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  • Problem with pointers and getstring function

    - by volting
    I am trying to write a function to get a string from the uart1. Its for an embedded system so I don't want to use malloc. The pointer that is passed to the getstring function seems to point to garbage after the gets_e_uart1() is called. I don't use pointers too often so I'm sure it is something really stupid and trivial that Im doing wrong. Regards, V int main() { char *ptr = 0; while(1) { gets_e_uart1(ptr, 100); puts_uart1(ptr); } return 0; }*end main*/ //------------------------------------------------------------------------- //gets a string and echos it //returns 0 if there is no error char getstring_e_uart1(char *stringPtr_, const int SIZE_) { char buffer_[SIZE_]; stringPtr_ = buffer_; int start_ = 0, end_ = SIZE_ - 1; char errorflag = 0; /*keep geting chars until newline char recieved*/ while((buffer_[start_++] = getchar_uart1())!= 0x0D) { putchar_uart1(buffer_[start_]);//echo it /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(start_ == end_) { start_ = 0; errorflag = 1; } } putchar_uart1('\n'); putchar_uart1('\r'); /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(start_ == end_) { buffer_[0] = '\0'; errorflag = 1; } else { buffer_[start_++] = '\0'; } return errorflag; } Update: I decided to go with approach of passing a pointer an array to the function. This works nicely, thanks to everyone for the informative answers. Updated Code: //------------------------------------------------------------------------- //argument 1 should be a pointer to an array, //and the second argument should be the size of the array //gets a string and echos it //returns 0 if there is no error char getstring_e_uart1(char *stringPtr_, const int SIZE_) { char *startPtr_ = stringPtr_; char *endPtr_ = startPtr_ + (SIZE_ - 1); char errorflag = 0; /*keep geting chars until newline char recieved*/ while((*stringPtr_ = getchar_uart1())!= 0x0D) { putchar_uart1(*stringPtr_);//echo it stringPtr_++; /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(stringPtr_ == endPtr_) { stringPtr_ = startPtr_; errorflag = 1; } } putchar_uart1('\n'); putchar_uart1('\r'); /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(stringPtr_ == endPtr_) { stringPtr_ = startPtr_; *stringPtr_ = '\0'; errorflag = 1; } else { *stringPtr_ = '\0'; } return errorflag; }

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  • How much time should it take to find the sum of all prime numbers less than 2 million?

    - by Shahensha
    I was trying to solve this Project Euler Question. I implemented the sieve of euler as a helper class in java. It works pretty well for the small numbers. But when I input 2 million as the limit it doesn't return the answer. I use Netbeans IDE. I waited for a lot many hours once, but it still didn't print the answer. When I stopped running the code, it gave the following result Java Result: 2147483647 BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 2,097 minutes 43 seconds) This answer is incorrect. Even after waiting for so much time, this isn't correct. While the same code returns correct answers for smaller limits. Sieve of euler has a very simple algo given at the botton of this page. My implementation is this: package support; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; /** * * @author admin */ public class SieveOfEuler { int upperLimit; List<Integer> primeNumbers; public SieveOfEuler(int upperLimit){ this.upperLimit = upperLimit; primeNumbers = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = 2 ; i <= upperLimit ; i++) primeNumbers.add(i); generatePrimes(); } private void generatePrimes(){ int currentPrimeIndex = 0; int currentPrime = 2; while(currentPrime <= Math.sqrt(upperLimit)){ ArrayList<Integer> toBeRemoved = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = currentPrimeIndex ; i < primeNumbers.size() ; i++){ int multiplier = primeNumbers.get(i); toBeRemoved.add(currentPrime * multiplier); } for(Integer i : toBeRemoved){ primeNumbers.remove(i); } currentPrimeIndex++; currentPrime = primeNumbers.get(currentPrimeIndex); } } public List getPrimes(){ return primeNumbers; } public void displayPrimes(){ for(double i : primeNumbers) System.out.println(i); } } I am perplexed! My questions is 1) Why is it taking so much time? Is there something wrong in what I am doing? Please suggest ways for improving my coding style, if you find something wrong.

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  • Are there any platforms where using structure copy on an fd_set (for select() or pselect()) causes p

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    The select() and pselect() system calls modify their arguments (the 'struct fd_set *' arguments), so the input value tells the system which file descriptors to check and the return values tell the programmer which file descriptors are currently usable. If you are going to call them repeatedly for the same set of file descriptors, you need to ensure that you have a fresh copy of the descriptors for each call. The obvious way to do that is to use a structure copy: struct fd_set ref_set_rd; struct fd_set ref_set_wr; struct fd_set ref_set_er; ... ...code to set the reference fd_set_xx values... ... while (!done) { struct fd_set act_set_rd = ref_set_rd; struct fd_set act_set_wr = ref_set_wr; struct fd_set act_set_er = ref_set_er; int bits_set = select(max_fd, &act_set_rd, &act_set_wr, &act_set_er, &timeout); if (bits_set > 0) { ...process the output values of act_set_xx... } } My question: Are there any platforms where it is not safe to do a structure copy of the struct fd_set values as shown? I'm concerned lest there be hidden memory allocation or anything unexpected like that. (There are macros/functions FD_SET(), FD_CLR(), FD_ZERO() and FD_ISSET() to mask the internals from the application.) I can see that MacOS X (Darwin) is safe; other BSD-based systems are likely to be safe, therefore. You can help by documenting other systems that you know are safe in your answers. (I do have minor concerns about how well the struct fd_set would work with more than 8192 open file descriptors - the default maximum number of open files is only 256, but the maximum number is 'unlimited'. Also, since the structures are 1 KB, the copying code is not dreadfully efficient, but then running through a list of file descriptors to recreate the input mask on each cycle is not necessarily efficient either. Maybe you can't do select() when you have that many file descriptors open, though that is when you are most likely to need the functionality.) There's a related SO question - asking about 'poll() vs select()' which addresses a different set of issues from this question.

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  • OutOfMemoryError loading Bitmap via DefaultHttpClient

    - by Goddchen
    i have a simple problem: Although i'm using sampleSize properly, my code doesn't even reach the BitmapFactorycode, since DefaultHttpClient is already throwing the exception. Here is my code: DefaultHttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(mSongInfo.imageLarge); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); int sampleSize = 1; while (response.getEntity().getContentLength() / sampleSize / sampleSize > 100 * 1024) { sampleSize *= 2; } BitmapFactory.Options options = new BitmapFactory.Options(); options.inSampleSize = sampleSize; final Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(response .getEntity().getContent(), null, options); And here is the exception: 0 java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: (Heap Size=11463KB, Allocated=7623KB, Bitmap Size=9382KB) 1 at org.apache.http.util.ByteArrayBuffer.<init>(ByteArrayBuffer.java:53) 2 at org.apache.http.impl.io.AbstractSessionInputBuffer.init(AbstractSessionInputBuffer.java:82) 3 at org.apache.http.impl.io.SocketInputBuffer.<init>(SocketInputBuffer.java:98) 4 at org.apache.http.impl.SocketHttpClientConnection.createSessionInputBuffer(SocketHttpClientConnection.java:83) 5 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.DefaultClientConnection.createSessionInputBuffer(DefaultClientConnection.java:170) 6 at org.apache.http.impl.SocketHttpClientConnection.bind(SocketHttpClientConnection.java:106) 7 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.DefaultClientConnection.openCompleted(DefaultClientConnection.java:129) 8 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.DefaultClientConnectionOperator.openConnection(DefaultClientConnectionOperator.java:173) 9 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.AbstractPoolEntry.open(AbstractPoolEntry.java:164) 10 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.AbstractPooledConnAdapter.open(AbstractPooledConnAdapter.java:119) 11 at org.apache.http.impl.client.DefaultRequestDirector.execute(DefaultRequestDirector.java:359) 12 at org.apache.http.impl.client.AbstractHttpClient.execute(AbstractHttpClient.java:555) 13 at org.apache.http.impl.client.AbstractHttpClient.execute(AbstractHttpClient.java:487) 14 at org.apache.http.impl.client.AbstractHttpClient.execute(AbstractHttpClient.java:465) 15 at de.goddchen.android.easysongfinder.fragments.SongFragment$1.run(SongFragment.java:79) 16 at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:1027) As you can see, the code doesn't even reach the part where i check the size (Content-Length) of the image and calculate a proper sample size. I wasn't aware that simply calling DefaultHttpClient.execute(...) will already load the complete content into the memory. Am i doing something wrong? What is the right way to first retrieve the content length and then start reading the content from an InputStream? EDIT To avoid common answers that show how to load images from a URL: i already know how to do that, i have also posted the code above, so why do you keep referencing tutorials on that? I explicitly was very clear about the problem: Why is HttpClient.execute(...)already fetching the whole content and storing it in memory instead of providing a proper ÌnputStreamto me? Please don't post any beginner tutorials on how to load aBitmap`from a URL...

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  • Why jQuery selector can't work but getElementById works in this scenario?

    - by Stallman
    Here is the HTML: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="jquery-1.7.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="access.js"></script> </head> <body> <button id="trigger"></button> <img id= "testElement" style= "position: absolute; border-color: white; top:340px; left:615px;" width="34px" height= "34px" /> </body> </html> And the access.js file is: $(document).ready( function(){ $('#trigger').click(function(){ $('#testElement').src="success.png"; //THIS WON'T WORK. document.getElementById('testElement').src= "success.png"; //BUT THIS WORKS. }); }); I know that if I use $, the return object is a jQuery object. It's not the same as getElementById. But why the jQuery selector can't work here? I need the jQuery object to make more operations like "append/style"... Thanks. UPDATE Too much correct answers appear at almost the same time... Please give more explanations to let me decide who I should give the credit, thanks!!! Sorry for my poor understanding of your correct answer... I just want more detail. Are all the attribute nodes(src/width/height...) not the property of jQuery object? So does the jQuery selector only select DOM Element Node like ? Thank you! 3. List item

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  • MS Access 07 - Q re lookup column vs many-to-many; Q re checkboxes in many-to-many forms

    - by TBinLondon
    Hello, I'm creating a database with Access. This is just a test database, similar to my requirements, so I can get my skills up before creating one for work. I've created a database for a fictional school as this is a good playground and rich data (many students have many subjects have many teachers, etc). Question 1 What is the difference, if any, between using a Lookup column and a many-to-many associate table? Example: I have Tables 'Teacher' and 'Subject'. Many teachers have many subjects. I can, and have, created a table 'Teacher_Subject' and run queries with this. I have then created a lookup column in teachers table with data from subjects. The lookup column seems to take the place of the teacher_subject table. (though the data on relationships is obviously duplicated between lookup table and teacher_subject and may vary). Which one is the 'better' option? Is there a snag with using lookup tables? (I realize that this is a very 'general' question. Links to other resources and answers saying 'that depends...' are appreciated) Question 2 What attracts me to lookup tables is the following: When creating a form for entering subjects for teachers, with lookup I can simply create checkboxes and click a subject for a teacher 'on' or 'off'. Each click on/off creates/removes a record in the lookup column (which replaces teacher_subject). If I use a form from a query from teacher subject with teacher as main form and subject as subform I run into this problem: In the subform I can either select each subject that teacher has in a bombo box, i.e. click, scroll down, select, go to next row, click, scroll down, etc. (takes too long) OR I can create a list box listing all available subjects in each row but allowing me to select only one. (takes up too much space). Is it possible to have a click on/off list box for teacher_subject, creating/removing a record there with each click? Note - I know zero SQL or VB. If the correct answer is "you need to know SQL for this" then that's cool. I just need to know. Thanks!

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • How to use jQuery to generate 2 new associated objects in a nested form?

    - by mind.blank
    I have a model called Pair, which has_many :questions, and each Question has_one :answer. I've been following this railscast on creating nested forms, however I want to generate both a Question field and it's Answer field when clicking on an "Add Question" link. After following the railscast this is what I have: ..javascripts/common.js.coffee: window.remove_fields = (link)-> $(link).closest(".question_remove").remove() window.add_fields = (link, association, content)-> new_id = new Date().getTime() regexp = new RegExp("new_" + association, "g") $(link).before(content.replace(regexp, new_id)) application_helper.rb: def link_to_add_fields(name, f, association) new_object = f.object.class.reflect_on_association(association).klass.new fields = f.simple_fields_for(association, new_object, :child_index => "new_#{association}") do |builder| render(association.to_s.singularize + "_fields", :f => builder) end link_to_function(name, "window.add_fields(this, \"#{association}\", \"#{escape_javascript(fields)}\")", class: "btn btn-inverse") end views/pairs/_form.html.erb: <%= simple_form_for(@pair) do |f| %> <div class="row"> <div class="well span4"> <%= f.input :sys_heading, label: "System Heading", placeholder: "required", input_html: { class: "span4" } %> <%= f.input :heading, label: "User Heading", input_html: { class: "span4" } %> <%= f.input :instructions, as: :text, input_html: { class: "span4 input_text" } %> </div> </div> <%= f.simple_fields_for :questions do |builder| %> <%= render 'question_fields', f: builder %> <% end %> <%= link_to_add_fields "<i class='icon-plus icon-white'></i> Add Another Question".html_safe, f, :questions %> <%= f.button :submit, "Save Pair", class: "btn btn-success" %> <% end %> _question_fields.html.erb partial: <div class="question_remove"> <div class="row"> <div class="well span4"> <%= f.input :text, label: "Question", input_html: { class: "span4" }, placeholder: "your question...?" %> <%= f.simple_fields_for :answer do |builder| %> <%= render 'answer_fields', f: builder %> <% end %> </div> </div> </div> _answer_fields.html.erb partial: <%= f.input :text, label: "Answer", input_html: { class: "span4" }, placeholder: "your answer" %> <%= link_to_function "remove", "remove_fields(this)", class: "float-right" %> I'm especially confused by the reflect_on_association part, for example how does calling .new there create an association? I usually need to use .build Also for a has_one I use .build_answer rather than answers.build - so what does this mean for the jQuery part?

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  • iPhone memory management (with specific examples/questions)

    - by donkim
    Hey all. I know this question's been asked but I still don't have a clear picture of memory management in Objective-C. I feel like I have a pretty good grasp of it, but I'd still like some correct answers for the following code. I have a series of examples that I'd love for someone(s) to clarify. Setting a value for an instance variable. Say I have an NSMutableArray variable. In my class, when I initialize it, do I need to call a retain on it? Do I do fooArray = [[[NSMutableArray alloc] init] retain]; or fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Does doing [[NSMutableArray alloc] init] already set the retain count to 1, so I wouldn't need to call retain on it? On the other hand, if I called a method that I know returns an autoreleased object, I would for sure have to call retain on it, right? Like so: fooString = [[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d items", someInt] retain]; Properties. I ask about the retain because I'm a bit confused about how @property's automatic setter works. If I had set fooArray to be a @property with retain set, Objective-C will automatically create the following setter, right? - (void)setFooArray:(NSMutableArray *)anArray { [fooArray release]; fooArray = [anArray retain]; } So, if I had code like this: self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; (which I believe is valid code), Objective-C creates a setter method that calls retain on the value assigned to fooArray. In this case, will the retain count actually be 2? Correct way of setting a value of a property. I know there are questions on this and (possibly) debates, but which is the right way to set a @property? This? self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Or this? NSMutableArray *anArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.fooArray = anArray; [anArray release]; I'd love to get some clarification on these examples. Thanks!

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  • Validate dependent model validation and show error message.

    - by piemesons
    Just taking a simple example. We have a question on stackoverflow and while posting a question we want to validate title_of_question, description_of_question that they should be present. Now we have a another model tag having habtm relationshio with question model. How to validate that while saving the question. Means question must have some tags. here the code:-- Models:-- class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_and_belongs_to_many :tags has_many :comments, :as => :commentable has_many :answers, :dependent => :destroy validates_presence_of :title, :content, :user_id end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :questions validates_presence_of :tag end Form for entering question and tag <div class="form"> <% form_for :question ,@question, :url => {:action => "create" } do |f| %> <fieldset> <%= f.error_messages %> <legend>Post a question</legend> <div> <%= f.label :title %>: <%= f.text_field :title, :size => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= f.label :content ,'Question' %>: <%= f.text_area :content, :rows => 10, :cols => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= label_tag 'tags' %>: <%= text_field_tag 'tag' ,'',:size=> 60 %> add multiple tag using comma </div> <div> <%= submit_tag "Post question" %> </div> </fieldset> <% end %> </div> From Controller.. (Right now question will be saved without validating tag) def create @question = Question.new(params[:question]) @question.user_id=session[:user_id] if @question.save flash[:notice] = "Question has been posted." redirect_to question_index_path else render :action => "new" end end questions_tags table has been created. One approach is creating a virtual column using attribute accessors. another approach is validate associated. right now assuming new tags can be created.(but not duplicate).

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  • When may I ask a question to fellow developers? (Rules before asking questions).

    - by Zwei Steinen
    I assigned a quite simple task to one junior developer today, and he kept pinging me EVERY 5 minutes for HOURS, asking STEP BY STEP, what to do. Whenever something went wrong, he simply copy&pasted the log and basically wrote, "An exception occurred. What should I do?" So I finally had to tell him, "If you want to be a developer, please start thinking a little bit. Read the error message. That's what they are for!". I also however, tell junior developers to ask questions before spending too much time trying to solve it themselves. This might sound contradictory, but I feel there is some kind of an implicit rule that distinguishes questions that should be asked fairly quickly and that should not (and I try to follow those rules when I ask questions..) So my question is, do you have any rules that you follow, or expect others to follow on asking questions? If so, what are they? Let me start with my own. If you have struggled for more than 90 min, you may ask that question (exceptions exists). If you haven't struggled for more than 15 min, you may not ask that question (if you are sure that the answer can not be found within 15 min, this rule does not have to apply). If it is completely out of your domain and you do not plan to learn that domain, you may ask that question after 15 min (e.g. if I am a java programmer and need to back up the DB, I may ask the DBA what procedure to follow after googling for 15 min). If it is a "local" question, whose answer is difficult to derive or for which resources is difficult to get (e.g. asking an colleague "what method xxx does" etc.), you may ask that question after 15 min. If the answer for it is difficult to derive, and you know that the other person knows the answer, you may ask the question after 15 min (e.g. asking a hibernate expert "What do I need to change else to make this work?". If the process to derive the answer is interesting and is a good learning opportunity, you may ask for hints but you may not ask for answers! What are your rules?

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  • How do I force a Coldfusion cfc to output numeric data over JSON as a string?

    - by Dan Sorensen
    I'm calling a Coldfusion component (cfc) using jQuery.post(). I need an integer or string representation of the number returned for use in a URL. {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":19382} or {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":"19382"} Instead what I get back is a decimal: {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":19382.0} Needed to update the following HTML: <a href="page.cfm?id=19382" id="pagelink">My Page Title</a> Conceptually, I suppose there are multiple answers: 1) I could use jQuery to grab the number left of the decimal point. 2) I could force Coldfusion to send the number as a string. 3) I could generate the whole link server side and just replace the whole link tag HTML (not the preferred answer, but maybe it is the best) Does anyone know how to do 1 or 2? Is 3 better? Relevant Javascript: (Not optimized) $(".link").live('click', function () { var $linkID, serviceUrl; serviceUrl = "mycfc.cfc?method=getPage"; $linkID = $(this).attr("rel"); $.post(serviceUrl, { linkid: $linkID }, function (result) { $('#pagelink').val(result.TITLE); if (result.FMKEY.length) { // NEED the ID number WITHOUT the .0 at the end $('#pagelink').attr("href") = "page.cfm?id=" + result.ID; $('#pagelink').text(result.TITLE); } }, "json"); }); My CFC: <component output="no"> <cfsetting showdebugoutput="no"> <cffunction name="getPage" access="remote" returnFormat="JSON" output="no" hint="Looks up a Page Title and ID"> <cfargument name="linkID" type="string" required="yes"> <cfset var page = queryNew("id,title")> <cfset var result = structNew()> <cfquery datasource="myDatasource" name="page"> SELECT TOP 1 id, title FROM pages WHERE linkID = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_integer" value="#arguments.linkID#"> </cfquery> <cfif page.recordcount> <cfset result.id = page.id> <cfset result.title = page.title> </cfif> <cfreturn result> </cffunction> </component>

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  • jQuery Accordion /Tabs - Call different function upon load of content

    - by Scott
    I have the following markup: <body> <div id="tabs" style="float: left"> <ul> <li><a href="ajax/question_0.html" title="Question 1"><span>Question 1</span></a></li> <li><a href="ajax/question_1.html" title="Question 2"><span>Question 2</span></a></li> <li><a href="ajax/question_2.html" title="Question 3"><span>Question 3</span></a></li> <li><a href="ajax/question_3.html" title="Question 4"><span>Question 4</span></a></li> <li><a href="ajax/question_4.html" title="Question 5"><span>Question 5</span></a></li> <li><a href="ajax/question_5.html" title="Question 6"><span>Question 6</span></a></li> </ul> <div id="dynamicContent"> </div> </div> <div class="demo-description"> <p>Click tabs to see answers to Questions</p> </div> </body> I would like to utilize an accordion or the tabs plugin from the UI. Upon completion of the load event, I'd like to call a JavaScript function, but a different function for each tab -- almost like calling onDocumentReady for a page. I have the following JavaScript: $(function() { $('#tabs').tabs().bind('tabsselect', function(event, ui) { console.log("Loading: ajax/question_" + ui.index + ".html"); return true; //Ensure that the tab gets selected }); ); That's properly loading the Ajax file and all, but whenever I attempt to do something such as evaluating a statement in the JS, it seems to be ignored. Is there any way I can do this, so that once the file is loaded my function is called -- needs to be a different function for each tab.

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  • Java error - not a statement, what does this mean?

    - by user2898828
    I am trying to get my code to create the new constructor objects which I require to create a mobile phone object. I have tried naming the constuctor fields to create the object. when I compile my code on this line this.Mobile samsungPhone = new Mobile("Samsung", 1, 2, "verizon", 3 "GPS"); I get this error: not a statement, what does this mean?? UPDATED CODE! my code: /** * to write a simple java class Mobile that models a mobile phone. * * @author (Lewis Burte-Clarke) * @version (14/10/13) */ public class Mobile { // type of phone private String phonetype; // size of screen in inches private int screensize; // menory card capacity private int memorycardcapacity; // name of present service provider private String serviceprovider; // type of contract with service provider private int typeofcontract; // camera resolution in megapixels private int cameraresolution; // the percentage of charge left on the phone private int checkcharge; // wether the phone has GPS or not private String GPS; // instance variables - replace the example below with your own private int x; // The constructor method public Mobile(String mobilephonetype, int mobilescreensize, int mobilememorycardcapacity,int mobilecameraresolution,String mobileGPS, String newserviceprovider) { this.phonetype = mobilephonetype; this.screensize = mobilescreensize; this.memorycardcapacity = mobilememorycardcapacity; this.cameraresolution = mobilecameraresolution; this.GPS = mobileGPS; this.serviceprovider = newserviceprovider; this.typeofcontract = 12; this.checkcharge = checkcharge; // you do not use this ones during instantiation,you can remove them if you do not need or assign them some default values Mobile samsungPhone = new Mobile("Samsung", 1, 2, "verizon", 3, "GPS"); 1024 = screen size; 2 = memory card capacity; 3=resolution; GPS = gps; "verizon"=service provider; typeofcontract = 12; checkcharge = checkcharge; } } // A method to display the state of the object to the screen public void displayMobileDetails() { System.out.println("phonetype: " + phonetype); System.out.println("screensize: " + screensize); System.out.println("memorycardcapacity: " + memorycardcapacity); System.out.println("cameraresolution: " + cameraresolution); System.out.println("GPS: " + GPS); System.out.println("serviceprovider: " + serviceprovider); System.out.println("typeofcontract: " + typeofcontract); } } class mymobile { public static void) { Mobile Samsung = new Mobile("Samsung", 1, 2, "verizon", 3, "GPS"); Mobile Blackberry = new Mobile("Blackberry", "3.", "4","8", "GPS"); Samsung.displayMobileDetails(); Blackberry.displayMobileDetails(); } } any answers and replies would be greatly appreciated!

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  • C# Different class objects in one list

    - by jeah_wicer
    I have looked around some now to find a solution to this problem. I found several ways that could solve it but to be honest I didn't realize which of the ways that would be considered the "right" C# or OOP way of solving it. My goal is not only to solve the problems but also to develop a good set of code standards and I'm fairly sure there's a standard way to handle this problem. Let's say I have 2 types of printer hardwares with their respective classes and ways of communicating: PrinterType1, PrinterType2. I would also like to be able to later on add another type if neccessary. One step up in abstraction those have much in common. It should be possible to send a string to each one of them as an example. They both have variables in common and variables unique to each class. (One for instance communicates via COM-port and has such an object, while the other one communicates via TCP and has such an object). I would however like to just implement a List of all those printers and be able to go through the list and perform things as "Send(string message)" on all Printers regardless of type. I would also like to access variables like "PrinterList[0].Name" that are the same for both objects, however I would also at some places like to access data that is specific to the object itself (For instance in the settings window of the application where the COM-port name is set for one object and the IP/port number for another). So, in short something like: In common: Name Send() Specific to PrinterType1: Port Specific to PrinterType2: IP And I wish to, for instance, do Send() on all objects regardless of type and the number of objects present. I've read about polymorphism, Generics, interfaces and such, but I would like to know how this, in my eyes basic, problem typically would be dealt with in C# (and/or OOP in general). I actually did try to make a base class, but it didn't quite seem right to me. For instance I have no use of a "string Send(string Message)" function in the base class itself. So why would I define one there that needs to be overridden in the derived classes when I would never use the function in the base class ever in the first place? I'm really thankful for any answers. People around here seem very knowledgeable and this place has provided me with many solutions earlier. Now I finally have an account to answer and vote with too. EDIT: To additionally explain, I would also like to be able to access the objects of the actual printertype. For instance the Port variable in PrinterType1 which is a SerialPort object. I would like to access it like: PrinterList[0].Port.Open() and have access to the full range of functionality of the underlaying port. At the same time I would like to call generic functions that work in the same way for the different objects (but with different implementations): foreach (printer in Printers) printer.Send(message)

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  • How should I ethically approach user password storage for later plaintext retrieval?

    - by Shane
    As I continue to build more and more websites and web applications I am often asked to store user's passwords in a way that they can be retrieved if/when the user has an issue (either to email a forgotten password link, walk them through over the phone, etc.) When I can I fight bitterly against this practice and I do a lot of ‘extra’ programming to make password resets and administrative assistance possible without storing their actual password. When I can’t fight it (or can’t win) then I always encode the password in some way so that it at least isn’t stored as plaintext in the database—though I am aware that if my DB gets hacked that it won’t take much for the culprit to crack the passwords as well—so that makes me uncomfortable. In a perfect world folks would update passwords frequently and not duplicate them across many different sites—unfortunately I know MANY people that have the same work/home/email/bank password, and have even freely given it to me when they need assistance. I don’t want to be the one responsible for their financial demise if my DB security procedures fail for some reason. Morally and ethically I feel responsible for protecting what can be, for some users, their livelihood even if they are treating it with much less respect. I am certain that there are many avenues to approach and arguments to be made for salting hashes and different encoding options, but is there a single ‘best practice’ when you have to store them? In almost all cases I am using PHP and MySQL if that makes any difference in the way I should handle the specifics. Additional Information for Bounty I want to clarify that I know this is not something you want to have to do and that in most cases refusal to do so is best. I am, however, not looking for a lecture on the merits of taking this approach I am looking for the best steps to take if you do take this approach. In a note below I made the point that websites geared largely toward the elderly, mentally challenged, or very young can become confusing for people when they are asked to perform a secure password recovery routine. Though we may find it simple and mundane in those cases some users need the extra assistance of either having a service tech help them into the system or having it emailed/displayed directly to them. In such systems the attrition rate from these demographics could hobble the application if users were not given this level of access assistance, so please answer with such a setup in mind. Thanks to Everyone This has been a fun questions with lots of debate and I have enjoyed it. In the end I selected an answer that both retains password security (I will not have to keep plain text or recoverable passwords), but also makes it possible for the user base I specified to log into a system without the major drawbacks I have found from normal password recovery. As always there were about 5 answers that I would like to have marked correct for different reasons, but I had to choose the best one--all the rest got a +1. Thanks everyone!

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  • Is there a way to efficiently yield every file in a directory containing millions of files?

    - by Josh Smeaton
    I'm aware of os.listdir, but as far as I can gather, that gets all the filenames in a directory into memory, and then returns the list. What I want, is a way to yield a filename, work on it, and then yield the next one, without reading them all into memory. Is there any way to do this? I worry about the case where filenames change, new files are added, and files are deleted using such a method. Some iterators prevent you from modifying the collection during iteration, essentially by taking a snapshot of the state of the collection at the beginning, and comparing that state on each move operation. If there is an iterator capable of yielding filenames from a path, does it raise an error if there are filesystem changes (add, remove, rename files within the iterated directory) which modify the collection? There could potentially be a few cases that could cause the iterator to fail, and it all depends on how the iterator maintains state. Using S.Lotts example: filea.txt fileb.txt filec.txt Iterator yields filea.txt. During processing, filea.txt is renamed to filey.txt and fileb.txt is renamed to filez.txt. When the iterator attempts to get the next file, if it were to use the filename filea.txt to find it's current position in order to find the next file and filea.txt is not there, what would happen? It may not be able to recover it's position in the collection. Similarly, if the iterator were to fetch fileb.txt when yielding filea.txt, it could look up the position of fileb.txt, fail, and produce an error. If the iterator instead was able to somehow maintain an index dir.get_file(0), then maintaining positional state would not be affected, but some files could be missed, as their indexes could be moved to an index 'behind' the iterator. This is all theoretical of course, since there appears to be no built-in (python) way of iterating over the files in a directory. There are some great answers below, however, that solve the problem by using queues and notifications. Edit: The OS of concern is Redhat. My use case is this: Process A is continuously writing files to a storage location. Process B (the one I'm writing), will be iterating over these files, doing some processing based on the filename, and moving the files to another location. Edit: Definition of valid: Adjective 1. Well grounded or justifiable, pertinent. (Sorry S.Lott, I couldn't resist). I've edited the paragraph in question above.

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  • How would I add an if statement into MSQLI query?

    - by Josh
    Okay so I'm just learning mysqli and I'm having a little trouble putting this code together. I've posted the mysqli query below and then below that is the code I'm trying to combine with the mysqli query and I can't seem to get it to work. Maybe what I'm doing isn't possible, but the third section below is how I had the query written for mysql and it's working fine. Answers in code are appreciated! Thanks! MYSQLI QUERY: <?php require("../config.php"); if ($stmt = $mysqli->prepare("SELECT firstname,lastname,spousefirst,phonecell,email,date,contacttype,status FROM contacts WHERE contacttype IN ('Buyer','Seller','Buyer / Seller','Investor') ORDER BY date DESC")) { $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_results($firstname,$lastname,$spousefirst,$phonecell,$email,$date,$contacttype,$status); while ($stmt->fetch()) { echo ''.$firstname.' '." ".' '.$lastname.' '.",".' '.$spousefirst.' '.",".' '.$phonecell.' '.",".' '.$email.' '.",".' '.$date.' '.",".' '.$contacttype.' '.",".' '.$status.'</br>'; } $stmt->close(); } $mysqli->close(); ?> WHAT I'M TRYING TO COMBINE THE ABOVE WITH: if (($_GET['date'] == 'today')) { $sql = "SELECT * FROM contacts WHERE contacttype IN ('Buyer','Seller','Buyer / Seller','Investor') AND date = DATE(NOW()) ORDER BY date DESC"; } WHAT I HAD BEFORE WITH MYSQL THAT WORKS: <?php require("../config.php"); $sql = "SELECT * FROM contacts WHERE contacttype IN ('Buyer','Seller','Buyer / Seller','Investor') AND status = 'New' ORDER BY date DESC"; if (($_GET['date'] == 'today')) { $sql = "SELECT * FROM contacts WHERE contacttype IN ('Buyer','Seller','Buyer / Seller','Investor') AND date = DATE(NOW()) ORDER BY date DESC"; } ?>

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  • A new MEF error I've not seen before -- "The export is not assignable to type..."

    - by Dave
    I was very surprised to get this error today, as it's one that I've never encountered before. Everything in the code looked okay, so I did some searches. The previous questions and their respective answers didn't help. This one was solved when the poster made sure his assembly references were consistent. I don't have this issue right now because I'm currently referencing another project in my solution. This one was solved when the poster was instructed to use ImportMany, but I am already using it (I think properly, too) to try to load multiple plugins This one was solved when the poster realized that there was a platform target mismatch. I've already gone through my projects to ensure that everything targets x86. So here's what I am trying to do. I have a plugin that owns a connection to a device. I might also need to be able to share that connection with another plugin. I decided that the cleanest way to do this was to create an interface that would allow the slave plugin to request its own connection to the device. Let's just call it IConnectionSharer. If the slave plugin does not need to borrow this connection and has its own, then it should use its own implementation of IConnectionSharer to connect to the device. My "master" plugin (the one that owns the connection to the device) implements IConnectionSharer. It also exports this via ExportAttribute. My "slave" plugin assembly defines a class that also implements and exports IConnectionSharer. When the application loads, the intent is for my slave plugin, via MEF, to enumerate all IConnectionSharers and store them in an IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer>. It does so like this: [ImportMany] public IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer> AllSharedConnections { get; set; } But during part composition, I get the error the export 'Company.MasterPlugin (ContractName="IConnectionSharer")' is not assignable to type 'IConnectionSharer'. The error message itself seems clear enough -- it's as if MEF thinks my master plugin doesn't inherit from IConnectionSharer... but it does! Can anyone suggest further debugging strategies? I'm going to start the painful process of single stepping through the MEF source.

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  • JPA - Can I create an Entity class, using an @DiscriminatorValue, that doesn't have its own table?

    - by DaveyDaveDave
    Hi - this is potentially a bit complex, so I'll do my best to describe my situation - it's also my first post here, so please forgive formatting mistakes, etc! I'm using JPA with joined inheritance and a database structure that looks like: ACTION --------- ACTION_ID ACTION_MAPPING_ID ACTION_TYPE DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID CHANNEL_ID OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID (various fields specific to this action type) So, in plain English, I have multiple different types of action, all share an ACTION_MAPPING, which is referenced from the 'parent' ACTION table. DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION and OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION both have extra, supplementary data of their own, and are mapped to ACTION with a FK. Real-world, I also have a 'suppress' action, but this doesn't have any supplementary data of its own, so it doesn't have a corresponding table - all it needs is an ACTION_MAPPING, which is stored in the ACTION table. Hopefully you're with me so far... I'm creating a new project from scratch, so am pretty flexible in what I can do, but obviously would like to get it right from the outset! My current implementation, which works, has three entities loosely defined as follows: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class Action @Entity @Table(name="DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("DELIVERY_CHANNEL") public class DeliveryChannelAction extends Action @Entity @Table(name="OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("OVERRIDE_ADDRESS") public class OverrideAddressAction extends Action That is - I have a concrete base class, Action, with a Joined inheritance strategy. DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction both extend Action. What feels wrong here though, is that my Action class is the base class for these two actions, but also forms the concrete implementation for the suppress action. For the time being this works, but at some point more actions are likely to be added, and there's every chance that some of them will, like SUPPRESS, have no supplementary data, which will start to get difficult! So... what I would like to do, in the object model world, is to have Action be abstract, and create a SuppressAction class, which is empty apart from having a @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS"). I've tried doing exactly what is described above, so, changing Action to: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class Action and creating: @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class SuppressAction extends Action but no luck - it seems to work fine for DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction, but when I try to create a SuppressAction and persist it, I get: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Object: com.mypackage.SuppressAction[actionId=null] is not a known entity type. at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.sessions.UnitOfWorkImpl.registerNewObjectForPersist(UnitOfWorkImpl.java:4147) at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:368) at com.mypackage.test.util.EntityTestUtil.createSuppressAction(EntityTestUtil.java:672) at com.mypackage.entities.ActionTest.testCRUDAction(ActionTest.java:27) which I assume is down to the fact that SuppressAction isn't registered as an entity, but I don't know how I can do that, given that it doesn't have an associated table. Any pointers, either complete answers or hints for things to Google (I'm out of ideas!), most welcome :) EDIT: to correct my stacktrace.

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  • My webpage ignores changes in CSS file

    - by Pavel
    No matter what I change in my .css file, the page remains the same - what's more, neither changing the link tag so that it points to another .css file nor deleting it completely makes no difference. Other changes in html code are applied. The sourcecode of the webpage shows everything as it should be. This behavior started when I redirected the link tag from previous file to the one I use now (plus there have been some changes in the tag while this problem occured, to test the behavior of my webpage); changes in neither file affect the page. For the first time when this happened, this was caused by copies of head tag in included chunks of code (for header, left menu etc. - their head part overrode the head part of the main page) and the problem was solved by removing these redundant heads from these files. But it happened again when I changed the link tag for the next time. I couldn't find any head parts in my included files, but the problem lasts (only solution I can see now is to delete the included files and copy the code directly to the file, but this would mean lots of redundant code). How can I solve this problem, so that my page response to changes in .css files without increasing redundancy? How to ensure that I can change the link to .css file just on one place with no such problems? Do I have to unload the CSS file somehow? I saw this problem both in Firefox and in Chrome. I use PSPad to write the code, just in case it would play role. EDIT: I have cleared browser cache now, and I changed the link to .css files from one to another before, but nothing helped. Now I accept the best answer saying the problem is in caching and I start a related question to find out how to solve the caching issue. If the other question's answers would say that in this case I can be sure that problem isn't in caching (very unlikely, but fail of ordinary methods of caching-problems-solving is unlikely too), I'd update this question and start searching for other possible problems, but now the message seems to be clear: when webpage ignores changes in .css files, caching is to blame.

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  • PHP Shared Sessions across Domain

    - by bigstylee
    Hi, I have seen a few answers to this on SOO but most of these are concerned with the use of subdomains, of which none have worked for me. The common one being that the use of session.cookie_domain, which from my understanding will only work with subdomains. I am interested in a solution that deals with deals with entirely different domains (and includes the possibility of subdomains). Unfortunately project deadlines being what they are, time is not on my side, so I turn to SOO's expertise and experience. The current project brief is to be able to log into one site which currently only stores the user_id in the session and then be able to retrieve this value while on a different domain within the same server enviroment. Session data is being stored/retrieved from a database where the session id is the primary key. I am hoping to find a "light wieght" and "easy" to implement solution. The system is utlising an in-house Model View Controller design pattern, so all requests (including different domains) are run through a single bootstrap script. Using the domain name as a variable, this determines what context to display to the user. One option that did look like to have potential is the use of a hidden image and using the alt tag to set the user id. My first impressions suggest this immediately seems "too easy" (if possible) and riddled with security flaws. Disscuss? Another option which I considered is using the IP and User Agent for authentication but again I feel this not going to be a reliable option due to shared networks and changing IP addresses. My third option (and preferred) which I considered and as yet not seen discussed is using htaccess to fool the user into thinking that they are on a different domain when infact apache is redirecting; something like www.foo.com/index.php?domain=bar.com&controller=news/categoires/1 but displays to the user as www.bar.com/news/categories/1 foo.com represents the "main site domain" which all requests are run through and bar.com is what the user thinks they are accessing. The controller request dictates the page and view being requested. Is this possible? Are there other options? Pros/Cons? Thanks in advanced!!!

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  • Delete duplicate rows, do not preserve one row

    - by Radley
    I need a query that goes through each entry in a database, checks if a single value is duplicated elsewhere in the database, and if it is - deletes both entries (or all, if more than two). Problem is the entries are URLs, up to 255 characters, with no way of identifying the row. Some existing answers on Stackoverflow do not work for me due to performance limitations, or they use uniqueid which obviously won't work when dealing with a string. Long Version: I have two databases containing URLs (and only URLs). One database has around 3,000 urls and the other around 1,000. However, a large majority of the 1,000 urls were taken from the 3,000 url database. I need to merge the 1,000 into the 3,000 as new entries only. For this, I made a third database with combined URLs from both tables, about 4,000 entries. I need to find all duplicate entries in this database and delete them (Both of them, without leaving either). I have followed the query of a few examples on this site, but whenever I try to delete both entries it ends up deleting all the entries, or giving sql errors. Alternatively: I have two databases, each containing the separate database. I need to check each row from one database against the other to find any that aren't duplicates, and then add those to a third database. Edit: I've got my own PHP solution which is pretty hacky, but works. I cannot answer my own question for 8 hours because I'm new, so here it is for now: I went with a PHP script to accomplish this, as I'm more familiar with PHP than MySQL. This generates a simple list of urls that only exist in the target database, but not both. If you have more than 7,000 entries to parse this may take awhile, and you will need to copy/paste the results into a text file or expand the script to store them back into a database. I'm just doing it manually to save time. Note: Uses MeekroDB <pre> <?php require('meekrodb.2.1.class.php'); DB::$user = 'root'; DB::$password = ''; DB::$dbName = 'testdb'; $all = DB::query('SELECT * FROM old_urls LIMIT 7000'); foreach($all as $row) { $test = DB::query('SELECT url FROM new_urls WHERE url=%s', $row['url']); if (!is_array($test)) { echo $row['url'] . "\n"; }else{ if (count($test) == 0) { echo $row['url'] . "\n"; } } } ?> </pre>

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  • JQuery, Load() contents with plugins

    - by Galas
    I know this is not a completely new question, but none of the answers solved my problem... I have built a little menu that uses load() to load image galleries (as external html files) into a specified div ("content"). The said galleries make use of a JQuery plugin (SlideJS). Now I know that load() does not work for script tags and that I need to use $.getscript in the callback function in order to run the scripts, but it does not work. I have two .js files that need to be loaded: one is the plugin itself and another one is a smaller script with a preloader and the animations for the captions. I can't seem to merge them together; if I put them into the same document, the script won't run. So I tried just using $.getscript to load the two files. I tried using two callbacks as suggested in other answer (I know it's not ideal...): $("#proposal").click(function(){ $(this).addClass('selected'); $("a:not(:#proposal)").removeClass('selected'); $("#content").load("works/proposal/proposal.html", function(){ $.getScript("js/slide.js", function (){ $.getScript("js/slidepage.js"); }); }); }); and I tried a variable (read about it in some other faq, not sure if the syntax is correct) $("#proposal").click(function(){ $(this).addClass('selected'); $("a:not(:#proposal)").removeClass('selected'); $("#content").load("works/proposal/proposal.html", function(){ var scripts = ['js/slide.js','js/slidepage.js']; $.getScript(scripts); }); }); So none of these work. What am I doing wrong? I'm just starting on jquery and my js knowledge is very limited. Should I just merge the two .js files together using minify or something? One of them is already minified, but I've tried with a non-minified version and it does not work either. Can anyone suggest any other solution around this problem? I thought of just having the div embedded in the main document and just showing it on click, but I'll have at least 4 galleries with about 8 to 10 images each... its a lot of images to load in the main page, so I don't think its the best way. if you need me to post any more code, please ask! Thanks in advance for all your help!

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  • is this aes encryption wrapper safe ? - yet another take...

    - by user393087
    After taking into accound answers for my questions here and here I created (well may-be) improved version of my wrapper. The key issue was what if an attacker is knowing what is encoded - he might then find the key and encode another messages. So I added XOR before encryption. I also in this version prepend IV to the data as was suggested. sha256 on key is only for making sure the key is as long as needed for the aes alg, but I know that key should not be plain text but calculated with many iterations to prevent dictionary attack function aes192ctr_en($data,$key) { $iv = mcrypt_create_iv(24,MCRYPT_DEV_URANDOM); $xor = mcrypt_create_iv(24,MCRYPT_DEV_URANDOM); $key = hash_hmac('sha256',$key,$iv,true); $data = $xor.((string)$data ^ (string)str_repeat($xor,(strlen($data)/24)+1)); $data = hash('md5',$data,true).$data; return $iv.mcrypt_encrypt('rijndael-192',$key,$data,'ctr',$iv); } function aes192ctr_de($data,$key) { $iv = substr($data,0,24); $data = substr($data,24); $key = hash_hmac('sha256',$key,$iv,true); $data = mcrypt_decrypt('rijndael-192',$key,$data,'ctr',$iv); $md5 = substr($data,0,16); $data = substr($data,16); if (hash('md5',$data,true)!==$md5) return false; $xor = substr($data,0,24); $data = substr($data,24); $data = ((string)$data ^ (string)str_repeat($xor,(strlen($data)/24)+1)); return $data; } $encrypted = aes192ctr_en('secret text','password'); echo $encrypted; echo aes192ctr_de($encrypted,'password'); another question is if ctr mode is ok in this context, would it be better if I use cbc mode ? Again, by safe I mean if an attacter could guess password if he knows exact text that was encrypted and knows above method. I assume random and long password here. Maybe instead of XOR will be safer to random initial data with another run of aes or other simpler alg like TEA or trivium ?

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