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  • Organising UI code in .NET forms

    - by sb3700
    Hi I'm someone who has taught myself programming, and haven't had any formal training in .NET programming. A while back, I started C# in order to develop a GUI program to control sensors, and the project has blossomed. I was just wondering how best to organise the code, particularly UI code, in my forms. My forms currently are a mess, or at least seem a mess to me. I have a constructor which initialises all the parameters and creates events. I have a giant State property, which updates the Enabled state of all my form control as users progress through the application (ie: disconnected, connected, setup, scanning) controlled by a States enum. I have 3-10 private variables accessed through properties, some of which have side-effects in changing the values of form elements. I have a lot of "UpdateXXX" functions to handle UI elements that depend on other UI elements - ie: if a sensor is changed, then change the baud rate drop down list. They are separated into regions I have a lot of events calling these Update functions I have a background worker which does all the scanning and analysis. My problem is this seems like a mess, particularly the State property, and is getting unmaintainable. Also, my application logic code and UI code are in the same file and to some degree, intermingled which seems wrong and means I need to do a lot of scrolling to find what I need. How do you structure your .net forms? Thanks

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  • Nhibernate:null index column for collection Error

    - by Quintin Par
    I am working a subsonic to NH migration(I can’t change the schema) and while creating the mapping I came across this error null index column for collection: Company.Core.CompanyUser.Addresses My mapping from the User side is mapping.HasMany(x => x.Addresses).AsList().KeyColumn("user_id").Cascade.All().Inverse(); xml <list cascade="all" inverse="true" name="Addresses"> <key> <column name="user_id" /> </key> <index /> <one-to-many class="Company.Core.CompanyAddress, Company.Core, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </list> On the Address side it is mapping.CompositeId().KeyReference(x => x.User, "user_id").KeyProperty(x => x.Type); xml <composite-id mapped="false" unsaved-value="undefined"> <key-property name="Type" type="System.String, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <column name="Type" /> </key-property> <key-many-to-one name="User" class="Company.Core.CompanyUser, Company.Core, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"> <column name="user_id" /> </key-many-to-one> </composite-id> When I try to load this collection as user.Addresses I get the index null exception. How do I fix this error?

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  • Spring Data Neo4J @Indexed(unique = true) not working

    - by Markus Lamm
    I'm new to Neo4J and I have, probably an easy question. There're NodeEntitys in my application, a property (name) is annotated with @Indexed(unique = true) to achieve the uniqueness like I do in JPA with @Column(unique = true). My problem is, that when I persist an entity with a name that already exists in my graph, it works fine anyway. But I expected some kind of exception here...?! Here' s an overview over basic my code: @NodeEntity public abstract class BaseEntity implements Identifiable { @GraphId private Long entityId; ... } public class Role extends BaseEntity { @Indexed(unique = true) private String name; ... } public interface RoleRepository extends GraphRepository<Role> { Role findByName(String name); } @Service public class RoleServiceImpl extends BaseEntityServiceImpl<Role> implements { private RoleRepository repository; @Override @Transactional public T save(final T entity) { return getRepository().save(entity); } } And this is my test: @Test public void testNameUniqueIndex() { final List<Role> roles = Lists.newLinkedList(service.findAll()); final String existingName = roles.get(0).getName(); Role newRole = new Role.Builder(existingName).build(); newRole = service.save(newRole); } That's the point where I expect something to go wrong! How can I ensure the uniqueness of a property, without checking it for myself?? THANKS IN ADVANCE FOR ANY IDEAS!! P.S.: I'm using neo4j 1.8.M07, spring-data-neo4j 2.1.0.BUILD-SNAPSHOT and Spring 3.1.2.RELEASE.

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  • How do you Bind to a ComboBox in a DataTemplate?

    - by discwiz
    I have a listbox that is bound to an observable collection of Audio (custom class). The Audio class has two properties, DisplayText (string) and a property called TarpIds (Observable Collection of Integer). I need to allow the user to change the TarpID in the combo box for each list item displayed and catch the selection change. I created a DataTemplate that styles the DisplayText property from the Audio object and adds a ComboBox to display the available TarpIDs for this audio (These are dynamic and unique to each Audio). The DisplayText works great, but I can not get the TarpIDs to display in the ComboBox. Here is what I have so far and thanks for any help. FYI I set the ItemSource at run time that binds the ListUploadAudio to the Observable Collection of Audio. <Border BorderBrush="Red" Background="WhiteSmoke" CornerRadius="8"> <Border.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="UploadLayout" DataType="Audio"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=DisplayText}" FontWeight="Bold" Foreground="Blue"> </TextBlock> <ComboBox x:Name="ListBoxTarpIDs" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=TarpIds}"> </ComboBox> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </Border.Resources> <ListBox x:Name="ListUploadAudio" BorderBrush="Transparent" Background="Transparent" Width="230" Margin="10" Height="200" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" SelectionMode="Multiple" ItemTemplate="{DynamicResource UploadLayout}"> </ListBox> </Border>

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  • Create lambda action from function expression

    - by Martin Robins
    It is relatively easy to create a lambda function that will return the value of a property from an object, even including deep properties... Func<Category, string> getCategoryName = new Func<Category, string>(c => c.Name); and this can be called as follows... string categoryName = getCategoryName(this.category); But, given only the resulting function above (or the expression originally used to create the function), can anybody provide an easy way to create the opposing action... Action<Category, string> setCategoryName = new Action<Category, string>((c, s) => c.Name = s); ...that will enable the same property value to be set as follows? setCategoryName(this.category, ""); Note that I am looking for a way to create the action programatically from the function or expression - I hope that I have shown that I already know how to create it manually. I am open to answers that work in both .net 3.5 and 4.0. Thanks.

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  • Windows Phone 7, login screen redirect and a case for .exit?

    - by Jarrette
    I know this has been discussed ad nauseum, but I want to present my case.... 1. My start page in my app is login.xaml. The user logs in, the username and password are authenticated through my WCF service, the username is saved in isolated storage, and then the user is redirected to mainpage.xaml. When a user starts my app, and they already have a saved username in isolated storage, they are redirected to mainpage.xaml If the user hit's "back" hard button from mainpage.xaml, they are redirected to the login screen, which in turn redirects them back to the mainpage.xaml since they already have a saved local username. This is causing my app to fail certification currently since the user cannot hit the "back" button to exit the app from mainpage.xaml. My instinct here is to override the BackKeyPress in mainpage.xaml and exit the app somehow. By reading the other posts, I can see that this method is not available. My second idea was to somehow store a property in the app.xaml.cs page that would tell the app to exit when the login page is loaded and that property is set to true, but that seems a bit hacky as well.... Any ideas here?

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  • Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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  • Hibernate Search + Spring

    - by Zane
    I'm trying to integrate Hibernate Search with Spring, but I can't seem to index anything. I was able to get Hibernate Search to work without Spring, but I'm having a problem integrating it with Spring. Any help would be much appreciated. Below is my springmvc-servlet.xml: <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="enewsclipsPersistenceUnit" /> </bean> And here is my DAO class: @Repository public class SearchDaoImpl implements SearchDao { JpaTemplate jpaTemplate; @Autowired public SearchDaoImpl(EntityManagerFactory entityManagerFactory) { this.jpaTemplate = new JpaTemplate(entityManagerFactory); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public void updateSearchIndex() { /* Implement the callback method */ jpaTemplate.execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { List<Article> articles = em.createQuery("select a from Article a").getResultList(); FullTextEntityManager ftEm = Search.getFullTextEntityManager(em); ftEm.getTransaction().begin(); for(Article article : articles) { System.out.println("Indexing Item " + article.getTitle()); ftEm.index(article); } ftEm.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); } } I think that it may have to do with the transactions but I'm not exactly sure. If you could just point me in the right direction, that would be helpful too! Thank you.

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  • How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

    - by Michel
    Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

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  • JSON to javaScript array

    - by saturn_research
    I'm having a problem handling JSON data within JavaScript, specifically in regards to using the data as an array and accessing and iterating through individual values. The JSON file is structured as follows: { "head": { "vars": [ "place" , "lat" , "long" , "page" ] } , "results": { "bindings": [ { "place": { "type": "literal" , "value": "Building A" } , "lat": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "10.3456" } , "long": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "-1.2345" } , "page": { "type": "uri" , "value": "http://www.example.com/a.html" } } , { "place": { "type": "literal" , "value": "Building B" } , "lat": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "11.3456" } , "long": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "-2.2345" } , "page": { "type": "uri" , "value": "http://www.example.com/b.html" } } , { "place": { "type": "literal" , "value": "Building C" } , "lat": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "12.3456" } , "long": { "datatype": "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema#float" , "type": "typed-literal" , "value": "-3.2345" } , "page": { "type": "uri" , "value": "http://www.example.com/c.html" } } ] } } I want to be able to convert this into a JavaScript array as follows in order that I can iterate through it and pull out the values for each location in order: var locations = [ ['Building A',10.3456,-1.2345,'http://www.example.com/a.html'], ['Building B',11.3456,-2.2345,'http://www.example.com/b.html'], ['Building C',12.3456,-3.2345,'http://www.example.com/c.html'] ]; Does anyone have any advice on how to achieve this? I have tried the following, but it picks up the "type" within the JSON, rather than just the value: $.each(JSONObject.results.bindings, function(i, object) { $.each(object, function(property, object) { $.each(object, function(property, value) { value; }); }); }); Any help, suggestions, advice or corrections would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Batch insert mode with hibernate and oracle: seems to be dropping back to slow mode silently

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to get a batch insert working with Hibernate into Oracle, according to what i've read here: http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/core/3.3/reference/en/html/batch.html , but with my benchmarking it doesn't seem any faster than before. Can anyone suggest a way to prove whether hibernate is using batch mode or not? I hear that there are numerous reasons why it may silently drop into normal mode (eg associations and generated ids) so is there some way to find out why it has gone non-batch? My hibernate.cfg.xml contains this line which i believe is all i need to enable batch mode: <property name="jdbc.batch_size">50</property> My insert code looks like this: List<LogEntry> entries = ..a list of 100 LogEntry data classes... Session sess = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); for(LogEntry e : entries) { sess.save(e); } sess.flush(); sess.clear(); My 'logentry' class has no associations, the only interesting field is the id: @Entity @Table(name="log_entries") public class LogEntry { @Id @GeneratedValue public Long id; ..other fields - strings and ints... However, since it is oracle, i believe the @GeneratedValue will use the sequence generator. And i believe that only the 'identity' generator will stop bulk inserts. So if anyone can explain why it isn't running in batch mode, or how i can find out for sure if it is or isn't in batch mode, or find out why hibernate is silently dropping back to slow mode, i'd be most grateful. Thanks

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  • JSON Array Created in PHP/MySQL incorrectly decoded using JQuery

    - by Zak
    I am attempting to make an AJAX call to a very small PHP script that should return me an array that could be echo'd and decoded using JQuery. Here is what I have: My PHP page called to by AJAX: $web_q=mysql_query("select * from sec_u_g where uid='$id' "); $rs = array(); while($rs[] = mysql_fetch_assoc($web_q)) { } print_r(json_encode($rs)); This outputs: [{"id":"3","uid":"39","gid":"16"},{"id":"4","uid":"39","gid":"4"},{"id":"5","uid":"39","gid":"5"},{"id":"6","uid":"39","gid":"6"},{"id":"7","uid":"39","gid":"7"},{"id":"8","uid":"39","gid":"8"},{"id":"9","uid":"39","gid":"9"},false] I don't understand the "false" at the end for one .. But then I send to to JQuery and use: $.each(json.result, function(i, object) { $.each(object, function(property, value) { alert(property + "=" + value); }); }); This just fails. I try to alert "result" by itself which is set by: $.post("get_ug.php",{id:txt},function(result){ }); My output alerts are as follows: 1) The key is '0' and the value is '[' 2) The key is '1' and the value is 'f' 3) The key is '2' and the value is 'a' 4) The key is '3' and the value is 'l' 5) The key is '4' and the value is 's' 6) The key is '5' and the value is 'e' 7) The key is '6' and the value is ']' 8) The key is '7' and the value is ' ' (<-- Yes the line break is there in the alert) I am exhausted from trying different ideas and scripts. Other than setting a delimiter myself and concatenating my own array and decoding it with a custom script, does anyone have any ideas?? Thank you!!

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  • Which is the correct design pattern for my PHP application?

    - by user1487141
    I've been struggling to find good way to implement my system which essentially matches the season and episode number of a show from a string, you can see the current working code here: https://github.com/huddy/tvfilename I'm currently rewriting this library and want a nicer way to implement how the the match happens, currently essentially the way it works is: There's a folder with classes in it (called handlers), every handler is a class that implements an interface to ensure a method called match(); exists, this match method uses the regex stored in a property of that handler class (of which there are many) to try and match a season and episode. The class loads all of these handlers by instantiating each one into a array stored in a property, when I want to try and match some strings the method iterates over these objects calling match(); and the first one that returns true is then returned in a result set with the season and episode it matched. I don't really like this way of doing it, it's kind of hacky to me, and I'm hoping a design pattern can help, my ultimate goal is to do this using best practices and I wondered which one I should use? The other problems that exist are: More than one handler could match a string, so they have to be in an order to prevent the more greedy ones matching first, not sure if this is solvable as some of the regex patterns have to be greedy, but possibly a score system, something that shows a percentage of how likely the match is correct, i'd have no idea how to actually implement this though. I'm not if instantiating all those handlers is a good way of doing it, speed is important, but using best practices and sticking to design patterns to create good, extensible and maintainable code is my ultimate priority. It's worth noting the handler classes sometimes do other things than just regex matching, they sometimes prep the string to be matched by removing common words etc. Cheers for any help Billy

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  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

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  • Detect whether or not a specific attribute was valid on the model

    - by Sir Code-A-Lot
    Having created my own validation attribute deriving from System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute, I wish to be able to detect from my controller, whether or not that specific attribute was valid on the model. My setup: public class MyModel { [Required] [CustomValidation] [SomeOtherValidation] public string SomeProperty { get; set; } } public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // Custom validation logic here } } Now, how do I detect from the controller whether validation of CustomValidationAttribute succeeded or not? I have been looking at the Exception property of ModelError in the ModelState, but I have no way of adding a custom exception to it from my CustomValidationAttribute. Right now I have resorted to checking for a specific error message in the ModelState: public ActionResult PostModel(MyModel model) { if(ModelState.Where(i => i.Value.Errors.Where((e => e.ErrorMessage == CustomValidationAttribute.SharedMessage)).Any()).Any()) DoSomeCustomStuff(); // The rest of the action here } And changed my CustomValidationAttribute to: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public static string SharedMessage = "CustomValidationAttribute error"; public override bool IsValid(object value) { ErrorMessage = SharedMessage; // Custom validation logic here } } I don't like relying on string matching, and this way the ErrorMessage property is kind of misused. What are my options?

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  • Added CAGradientLayer, getting this in my UIView dealloc: [CALayer release]: message sent to deallocated instance

    - by developerdoug
    Here there, I have a custom UIView. This view acts as a activity indicator but as label above the UIActivityIndicatorView. In the init, I add a CAGradientLayer. I allocate and initialize it and insert it at index 0 as a sublayer of the UIView layer property. In my dealloc method was called, I received a message in the console: - [CALayer release]: message sent to deallocated instance. My code: @interface LabelActivityIndicatorView () { UILabel *_label; UIActivityIndicatorView *_activityIndicatorView; CAGradientLayer *_gradientLayer; } @end @implementation LabelActivityIndicatorView //dealloc - (void) dealloc { [_label release]; [_activityIndicatorView release]; //even tried to remove the layer [_gradientLayer removeFromSuperLayer]; [_gradientLayer release]; [super dealloc]; } // init - (id) initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ( (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) ) { // init the label // init the gradient layer _gradientLayer = [[CAGradientLayer alloc] init]; [_gradientLayer setBounds:[self bounds]]; [_gradientLayer setPosition:CGPointMake(frame.size.width/2, frame.size.height/2)]; [[self layer] insertSublayer:_gradientLayer atIndex:0]; [[self layer] setNeedsDisplay]; } return self; } @end Anyone have any ideas. Since I'm allocating and initializing the gradient layer I'm responsible for releasing it. I should be able to alloc and init and assign to some ivar. Perhaps I should create a property with retain on it. Thanks,

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  • PHP Object Access Syntax Question with the $

    - by ImperialLion
    I've been having trouble searching for this answer because I am not quite sure how to phrase it. I am new to PHP and still getting my feet on the ground. I was writing a page with a class in it that had the property name. When I originally wrote the page there was no class so I just had a variable called $name. When I went to encapsulate it in a class I accidental changed it to be $myClass->$name. It tool me a while to realize that the syntax I needed was $myClass->name. The reason it took so long was the error I kept getting was "Attempt to access a null property" or something along those lines. The error lead me to believe it was a data population error. My question is does $myClass->$name have a valid meaning? In other words is there a time you would use this and a reason why it doesn't create a syntax error? If so what is the semantic meaning of that code? When would I use it if it is valid? If its not valid, is there a reason that it doesn't create a syntax error?

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  • Why are controls (null) in awakeFromNib?

    - by fuzzygoat
    This is a follow on from another question regarding why I could not set UIControls in awakeFromNib. The answer to that is that as you can see below the controls are nil in the awakeFromNib, although they are initialised to the correct objects by the time we get to viewDidLoad. I setup the view the same as I always do, should I be doing something different to access them here, the xib(nib) was designed and saved with the current version of Image Builder. CODE: @interface iPhone_TEST_AwakeFromNibViewController : UIViewController { UILabel *myLabel; UIImageView *myView; } @property(nonatomic, retain)IBOutlet UILabel *myLabel; @property(nonatomic, retain)IBOutlet UIImageView *myView; @end . @synthesize myLabel; @synthesize myView; -(void)awakeFromNib { NSLog(@"awakeFromNib ..."); NSLog(@"myLabel: %@", [myLabel class]); NSLog(@"myView : %@", [myView class]); //[myLabel setText:@"AWAKE"]; [super awakeFromNib]; } -(void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"viewDidLoad ..."); NSLog(@"myLabel: %@", [myLabel class]); NSLog(@"myView : %@", [myView class]); //[myLabel setText:@"VIEW"]; [super viewDidLoad]; } OUTPUT: awakeFromNib ... myLabel: (null) myView : (null) viewDidLoad ... myLabel: UILabel myLabel: UIImageView Much appreciated ... gary

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  • Should we point to an NSManagedObject entity with weak instead of strong pointer?

    - by Jim Thio
    I think because NSManagedObject is managed by the managedObject context the pointer should be weak. Yet it often goes back to 0 in my cases. for (CategoryNearby * CN in sorted) { //[arrayOfItems addObject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ - %d",CN.name,[CN.order intValue]]]; NearbyShortcutTVC * tvc=[[NearbyShortcutTVC alloc]init]; tvc.categoryNearby =CN; // tvc.titleString=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",CN.name]; // tvc.displayed=CN.displayed; [arrayOfItemsLocal addObject:tvc]; //CN PO(tvc); PO(tvc.categoryNearby); while (false); } self.arrayOfItems = arrayOfItemsLocal; PO(self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems); [self.tableViewa reloadData]; ... Yet somewhere down the line: tvc.categoryNearby becomes nil. I do not know how or when or where it become nil. How do I debug this? Or should the reference be strong instead? This is the interface of NearbyShortcutTVC by the way @interface NearbyShortcutTVC : BGBaseTableViewCell{ } @property (weak, nonatomic) CategoryNearby * categoryNearby; @end To make sure that we're talking about the same object I print all the memory addresses of the NSArray They're both the exact same object. But somehow the categoryNearby property of the object is magically set to null somewhere. self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 ) self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 )

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  • WPF Single Selection Across Multiple ItemsControls

    - by gregsdennis
    Part of my app has a month-view calendar interface, but I'm having trouble with item selection. The interface is set up so that each of the days in the view contains a ListBox of items, much like the month view in Outlook. The problem I'm experiencing is that I need to maintain a single item selection across all of the ListBoxes. Below is a sample window that should adequately describe my situation. I need to maintain a single selection between both ListBoxes. <Window x:Class="StackOverflow.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Numbers}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedObject"/> <ListBox Grid.Column="1" ItemsSource="{Binding Dates}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedObject"/> </Grid> </Window> In this primitive example, I would expect that when the SelectedObject property of my view model gets set to an item that's not in one ListBox, the selection would be removed in that ListBox, but that doesn't happen. I understand that I can simply name each ListBox, and hook into the SelectionChanged event. I'd prefer to not have to do that with an entire month-view calendar. There has to be a better way. In a previous iteration of the app, I was able to create a SelectionManager static class with an attached property that was used to maintain selection. However, I can't use this now as the classes I'm using for my items are not DependencyObjects, and I'd really prefer not to have to create DependencyObject wrapper classes as this will considerably complicate my architecture. Thanks.

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  • Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

    - by MrKishi
    Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

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  • What's the proper approach for writing multi-path "story" flows?

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, I wonder if you can help me. I'm writing a game (2d) which allows players to take multiple routes, some of which branch/merge - perhaps even loop. Each section of the game will decide which section is loaded next. I'm calling each section an IStoryElement - And I'm wondering how best to link these elements up in a way that is easily changed/configured and at the same time, graphable I'm going to have an engine/factory assembly which will load the appropriate StoryElement(s) based on various config options. I initially planned to give each StoryElement a NextElement() As IStoryElement property and a Completed() event. When the vent fires, the engine reads the NextElement property to find the next StoryElement. The downside to this is that if I ever wanted to graph all the routes through the game, I would be unable to - I couldn't determine all possible targets for each StoryElement. I considered a couple of other solutions but they all feel a little clunky - eg Do I need an additional layer of abstraction? ie StoryElementPlayers or similar - Each one would be responsible for stringing together multiple StoryElement perhaps a Series and a ChoicePlayer with each responsible for graphing its own StoryElement - But this will just move the problem up a layer. In short, I need some way of emulating a simple but dynamic workflow (but I'd rather not actually use WWF). Is there a pattern for something this simple? All the ones I've managed to find relate to more advanced control flow (parallel processing, etc.)

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • deserializing multiple types from a stream

    - by clanier9
    I have a card game program, and so far, the chat works great back and forth over the TCPClient streams between host and client. I want to make it do this with serializing and deserializing so that I can also pass cards between host and client. I tried to create a separate TCPClient stream for the passing of cards but it didn't work and figured it may be easier to keep one TCPClient stream that gets the text messages as well as cards. So I created a class, called cereal, which has the properties for the cards that will help me rebuild the card from an embedded database of cards on the other end. Is there a way to make my program figure out whether a card has been put in the stream or if it's just text in the stream so I can properly deserialize it to a string or to a cereal? Or should I add a string property to my cereal class and when that property is filled in after deserializing to the cereal, i'll know it's just text (if that field is empty after deserializing i'll know it's a card)? I'm thinking a try catch, where it tries to deserialize to a string, and if it fails it will catch and cast as a cereal. Or am I just way off base with this and should choose another route? I'm using visual studio 2011, am using a binaryformatter, and am new to serializing/deserializing.

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  • Custom UITableViewCell from xib isn't displaying properly

    - by Kenny Wyland
    I've created custom UITableCells a bunch of times and I've never run into this problem, so I'm hoping you can help me find the thing I've missed or messed up. When I run my app, the cells in my table view appear to be standard cells with Default style. I have SettingsTableCell which is a subclass of UITableViewCell. I have a SettingsTableCell.xib which contains a UITableViewCell and inside that are a couple labels and a textfield. I've set the class type in the xib to be SettingsTableCell and the File's Owner of the xib to my table controller. My SettingsTableController has an IBOutlet property named tableCell. My cellForRowAtIndexPath contains the following code to load my table view xib and assign it to my table controller's tableCell property: static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellSettings"; SettingsTableCell *cell = (SettingsTableCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"SettingsTableCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = self.tableCell; self.tableCell = nil; NSLog(@"cell=%@", cell); } This is what my xib set up looks like in IB: When I run my app, the table displays as if all of the cells are standard Default style cells though: The seriously weird part is though... if I tap on the area of the cell where the textfield SHOULD be, the keyboard does come up! The textfield isn't visible, there's no cursor or anything like that... but it does respond. The visible UILabel is obviously not the UILabel from my xib though because the label in my xib is right justified and the one showing in the app is left justified. I'm incredibly confused about how this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

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