["link_target"]=> string(0) "" ["link_description"]=> string(0) "" ["link_visible"]=> string(1) "Y" ["link_owner"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_rating"]=> string(1) "0" ["link_updated"]=> string(19) "0000-00-00 00:00:00" ["link_rel"]=> string(0) "" ["link_notes"]=> string(0) "" ["link_rss"]=> string(0) "" } Now, codex.wordpress.org is a default link that comes with wordpress, it's in a category called "Linklist", and as you can see, the object contains everything about that link, EXCEPT the categoryname. According to the codex this object should contain a field named "link_category", so I'm getting confused here. Am I missing something? Is the function broke? Regards NINJA

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  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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  • em.createQuery keeps returning null

    - by Developer106
    I have this application which i use JSF 2.0 and EclipseLink, i have entities created for a database made in MySQL, Created these entities using netbeans 7.1.2, it gets created automaticly. Then i use session beans to work with these entities, the thing is the em.createQuery always returns a null, though I checked NamedQueries in the entities and they perfectly match a sample from the entities named queries:- @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findAll", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByUserId", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.userId = :userId"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByUsername", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.username = :username"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByEmail", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.email = :email"), notice how i use this findByEmail query in the session bean :- public Users findByEmail(String email){ em.getTransaction().begin(); String find = "Users.findByEmail"; Query query = em.createNamedQuery(find); query.setParameter("email", email); Users user = (Users) query.getSingleResult(); but it always returns null from this em.createNamedQuery, i tried using .createQuery first but it also was no good. the stacktrace of the exception Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.readme.entities.sessionBeans.UsersFacade.findByEmail(UsersFacade.java:48) at com.readme.user.signup.SignupBean.checkAvailability(SignupBean.java:137) at com.readme.user.signup.SignupBean.save(SignupBean.java:146) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:601) What Seems To Be The Problem Here ?

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  • creating an object within a function of a program

    - by user1066524
    could someone please tell me what I need to do in order to create an object in a function. I will try to explain by making up some sort of example... Let's say I have a program named TimeScheduler.cpp that implements the class Schedule.h (and I have the implementation in a separate file Schedule.cpp where we define the methods). In the declaration file we have declared two constructors Schedule(); //the default and Schedule(int, int, int);//accepts three arguments to get to the point--let's say in the main program file TimeScheduler.cpp we created our own functions in this program apart from the functions inherited from the class Schedule. so we have our prototypes listed at the top. /*prototypes*/ void makeSomeTime(); etc..... we have main(){ //etc etc... } we then define these program functions void makeSomeTime(){ //process } let's say that inside the function makeSomeTime(), we would like to create an array of Schedule objects like this Schedule ob[]={ summer(5,14, 49), fall(9,25,50) }; what do I have to do to the function makeSomeTime() in order for it to allow me to create this array of objects. The reason I ask is currently i'm having difficulty with my own program in that it WILL allow me to create this array of objects in main()....but NOT in a function like I just gave an example of. The strange thing is it will allow me to create a dynamic array of objects in the function..... like Schedule *ob = new Schedule[n+1]; ob[2]= Schedule(x,y,z); Why would it let me assign to a non-dynamic array in main(), but not let me do that in the function?

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  • show hidden div tag from another page

    - by neueweblernen
    I'm trying to link to an all-inclusive FAQ page from various pages. The answers are contained in tags, nested within a line item of an unordered list housed by categories. The FAQ page has the following categories: Practical Nurse Exam Online Renewal Practice Hours etc. Under Practical Nurse Exam, there are sub categories, subjects, with questions below in tags that expand onClick. (e.g. Examination Day, Exam Results, etc.) Let's say I'm on a different page called Registration and there's a link to the FAQs for Exam Results. I'm able to link to the page and included the hashtag on the anchor or Exam Results, but it does not expand the subcategory. I've read this thread but it didn't work for me. Please help! The code is below: <script type="text/javascript"> function toggle(Info,pic) { var CState = document.getElementById(Info); CState.style.display = (CState.style.display != 'block') ? 'block' : 'none'; } window.onload = function() { var hash = window.location.hash; // would be "#div1" or something if(hash != "") { var id = hash.substr(1); // get rid of # document.getElementById(id).style.display = 'block'; } } </script> <style type="text/css"> .FAQ { cursor:hand; cursor:pointer; } .FAA { display:none; padding-left:20px; text-indent:-20px; } #FAQlist li { list-style-type: none; } #FAQlist ul { margin-left:0px; } headingOne{ font-family:Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; color:#66BBFF; font-size:20px; font-weight:bold;} </style> Here's the body (part of it anyway) <headingOne class="FAQ" onClick="toggle('CPNRE', this)">PRACTICAL NURSE EXAM</headingOne> <div class="FAA" id="CPNRE"> <h3><a name="applying">Applying to write the CPNRE</a></h3> <ul id="FAQlist" style="width:450px;"> <li class="FAQ"> <p onclick="toggle('faq1',this)"> <strong>Q: How much does it cost to write the exam?</strong></p> <div class="FAA" id="faq1"> <b>A.</b> In 2013, the cost for the first exam writing is $600.00 which includes the interim license fee. See <a href="https://www.clpnbc.org/What-is-an-LPN/Becoming-an-LPN/Canadian-Practical-Nurse-Registration-Examination/Fees-and-Deadlines.aspx"> fee schedule</a>.</div> <hr /> </li> and here's the body of the other page that contains the link and the same script syntax as the all-inclusive FAQ page. This is just a test, that's not exactly what it will say: <a onclick="toggle('CPNRE', this)" href="file:///S|/Designs/Web stuff/FAQ all inclusive.html#applying"> click here</a>

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  • Javascript Namespace Help

    - by Jason
    Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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  • How to get the Actual Link file location in VSS?

    - by Regi
    I use VSS and currently I am adding a link file using following code: int ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSNO; //Link in sourcesafe IVSSDatabase ssdb = GetVssDatabase(); Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType _sqlSubType = new Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType(); VSSItem SourceItem = ssdb.get_VSSItem(pSourceItemPath, false); //if source is a proj, recursively share the whole thing if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_PROJECT) ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSYES; VSSItem DestItem = ssdb..get_VSSItem(pDestItemPath, false); //share the item DestItem.Share(SourceItem, pComment, ShareFlags); if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_FILE) { bResult = true; } return bResult; This will works fine. My issue is that I need to find the actual link location. For example I have a Project named as Link and it contains 2 files say file1 and file2. I added a Link to my Working project (say CurrentProject). This current project have 2 files say f1 and f2. After sharing the Link project then we get the item in Current project as: $/CurrentProject/File1 $/CurrentProject/File2 $/CurrentProject/F1 $/CurrentProject/F2 Here File1 and File2 are link files. I need to get its parent (Actual) location i.e. $/Link/file1 and $/Link/File2 Is there any way to find Link files location using SourceSafeTypeLib?

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  • Can you override just part of a control template in silverlight

    - by mattmanser
    Is it possible to change or modify a specific part of a control template without having to recreate the entire control template of the control in the xaml? For example, I was trying to get rid of the border of a textbox, so I could throw together a basic search box with rounded corners (example xaml below). Setting the borderthickness to 0 works fine, until you mouse over the textbox and a pseudo border they added to the control flashes up. If I look at the controltemplate for the textbox, I can even see the visual state is named, but cannot think of how to disable it. Without overriding the control template of the TextBox, how would I stop the Visual State Manager firing the mouse over effect on the TextBox? <Border Background="White" CornerRadius="10" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" BorderThickness="3" BorderBrush="#88000000"> <Grid VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Width="200" Margin="5,0,0,0"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="16" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Path Height="13" Width="14" Stretch="Fill" Stroke="#FF000000" StrokeThickness="2" Data="M9.5,5 C9.5,7.4852815 7.4852815,9.5 5,9.5 C2.5147185,9.5 0.5,7.4852815 0.5,5 C0.5,2.5147185 2.5147185,0.5 5,0.5 C7.4852815,0.5 9.5,2.5147185 9.5,5 z M8.5,8.4999971 L13.5,12.499997" /> <TextBox GotFocus="TextBox_GotFocus" Background="Transparent" Grid.Column="1" BorderThickness="0" Text="I am searchtext" Margin="5,0,5,0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" /> </Grid> </Border>

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  • Reading HTML header info of files via JS

    - by Morten Repsdorph Husfeldt
    I have a product list that is generated in ASP. I have product descriptions for each product in an HTML file. Each HTML file is named: <product.id>.html. Each HTML file size is only 1-3 kb. Within the HTML file is <title> and <meta name="description" content="..." />. I want to access these in an efficient way so that I can output this as e.g.: document.write(<product.id>.html.title);<br/> document.write(<product.id>.html.description); I have a working solution for the individual products, where I use the description file - but I hope to find a more efficient / simple approach. Preferably, I want to avoid having 30+ hidden iframes - Google might think that I am trying to tamper with search result and blacklist my page. Current code: <script type="text/javascript"> document.getElementById('produkt').onload = function(){ var d = window.frames[frame].document; document.getElementById('pfoto').title = d.title : ' '; document.getElementById('pfoto').alt = d.getElementsByName('description')[0].getAttribute('content', 0) : ' '; var keywords = d.getElementsByName('keywords')[0].getAttribute('content', 0) : ' '; }; </script>

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  • HIbernate 3.5.1 - can I just drop in EHCache 2.0.1?

    - by caerphilly
    I'm using Hibernate 3.5.1, which comes with EHCache 1.5 bundled. If I want to use the latest EHCache release (2.0.1), is it just a matter of removing the ehcache-1.5.jar from my project, and replacing with ehcache-core-2.0.1.jar? Any issues to be aware of? Also - is a cache "region" in the Hibernate mapping file that same as a cache "name" in the ehcache configuration xml? What I want to do is define 2 named cache regions - one for read-only reference entities that won't change (lookup lists etc), and one for all other entities. So in ehcache I want to define two elements; <cache name="readonly"> ... </cache> <cache name="mutable"> ... </cache> And then in my Hibernate mapping files, I will specify the cache to be used for each entity: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="lookuplist"> <cache region="readonly" usage="read-only"/> <property> ... </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Will that work? Some of the documentation seems to imply that a separate region/cache gets created for each mapped class... Thanks.

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  • Import data from multiple CSV files to an Excel sheet

    - by Chetan
    I need to import data from 50 similar csv files to a single excel sheet. Is there any way to get only selected columns from each file and put them together in one sheet. Structure of my csv files: A few columns exactly same in all the files. (I want them to be in excel) then one column with same column name but different data which I want to place next to each other with different names in the excel sheet. I do not not want all other remaining columns from csv files. In short, read all csv files, get all the columns which are common to all csv & put in excel sheet. Now, take one column from each file which has the same header but different data and put one after the other in excel sheet with named from the csv file name. Leave remaining rest of the columns. Write excel sheet to a excel file. Initially I thought it can be easily done, but considering my programming skill in learning stage it is way difficult for me. Please help.

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  • Ways to access a 32bit DLL from a 64bit exe

    - by bufferz
    I have a project that must be compiled and run in 64 bit mode. Unfortunately, I am required to call upon a DLL that is only available in 32 bit mode, so there's no way I can house everything in a 1 Visual Studio project. I am working to find the best way to wrap the 32 bit DLL in its own exe/service and issue remote (although on the same machine) calls to that exe/service from my 64 bit app. My OS is Win7 Pro 64 bit. The required calls to this 32 bit process are several dozen per second, but low data volume. This is a realtime image analysis application so response time is critical despite low volume. Lots of sending/receiving single primitives. Ideally, I would host a WCF service to house this DLL, but in a 64 bit OS one cannot force the service to run as x86! Source. That is really unfortunate since I timed function calls to the WCF service to be only 4ms on my machine. I have experimented with named pipes is .net. I found them to be 40-50 times slower than WCF (unusable for me). Any other options or suggestions for the best way to approach my puzzle?

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  • Using an unencoded key vs a real Key, benefits?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I am reading the docs for Key generation in app engine. I'm not sure what effect using a simple String key has over a real Key. For example, when my users sign up, they must supply a unique username: class User { /** Key type = unencoded string. */ @PrimaryKey private String name; } now if I understand the docs correctly, I should still be able to generate named keys and entity groups using this, right?: // Find an instance of this entity: User user = pm.findObjectById(User.class, "myusername"); // Create a new obj and put it in same entity group: Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), "myusername") .addChild(Goat.class.getSimpleName(), "baa").getKey(); Goat goat = new Goat(); goat.setKey(key); pm.makePersistent(goat); the Goat instance should now be in the same entity group as that User, right? I mean there's no problem with leaving the User's primary key as just the raw String? Is there a performance benefit to using a Key though? Should I update to: class User { /** Key type = unencoded string. */ @PrimaryKey private Key key; } // Generate like: Key key = KeyFactory.createKey( User.class.getSimpleName(), "myusername"); user.setKey(key); it's almost the same thing, I'd still just be generating the Key using the unique username anyway, Thanks

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  • Image does not update when file name remains the same in XCode 3.1.2

    - by vman049
    Hi Everyone, I'm using XCode version 3.1.2 and am developing for iPhone using the Simulator with iOS 2.2.1 on Leopard. I had an image file named "img.jpg" in my project which I decided to switch for a different file. After adding the new file into the XCode Resources folder, I removed the first file and renamed the new file to the same name as the previous one, "img.jpg." When I run my program, however, the Simulator loads the old image instead of the new one, even though the old one has been deleted from disk (not just the reference). I tried changing the name of the file to "img2.jpg," and it worked like it should - loading the new image, but I want to keep the name "img.jpg." I ran a search with Spotlight for "img.jpg" to see if there was another copy stored somewhere that XCode was using, but it only returned my new image file. I have tried uninstalling the app from the Simulator and running the application again, but that also does not fix the problem. What must I do for XCode to recognize that I want to use the new image file and not the old one? Thanks for your help!!

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  • Determine if a directory is empty, delete it if it is and delete that directroy name from a separate list. C-shell

    - by Kg123
    I have a directory named STA. Within that directory are about 600 other directories that have the format hh:mm:ss (for example 00:01:34). Within each of these sub-directories should be three files. I also have a file, 'waveformlist', (contained within STA) which is a list of all of these sub-directories i.e.: 00:01:34 00:02:35 etc. A lot of the sub-directories do not contain these three files and are instead empty. I want to run a C-shell script to go through every sub directory and check if it is empty. If it is empty I want to delete that sub directory from the main directory STA, and also remove that sub-directory name from the list 'waveformlist'. Below is my script so far. It does not recognize when the sub-directory is empty or not and does not like the rm $dir line. Also, I do not know how to go and remove the sub-directory name from 'waveformlist'. #!/bin/csh echo "Enter name of station folder to apply filter to as 'STA' e.g. APZ:" set ans = $< cd $ans set c=0 foreach dir (*:*) if ("${c}" == 0) then echo "Empty directory:" $dir rm $dir else echo ${dir} "has files" endif end I hope I have been clear enough. Thank you.

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  • How to Correct & Improve the Design of this Code?

    - by DaveDev
    HI Guys, I've been working on a little experiement to see if I could create a helper method to serialize any of my types to any type of HTML tag I specify. I'm getting a NullReferenceException when _writer = _viewContext.Writer; is called in protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) {/*...*/} I think I'm at a point where it almost works (I've gotten other implementations to work) and I was wondering if somebody could point out what I'm doing wrong? Also, I'd be interested in hearing suggestions on how I could improve the design? So basically, I have this code that will generate a Select box with a number of options: // the idea is I can use one method to create any complete tag of any type // and put whatever I want in the content area <% using (Html.GenerateTag<SelectTag>(Model, new { href = Url.Action("ActionName") })) { %> <%foreach (var fund in Model.Funds) {%> <% using (Html.GenerateTag<OptionTag>(fund)) { %> <%= fund.Name %> <% } %> <% } %> <% } %> This Html.GenerateTag helper is defined as: public static MMTag GenerateTag<T>(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, object elementData, object attributes) where T : MMTag { return (T)Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T), htmlHelper.ViewContext, elementData, attributes); } Depending on the type of T it'll create one of the types defined below, public class HtmlTypeBase : MMTag { public HtmlTypeBase() { } public HtmlTypeBase(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { base._viewContext = viewContext; base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, elementData); } } public class SelectTag : HtmlTypeBase { public SelectTag(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { base._tag = new TagBuilder("select"); //base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, elementData); } } public class OptionTag : HtmlTypeBase { public OptionTag(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { base._tag = new TagBuilder("option"); //base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, _elementData); } } public class AnchorTag : HtmlTypeBase { public AnchorTag(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { base._tag = new TagBuilder("a"); //base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, elementData); } } all of these types (anchor, select, option) inherit from HtmlTypeBase, which is intended to perform base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, elementData);. This doesn't happen though. It works if I uncomment the MergeDataToTag methods in the derived classes, but I don't want to repeat that same code for every derived class I create. This is the definition for MMTag: public class MMTag : IDisposable { internal bool _disposed; internal ViewContext _viewContext; internal TextWriter _writer; internal TagBuilder _tag; internal object[] _elementData; public MMTag() {} public MMTag(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { } public void Dispose() { Dispose(true /* disposing */); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!_disposed) { _disposed = true; _writer = _viewContext.Writer; _writer.Write(_tag.ToString(TagRenderMode.EndTag)); } } protected void MergeDataToTag(ViewContext viewContext, object[] elementData) { Type elementDataType = elementData[0].GetType(); foreach (PropertyInfo prop in elementDataType.GetProperties()) { if (prop.PropertyType.IsPrimitive || prop.PropertyType == typeof(Decimal) || prop.PropertyType == typeof(String)) { object propValue = prop.GetValue(elementData[0], null); string stringValue = propValue != null ? propValue.ToString() : String.Empty; _tag.Attributes.Add(prop.Name, stringValue); } } var dic = new Dictionary<string, object>(StringComparer.OrdinalIgnoreCase); var attributes = elementData[1]; if (attributes != null) { foreach (PropertyDescriptor descriptor in TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(attributes)) { object value = descriptor.GetValue(attributes); dic.Add(descriptor.Name, value); } } _tag.MergeAttributes<string, object>(dic); _viewContext = viewContext; _viewContext.Writer.Write(_tag.ToString(TagRenderMode.StartTag)); } } Thanks Dave

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