Search Results

Search found 6149 results on 246 pages for 'concept mapping'.

Page 203/246 | < Previous Page | 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210  | Next Page >

  • PHP + MYSQLI: Variable parameter/result binding with prepared statements.

    - by Brian Warshaw
    In a project that I'm about to wrap up, I've written and implemented an object-relational mapping solution for PHP. Before the doubters and dreamers cry out "how on earth?", relax -- I haven't found a way to make late static binding work -- I'm just working around it in the best way that I possibly can. Anyway, I'm not currently using prepared statements for querying, because I couldn't come up with a way to pass a variable number of arguments to the bind_params() or bind_result() methods. Why do I need to support a variable number of arguments, you ask? Because the superclass of my models (think of my solution as a hacked-up PHP ActiveRecord wannabe) is where the querying is defined, and so the find() method, for example, doesn't know how many parameters it would need to bind. Now, I've already thought of building an argument list and passing a string to eval(), but I don't like that solution very much -- I'd rather just implement my own security checks and pass on statements. Does anyone have any suggestions (or success stories) about how to get this done? If you can help me solve this first problem, perhaps we can tackle binding the result set (something I suspect will be more difficult, or at least more resource-intensive if it involves an initial query to determine table structure).

    Read the article

  • why is OOP hard for me?

    - by netrox
    I have trouble writing OOP in PHP... I understand the concept but I never create classes for my projects... mainly because it's often a small project and nothing complex. But when I read OOP, it seems more difficult to code than writing simple procedural statements. It also seems to take a lot of room as well with so many empty abstract classes and that can be easily lost in the land of objects... it's becoming like a junkyard to me. Also, I noticed that virtually all instructions on how to use OOP use "car" or "cat" or "dog" analogies. Hello... we're not dealing with animals or cars... we're dealing with windows or consoles. You can talk about analogies to death and I will never learn. What I want is see a code that's written to show how objects are created - not, "aCow-moo!" For example, I want to see a browser window object displaying say... three inputs. I want to see an "object" created to output a window with three inputs then I want to see how overriding works, like change the window object to display only two inputs instead of three inputs. I think that would make learning more easy, wouldn't it? Any recommended tutorials of that nature instead of quacks, moos, and woofs.

    Read the article

  • Optimize LINQ Query for use with jQuery Autocomplete

    - by rockinthesixstring
    I'm working on building an HTTPHandler that will serve up plain text for use with jQuery Autocomplete. I have it working now except for when I insert the first bit of text it does not take me to the right portion of the alphabet. Example: If I enter Ne my drop down returns Nlabama Arkansas Notice the "N" from Ne and the "labama" from "Alabama" As I type the third character New, then the jQuery returns the "N" section of the results. My current code looks like this Public Sub ProcessRequest(ByVal context As System.Web.HttpContext) Implements System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest ' the page contenttype is plain text' HttpContext.Current.Response.ContentType = "text/plain" ' store the querystring as a variable' Dim qs As Nullable(Of Integer) = Integer.TryParse(HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString("ID"), Nothing) ' use the RegionsDataContext' Using RegionDC As New DAL.RegionsDataContext 'create a (q)uery variable' Dim q As Object ' if the querystring PID is not blank' ' then we want to return results based on the PID' If Not qs Is Nothing Then ' that fit within the Parent ID' q = (From r In RegionDC.bt_Regions _ Where r.PID = qs _ Select r.Region).ToArray ' now we loop through the array' ' and write out the ressults' For Each item In q HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(item & vbCrLf) Next End If End Using End Sub So where I'm at now is the fact that I stumbled on the "Part" portion of the Autocomplete method whereby I should only return information that is contained within the Part. My question is, how would I implement this concept into my HTTPHandler without doing a fresh SQLQuery on every character change? IE: I do the SQL Query on the QueryString("ID"), and then on every subsequent load of the same ID, we just filter down the "Part". http://www.example.com/ReturnRegions.axd?ID=[someID]&Part=[string]

    Read the article

  • WCF - Contract Name could not be found in the list of contracts

    - by user208662
    Hello, I am relatively new to WCF. However, I need to create a service that exposes data to both Silverlight and AJAX client applications. In an attempt to accomplish this, I have created the following service to serve as a proof of concept: [ServiceContract(Namespace="urn:MyCompany.MyProject.Services")] public interface IJsonService { [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat=WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] List<String> JsonFindNames(); } [ServiceContract(Namespace="urn:MyCompany.MyProject.Services")] public interface IWsService { [OperationContract(Name="FindNames")] List<String> WsFindNames(); } [ServiceBehavior(Name="myService", Namespace="urn:MyCompany.MyProject.Services")] public class myService : IJsonService, IWsService { public List<String> JsonFindNames() { return FindNames(); } public List<String> WsFindNames() { return FindNames(name); } public List<string> FindNames() { List<string> names = List<string>(); names.Add("Alan"); names.Add("Bill"); return results; } } When I try to access this service, I receive the following error: The contract name 'myService' could not be found in the list of contracts implemented by the service 'myService'. What is the cause of this? How do I fix this? Thank you

    Read the article

  • How do I use price data in one table for a calculation that is stored in another table?

    - by shane
    I'm still leanring PHP/MySQL but have learned quite a bit thanks to codies on StackOverflow. I'm trying to setup a sort of room reservations system using two tables: SETUP: Room price table: Has, prices for a type room a client may want to rent as well as the dates (day of week) they wish to use it. Pricing varies based on day of the week and per room. I've setup a different table for each room type as each room type carries different pricing for each day of the week. So, There is an Alpha room table, Bravo room, etc. Within Alpha table are headers for the days of the week with pricing pre-entered into the rows. Client info table: Has the name, address, date of room use, etc data for the specific client. EXAMPLE: Alpha-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Bravo-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Client data table: ClientName; date-of-room-use; address; day_subtotal; grand_total. QUESTION: I'm trying to find PHP code that will: look at the date of room use in the client data table, look up the associated cost for that date in the specific room pricing table, record that unit cost in the day subtotal of the client data table and sum a grand total in the grand total row of the client data table (assuming the room may be used more than one day by the customer). I know there's something to do with join but I'm finding it difficult to grasp the concept and, if someone can demonstrate using this example, I think I will have a better understanding of how to work this sort of transaction. Thank you ALL in advance for your suggestions or alternatvie approaches.

    Read the article

  • Behavior of <- NULL on lists versus data.frames for removing data

    - by Ananda Mahto
    Many R users eventually figure out lots of ways to remove elements from their data. One way is to use NULL, particularly when you want to do something like drop a column from a data.frame or drop an element from a list. Eventually, a user comes across a situation where they want to drop several columns from a data.frame at once, and they hit upon <- list(NULL) as the solution (since using <- NULL will result in an error). A data.frame is a special type of list, so it wouldn't be too tough to imagine that the approaches for removing items from a list should be the same as removing columns from a data.frame. However, they produce different results, as can be seen in the example below. ## Make some small data--two data.frames and two lists cars1 <- cars2 <- head(mtcars)[1:4] cars3 <- cars4 <- as.list(cars2) ## Demonstration that the `list(NULL)` approach works cars1[c("mpg", "cyl")] <- list(NULL) cars1 # disp hp # Mazda RX4 160 110 # Mazda RX4 Wag 160 110 # Datsun 710 108 93 # Hornet 4 Drive 258 110 # Hornet Sportabout 360 175 # Valiant 225 105 ## Demonstration that simply using `NULL` does not work cars2[c("mpg", "cyl")] <- NULL # Error in `[<-.data.frame`(`*tmp*`, c("mpg", "cyl"), value = NULL) : # replacement has 0 items, need 12 Switch to applying the same concept to a list, and compare the difference in behavior. ## Does not fully drop the items, but sets them to `NULL` cars3[c("mpg", "cyl")] <- list(NULL) # $mpg # NULL # # $cyl # NULL # # $disp # [1] 160 160 108 258 360 225 # # $hp # [1] 110 110 93 110 175 105 ## *Does* drop the `list` items while this would ## have produced an error with a `data.frame` cars4[c("mpg", "cyl")] <- NULL # $disp # [1] 160 160 108 258 360 225 # # $hp # [1] 110 110 93 110 175 105 The main questions I have are, if a data.frame is a list, why does it behave so differently in this scenario? Is there a foolproof way of knowing when an element will be dropped, when it will produce an error, and when it will simply be given a NULL value? Or do we depend on trial-and-error for this?

    Read the article

  • Is WordPress MVC compliant?

    - by kovshenin
    Some people consider WordPress a blogging platform, some think of it as a CMS, some refer to WordPress as a development framework. Whichever it is, the question still remains. Is WordPress MVC compliant? I've read the forums and somebody asked about MVC about three years ago. There were some positive answers, and some negative ones. While nobody knows exactly what MVC is and everybody thinks of it in their own way, there's still a general concept that's present in all the discussions. I have little experience with MVC frameworks and there doesn't seem to be anything about the framework itself. Most of the MVC is done by the programmer, am I right? Now, going back to WordPress, could we consider the core rewrite engine (WP_Rewrite) the controller? Queries & plugin logic as the model? And themes as the view? Or am I getting it all wrong? Thanks ;)

    Read the article

  • Calling DI Container directly in method code (MVC Actions)

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I'm playing with DI (using Unity). I've learned how to do Constructor and Property injection. I have a static container exposed through a property in my Global.asax file (MvcApplication class). I have a need for a number of different objects in my Controller. It doesn't seem right to inject these throught the constructor, partly because of the high quantity of them, and partly because they are only needed in some Actions methods. The question is, is there anything wrong with just calling my container directly from within the Action methods? public ActionResult Foo() { IBar bar = (Bar)MvcApplication.Container.Resolve(IBar); // ... Bar uses a default constructor, I'm not actually doing any // injection here, I'm just telling my conatiner to give me Bar // when I ask for IBar so I can hide the existence of the concrete // Bar from my Controller. } This seems the simplest and most efficient way of doing things, but I've never seen an example used in this way. Is there anything wrong with this? Am I missing the concept in some way?

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc stand alone ascx control how do i link (css and js) most efficiently

    - by Julian
    Hi, I need some advice. I have developed some asp.net mvc web pages. Each page has a master and some ascx controls (between 2 - 6) embedded into it a js and css file. Up to now every thing was fine. In order to improve modularity, flexibility and testability the ascx's are now expected to be able to work as stand alone controls. (Each ascx has also got its own css and js files in some cases it has another control inside it) In order to meet this requirement we call the controller with the relevant parameters and it returns the ascx (partial) directly to the browser without all of the other parts of the original page . In order to get it to display correctly (css) and act correctly (js/jquery) all of the relevant files need to be added (as links or scripts eg. href="<%= ResolveUrl(styleSheet)%>") to the user control. This is "contradicting" the concept of positioning the files at the most logical place (could be the master page for example). How can I overcome this problem? Keep in mind that this is relevant for each "control" ascx file. Any thoughts will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to use Grails Spring Security Plugin to require logging in before access an action?

    - by Hoàng Long
    Hi all, I know that I can use annotation or Request mapping to restrict access to an ACTION by some specific ROLES. But now I have a different circumstance. My scenario is: every user of my site can create posts, and they can make their own post public, private, or only share to some other users. I implement sharing post by a database table PERMISSION, which specify if a user have the right to view a post or not. The problem arises here is that when a customer access a post through a direct link, how can I determine he/she have the privilege to view it? There's 3 circumstances: The post is public, so it can be viewed by anyone (include not-login user) The post is private, so only the login-owner can view it The post is sharing, it means only the login-user that is shared and the owner can view it. I want to process like this: If the requested post is public: ok. If the requested post is private/sharing: I want to redirect the customer to the login page; after logging in, the user will be re-direct to the page he wants to see. The problem here is that I can redirect the user to login controller/ auth action, but after that I don't know how to redirect it back. The link to every post is different by post_id, so I can't use SpringSecurityUtils.securityConfig.successHandler.defaultTargetUrl Could anyone know a way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Moving front page (cursebird or foursquare)

    - by Dan Samuels
    Ok so I'll be honest, I have a good amount of experience with php/mysql, I've just started learning jQuery and I've done very little, but some with ajax. So using the terms ajax/jquery interchangeably are a bit confusing to me. Anyway as the title suggest I have a website with 5 items, and I want them to move (meaning, if a more recent one is entered, remove the last item, and put the new one on top), they are 5 of the most recent items in the database table, now I've coded jquery as a test so it fades out the last one, the whole thing moves down, makes room at the top, and fades in a new one. However, it's a test and has 0 interaction with the database, the one that fades in is just in a hidden div. So the jQuery part is taken care of. So I'm unsure how to go about this, I was thinking maybe have ajax check a website off the page that has those 5 items in raw format, and if they change then to refresh? Not looking for a "plz code 4 me" answer, just the concept of how it would work, or some links to get off to the right start. edit - Also, the 5 items are ranked, so if I click item 3 I need it to move above item 2 refreshlessly, so this causes a whole other issue I assume.

    Read the article

  • How to deal with clients and iterations in Agile team?

    - by Ondrej Slinták
    This thread is a follow up to my previous one. It's in fact 2 questions, so I hope no one minds, as they are dependent on each other. We are starting a new project at work and we consider it as a great opportunity to try Agile techniques in action. We had a brainstorming about ideas we read in several books and articles, and came up with concept that would suit us the best: 2 weeks iteration, followed by call with clients who would choose what stuff they want to have in next iteration. I just have few more questions, which we couldn't figure out ourselves. What to do in the first iteration? What to, generally, do in the first few iterations if we start from the scratch? Just give it a month of development to code core of the application or start with simple wire-frames with limited pre-coded functionality? What usually clients want to see? Shiny stuff that doesn't work or ugly stuff that does work? How to communicate with clients? Our initial thought it to set the process to something like this: Is it a good idea to have a Focal Point on client side or is it better to communicate straight with all the clients to prevent miscommunication? Any thoughts are welcome! Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Animation is slow on iPhone

    - by Anthony Chan
    I'm developing an app that would display images and change them according to the user's action. I've created a subclass of UIView to contain an image, an index number and an array of image names. The code is like this: @interface CustomPic : UIView { UIImageView *pic; NSInteger index; NSMutableArray *picNames; //<-- an array of NSString } And in the implementation part, it has a method to change the image using a dissolve effect. - (void)nextPic { index++; if (index >= [picNames count]) { index = 0; } UIImageView *temp = pic; pic.image = [UIImage imageNamed:[picNames objectAtIndex:index]]; temp.alpha = 0; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseOut]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.25]; pic.alpha = 0; temp.alpha = 1; [UIView commitAnimations]; } In the viewController, there are several CustomPic which would change the images depends on users' choice. The images would change as expected with the fade in/out effect, but the animation performance is really bad. I've tested it on an iPhone 3G, the Instruments shows that the animation is only 2-3FPS! I tried many methods to simplify and modify the codes but with no hope. Is there something wrong in my code or in my concept? Thanks for any help. P.S. all the images are 320*480 PNGs with a max size of 15KB.

    Read the article

  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

    Read the article

  • Spring 2.0.0/2.0.6 to 3.0.5 migration stories

    - by Pangea
    We are in the process of migrating to 3.0.5 of spring from 2.0.x. We mainly use spring in below scenarios custom scope: thread local scope persistence: jdbc+hibernate 3.6 (but moving to mix of ejb 3.0+jpa 2.0+hibernate, not sure if all 3 can co-exist in 1 app) transactions: local (but planning to use jta due to the necessity of using multiple persistence inits, and has to use ejb+jpa+hibernate in 1 single trans), declarative trans mgmt parent-child contexts cxf annotations+xml OracleLobHandler Resource/ResourceBundleMessageResource JSF/Facelets with FacesSpringVariableResolver ActiveMQ integration Quartz integration TaskExecutor JMX exporter HttpExporter/Invoker Appreciate if someone can share their experiences like what to watch out for head aches/pain points which ones to drop for better alternate choices in new 3.0.5 release Is it better to switch from commons/iscreen validator to Hibernate Validator (Spec impl) or Spring Validator Is there a bean mapping framework in spring that i can use instead of Dozer XSLT transformation helper: currently we have small homegrown framework to cache xslts during load. if spring can do that for me then I would like to drop this Encryption/Decryption support. Password generation support. Authentication with SALT any SAML (or claims based secur New ideas Suggestions Switch to latest version of aspectj Upgrade guide from 2.5 to 3.0.5

    Read the article

  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

    Read the article

  • How to Specify Columntype in fluent nHibernate?

    - by Bipul
    I have a class CaptionItem public class CaptionItem { public virtual int SystemId { get; set; } public virtual int Version { get; set; } protected internal virtual IDictionary<string, string> CaptionValues {get; private set;} } I am using following code for nHibernate mapping Id(x => x.SystemId); Version(x => x.Version); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.CaptionValues) .KeyColumn("CaptionItem_Id") .AsMap<string>(idx => idx.Column("CaptionSet_Name"), elem => elem.Column("Text")) .Not.LazyLoad() .Cascade.Delete() .Table("CaptionValue") .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); So in database two tables get created. One CaptionValue and other CaptionItem. In CaptionItem table has three columns 1. CaptionItem_Id int 2. Text nvarchar(255) 3. CaptionSet_Name nvarchar(255) Now, my question is how can I make the columnt type of Text to nvarchar(max)? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

    - by Ankit
    I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

    Read the article

  • Grails g:paginate tag and custom URL

    - by aboxy
    Hello, I am trying to use g:paginate in a shared template where depending on the controller, url changes e.g. For my homepage url should be : mydomain[DOT]com/news/recent/(1..n) For search Page: www[DOT]mydomain[DOT]com/search/query/"ipad apps"/filter/this month and my g:paginate looks like this: g:paginate controller=${customeController} action=${customAction} total:${total} For the first case, I was able to provide controller as 'news' and action as 'recent' and mapped url /news/recent/$offset to my controller. But for the search page, I am not able to achieve what I want to do. I have a URL mapping defined as /search/$filter**(controller:"search",action:"fetch") $filter can be /query/"ipad apps"/filter/thismonth/filter/something/filter/somethingelse. I want to be able to show the url as above rather than ?query="ipad apps"&filter=thismonth&filter=something&filter=somethingelse. I believe I can pass all the parameters in params attribute of g:paginate but that will not give me pretty URL. What would be the best way to achieve this? Please feel free to ask questions If i missed anything.Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

    Read the article

  • MonoRail CheckboxList?

    - by Justin
    I'm trying to use a Checkboxlist in MonoRail to represent a many to many table relationship. There is a Special table, SpecialTag table, and then a SpecialTagging table which is the many to many mapping table between Special and SpecialTag. Here is an excerpt from the Special model class: [HasAndBelongsToMany(typeof(SpecialTag), Table = "SpecialTagging", ColumnKey = "SpecialId", ColumnRef = "SpecialTagId")] public IList<SpecialTag> Tags { get; set; } And then in my add/edit special view: $Form.LabelFor("special.Tags", "Tags")<br/> #set($items = $FormHelper.CreateCheckboxList("special.Tags", $specialTags)) #foreach($specialTag in $items) $items.Item("$specialTag.Id") $Form.LabelFor("$specialTag.Id", $specialTag.Name) #end The checkboxlist renders correctly, but if I select some and then click Save, it doesn't save the special/tag associations to the SpecialTagging table (the entity passed to the Save controller action has an empty Tags list.) One thing I noticed was that the name and value attributes on the checkboxes are funky: <label for="special_Tags">Tags</label><br> <input id="3" name="special.Tags[0]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="3">Buy 1 Get 1 Free</label> <input id="1" name="special.Tags[1]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="1">Free</label> <input id="2" name="special.Tags[2]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="2">Half Price</label> <input id="5" name="special.Tags[3]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="5">Live Music</label> <input id="4" name="special.Tags[4]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="4">Outdoor Seating</label> Anyone have any ideas? Thanks! Justin

    Read the article

  • How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Membership, Get new UserID

    - by Vishal Bharakhda
    I am trying to register a new user and also understand how to get the new userID so i can start creating my own user tables with a userID mapping to the asp.net membership user table. Below is my code: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Register(string userName, string email, string position, string password, string confirmPassword) { ViewData["PasswordLength"] = MembershipService.MinPasswordLength; ViewData["position"] = new SelectList(GetDeveloperPositionList()); if (ValidateRegistration(userName, email, position, password, confirmPassword)) { // Attempt to register the user MembershipCreateStatus createStatus = MembershipService.CreateUser(userName, password, email); if (createStatus == MembershipCreateStatus.Success) { FormsAuth.SignIn(userName, false /* createPersistentCookie */); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("_FORM", ErrorCodeToString(createStatus)); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(); } I've done some research and many sites inform me to use Membership.GetUser().ProviderUserKey; but this throws an error as Membership is NULL. I placed this line of code just above "return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home");" within the if statement. Please can someone advise me on this... Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • MySQL Ratings From Two Tables

    - by DirtyBirdNJ
    I am using MySQL and PHP to build a data layer for a flash game. Retrieving lists of levels is pretty easy, but I've hit a roadblock in trying to fetch the level's average rating along with it's pointer information. Here is an example data set: levels Table: level_id | level_name 1 | Some Level 2 | Second Level 3 | Third Level ratings Table: rating_id | level_id | rating_value 1 | 1 | 3 2 | 1 | 4 3 | 1 | 1 4 | 2 | 3 5 | 2 | 4 6 | 2 | 1 7 | 3 | 3 8 | 3 | 4 9 | 3 | 1 I know this requires a join, but I cannot figure out how to get the average rating value based on the level_id when I request a list of levels. This is what I'm trying to do: SELECT levels.level_id, AVG(ratings.level_rating WHERE levels.level_id = ratings.level_id) FROM levels I know my SQL is flawed there, but I can't figure out how to get this concept across. The only thing I can get to work is returning a single average from the entire ratings table, which is not very useful. Ideal Output from the above conceptually valid but syntactically awry query would be: level_id | level_rating 1| 3.34 2| 1.00 3| 4.54 My main issue is I can't figure out how to use the level_id of each response row before the query has been returned. It's like I want to use a placeholder... or an alias... I really don't know and it's very frustrating. The solution I have in place now is an EPIC band-aid and will only cause me problems long term... please help!

    Read the article

  • Accessing a share point site using the object model.

    - by Prashanth
    Hi I am trying to access a share point site using the SP object model from a console application. I am trying to do something like this.. SPSite site = new SPSite(sitePath) //Operations go here This works fine when the share point site and the console app are on the same machine. However when the console app and the site are on different machines, I get an error "The Web application at "http://server/url" could not be found. Verify that you have typed the URL correctly. If the URL should be serving existing content, the system administrator may need to add a new request URL mapping to the intended application" Here are the things that I have already done: 1) I have tried accessing the site via both IP address as well as machine name, assuming that it could be a DNS resolution issue. 2) Initially I impersonated using a farm admin account, still i could not access. Then I added myself as the farm admin, still no joy. 4) The site is accessible via IE. So it is not a permission issue I guess. 5) I have tried almost all the solutions suggested by various links obtained by googling the error message. I am trying this on share point 2010. A similar issue occurs on 2007 also. Sometimes its kind of frustrating to do SharePoint development , since I get the feeling of stumbling from one error to the next, with no clue as to what could be wrong and the error messages not being helpful in the least :(

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210  | Next Page >