Search Results

Search found 7513 results on 301 pages for 'actual'.

Page 205/301 | < Previous Page | 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212  | Next Page >

• ASP.NET MVC Session Expiration

  - by Andrew Flanagan

  We have an internal ASP.NET MVC application that requires a logon. Log on works great and does what's expected. We have a session expiration of 15 minutes. After sitting on a single page for that period of time, the user has lost the session. If they attempt to refresh the current page or browse to another, they will get a log on page. We keep their request stored so once they've logged in they can continue on to the page that they've requested. This works great. However, my issue is that on some pages there are AJAX calls. For example, they may fill out part of a form, wander off and let their session expire. When they come back, the screen is still displayed. If they simply fill in a box (which will make an AJAX call) the AJAX call will return the Logon page (inside of whatever div the AJAX should have simply returned the actual results). This looks horrible. I think that the solution is to make the page itself expire (so that when a session is terminated, they automatically are returned to the logon screen without any action by them). However, I'm wondering if there are opinions/ideas on how best to implement this specifically in regards to best practices in ASP.NET MVC.

  Read the article

• BitmapFactory.decodeStream returning null when options are set.

  - by Robert Foss

  Hi! I'm having issues with BitmapFactory.decodeStream(). When using it without options, it will return an image. But when I use it with options as in .decodeStream(inputStream, null, options) it never returns Bitmaps. What I'm trying to do is to downsample a Bitmap before I actually load it to save memory. I've read some good guides, but none using .decodeStream. Here httpIM:NOT//nornalbion.SPAMcom/blog/?p=143 httpIM:NOT//kfb-android.blogspot.SPAMcom/2009/04/image-processing-in-android.html WORKS JUST FINE InputStream is = connection.getInputStream(); Bitmap img = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(is, null, options); DOESNT WORK InputStream is = connection.getInputStream(); Options options = new BitmapFactory.Options(); options.inJustDecodeBounds = true; BitmapFactory.decodeStream(is, null, options); Boolean scaleByHeight = Math.abs(options.outHeight - TARGET_HEIGHT) >= Math.abs(options.outWidth - TARGET_WIDTH); if(options.outHeight * options.outWidth * 2 >= 200*100*2){ // Load, scaling to smallest power of 2 that'll get it <= desired dimensions double sampleSize = scaleByHeight ? options.outHeight / TARGET_HEIGHT : options.outWidth / TARGET_WIDTH; options.inSampleSize = (int)Math.pow(2d, Math.floor( Math.log(sampleSize)/Math.log(2d))); System.out.println("Samplesize: " + options.inSampleSize); } // Do the actual decoding options.inJustDecodeBounds = false; //options.inTempStorage = new byte[IMG_BUFFER_LEN]; Bitmap img = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(is, null, options);

  Read the article

• ASP.NET file transfer from local machine to another machine

  - by Imcl

  I basically want to transfer a file from the client to the file storage server without actual login to the server so that the client cannot access the storage location on the server directly. I can do this only if i manually login to the storage server through windows login. I dont want to do that. This is a Web-Based Application. Using the link below, I wrote a code for my application. I am not able to get it right though, Please refer the link and help me ot with it... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/263518/c-uploading-files-to-file-server The following is my code:- protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { filePath = FileUpload1.FileName; try { WebClient client = new WebClient(); NetworkCredential nc = new NetworkCredential(uName, password); Uri addy = new Uri("\\\\192.168.1.3\\upload\\"); client.Credentials = nc; byte[] arrReturn = client.UploadFile(addy, filePath); Console.WriteLine(arrReturn.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } The following line doesn't execute... byte[] arrReturn = client.UploadFile(addy, filePath); This is the error I get: An exception occurred during a WebClient request

  Read the article

• g++ C++0x enum class Compiler Warnings

  - by Travis G

  I've been refactoring my horrible mess of C++ type-safe psuedo-enums to the new C++0x type-safe enums because they're way more readable. Anyway, I use them in exported classes, so I explicitly mark them to be exported: enum class __attribute__((visibility("default"))) MyEnum : unsigned int { One = 1, Two = 2 }; Compiling this with g++ yields the following warning: type attributes ignored after type is already defined This seems very strange, since, as far as I know, that warning is meant to prevent actual mistakes like: class __attribute__((visibility("default"))) MyClass { }; class __attribute__((visibility("hidden"))) MyClass; Of course, I'm clearly not doing that, since I have only marked the visibility attributes at the definition of the enum class and I'm not re-defining or declaring it anywhere else (I can duplicate this error with a single file). Ultimately, I can't make this bit of code actually cause a problem, save for the fact that, if I change a value and re-compile the consumer without re-compiling the shared library, the consumer passes the new values and the shared library has no idea what to do with them (although I wouldn't expect that to work in the first place). Am I being way too pedantic? Can this be safely ignored? I suspect so, but at the same time, having this error prevents me from compiling with Werror, which makes me uncomfortable. I would really like to see this problem go away.

  Read the article

• RotatingFileHandler throws an exception when delay parameter is set

  - by Eli Courtwright

  When I run the following code under Python 2.6 import logging from logging.handlers import RotatingFileHandler rfh = RotatingFileHandler("testing.log", delay=True) logging.getLogger().addHandler(rfh) logging.warning("Boo!") then the last line throws AttributeError: RotatingFileHandler instance has no attribute 'level'. So I add the line rfh.setLevel(logging.DEBUG) before the call to addHandler, and then the last line throws AttributeError: RotatingFileHandler instance has no attribute 'filters'. So if I manually set filters to be an empty list, then it complains about not having the attribute lock, etc. When I remove the delay=True to leave it as the default value of False as documented here, the problem completely goes away. Am I missing something? How do I properly use the delay parameter of the RotatingFileHandler class? EDIT: Upon further analysis (presented in my own answer below), this looks like a bug, but I can't find a bug report on this in the Python bug tracker, even trying different search terms, so I guess I'll report it. However, if someone can locate the actual bug report, then I can avoid submitting a duplicate reporting and wasting the time of the Python developers. I'll hold off on reporting the bug for a few hours, and if someone posts an answer that has the current bug report, then I'll accept that answer for this question.

  Read the article

• Cannot use READPAST in snapshot isolation mode

  - by Marcus

  I have a process which is called from multiple threads which does the following: Start transaction Select unit of work from work table with by finding the next row where IsProcessed=0 with hints (UPDLOCK, HOLDLOCK, READPAST) Process the unit of work (C# and SQL stored procedures) Commit the transaction The idea of this is that a thread dips into the pool for the "next" piece of work, and processes it, and the locks are there to ensure that a single piece of work is not processed twice. (the order doesn't matter). All this has been working fine for months. Until today that is, when I happened to realise that despite enabling snapshot isolation and making it the default at the database level, the actual transaction creation code was manually setting an isolation level of "ReadCommitted". I duly changed that to "Snapshot", and of course immediately received the "You can only specify the READPAST lock in the READ COMMITTED or REPEATABLE READ" error message. Oops! The main reason for locking the row was to "mark the row" in such a way that the "mark" would be removed when the transaction that applied the mark was committed and the lock seemed to be the best way to do this, since this table isn't read otherwise except by these threads. If I were to use the IsProcessed flag as the lock, then presumably I would need to do the update first, and then select the row I just updated, but I would need to employ the NOLOCK flag to know whether any other thread had set the flag on a row. All sounds a bit messy. The easiest option would be to abandon the snapshot isolation mode altogether, but the design of step #3 requires it. Any bright ideas on the best way to resolve this problem? Thanks Marcus

  Read the article

• 2 spss and mrInterview template questions

  - by Donnied

  How can I align the mrProgress bar to be the same size as the image at the top of the table? (I'd like it below the image.) How can I edit the .xml tables for the grid to show grid lines (preferably alternating colors)? (I do not have permissions to write actual scripts - I can only alter the .htm and .xml templates.) The current code: ` BODY {font-family:Verdana,Arial; font-size:10pt; color:000000} TABLE {font-family:Verdana,Arial; font-size:10pt; color:000000} .mrQuestionTable {BORDER-COLLAPSE: collapse} .mrEdit {font-family:Verdana,Arial; font-size:10pt; color:000000} .mrDropDown {font-family:Verdana,Arial; font-size:10pt; color:000000} .mrListBox {font-family:Verdana,Arial; font-size:10pt; color:000000} .mrErrorText {font-family:Verdana,Arial; font-size:10pt; color:red; font-weight:bold} .mrNext {font-family:Verdana,Arial; font-size:8pt; color:000000} .mrPrev {font-family:Verdana,Arial; font-size:8pt; color:000000} mrBannerText Questions here << Back Next >> mrBannerText `

  Read the article

• WPF Control validation

  - by Jon

  Hi all, I'm developing a WPF GUI framework and have had bad experiences with two way binding and lots of un-needed events being fire(mainly in Flex) so I have gone down the route of having bindings (string that represent object paths) in my controls. When a view is requested to be displayed the controller loads the view, and gets the needed entities (using the bindings) from the DB and populates the controls with the correct values. This has a number of advantages i.e. lazy loading, default undo behaviour etc. When the data in the view needs to be saved the view is passed back to the controller again which basically does the reserve i.e. re-populates the entities from the view if values have changed. However, I have run into problems when I try and validate the components. Each entity has attributes on its properties that define validation rules which the controller can access easily and validate the data from the view against it. The actual validation of data is fine. The problem comes when I want the GUI control to display error validation information. It I try changing the style I get errors saying styles cannot be changed once in use. Is the a way in c# to fire off the normal WPF validation mechanism and just proved it with the validaiton errors the controller has found? Thanks in advance Jon

  Read the article

• gunit syntax for tree walker with a flat list of nodes

  - by Kaleb Pederson

  Here's a simple gunit test for a portion of my tree grammar which generates a flat list of nodes: objectOption walks objectOption: <<one:"value">> -> (one "value") Although you define a tree in ANTLR's rewrite syntax using a caret (i.e. ^(ROOT child...)), gunit matches trees without the caret, so the above represents a tree and it's not surprising that it fails: it's a flat list of nodes and not a tree. This results in a test failure: 1 failures found: test2 (objectOption walks objectOption, line17) - expected: (one \"value\") actual: one \"value\" Another option which seems intuitive is to leave off the parenthesis, like this: objectOption walks objectOption: <<one:"value">> -> one "value" But gunit doesn't like this syntax. It seems to result in a parse failure in the gunit grammar: line 17:20 no viable alternative at input 'one' line 17:24 missing ':' at 'value' line 0:-1 no viable alternative at input '<EOF>' java.lang.NullPointerException at org.antlr.gunit.OutputTest.getExpected(OutputTest.java:65) at org.antlr.gunit.gUnitExecutor.executeTests(gUnitExecutor.java:245) ... What is the correct way to match a flat tree?

  Read the article

• Issues Connecting to SQLExpress using Oracle SQL Developer

  - by ArtDeveloper

  Hey Guys, I'm trying to create a connection inside Oracle SQL Developer to a SQLExpress database I have Everything I have resides on the same machine so there isn't any network issues I should have to deal with but everytime I follow the instructions and I try to connect I get the following message "Failure - Unable to get information from SQL Server: localhost." I can connect to the SQLExpress DB using the SQL Management Studio and through an ODBC connection. I've installed the third party extensions and I've enabled the TCP protocol on the SQL Server Configuration manager as well as enabled the IP Addresses I'm assuming that the SQLExpress Database is on port 1433 because I didn't change this when I installed but if someone can tell me how to double check that I would appreciate that info as well. I setup the new connection with the following information name: databasename I'm using windows authentication so the username and password aren't filled in host:localhost port:1433/databasename;instance=SQLEXPRESS *databasename - this is replaced with the actual DB name I've just changed the name here to protect the innocent I've spent about a full day on this trying to get it connected and many google attempts where other ppl have had this issue but have gotten it solved through various methods that I've tried and it hasn't resolved my issue. Any information would be much appreciated Thank you in Advance, AD

  Read the article

• How to reproduce System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1Managed result in Python

  - by joetyson

  Here's the deal: I'm moving a .NET website to Python. I have a database with passwords hashed using the System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1Managed utility. I'm creating the hash in .NET with the following code: string hashedPassword = Cryptographer.CreateHash("MYHasher", userInfo.Password); The MYHasher block looks like this: <add algorithmType="System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1Managed, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=blahblahblah" saltEnabled="true" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Security.Cryptography.HashAlgorithmProvider, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Security.Cryptography, Version=3.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=daahblahdahdah" name="MYHasher" /> So for a given password, I get back and store in the database a 48 byte salted sha1. I assume the last 8 bytes are the salt. I have tried to reproduce the hashing process in python by doing a sha1(salt + password) and sha1(password + salt) but I'm having no luck. My question to you: How are the public keys being used? How is the password rehashed using the salt. How is the salt created? (e.g., When I say saltEnabled="true", what extra magic happens?) I need specific details that don't just reference other .NET libraries, I'm looking for the actual operational logic that happens in the blackbox. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Activate COM object using website doesn't work in Windows 2003 server

  - by Tarun

  I have been trying really hard to activate and launch a COM object using an ASP.NET web application. The aspx website has a code-behind file that has a reference to this COM object (which is an actual application - a CAD software). When required, the VB code creates (or launches) the application. The complete set-up works in a Win-XP (32-bit) environment both under debugging using visual studio and when the website is accessed by an outside user (through IIS server in XP). But the same application doesn't get activated when it is hosted onto the Win-2003 (32-bit) IIS server. I get "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The way I have setup in Win-XP was to grant ASP user and Internet guest user permissions to the COM object in the DCOM Config and since the windows firewall is enabled, I add the exe file (associated with the COM object) to the exception list. For the case of Win-2003 server, I add the Network Service permission to the COM object. But the setup doesn't seem to work at all. I am not sure what I am missing and how to get the application to launch. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• codeigniter & cjax framework, fatal error class 'CI_Controller' not found

  - by Martin

  I'm having this weird error with Codeigniter 2.1.3 and latest cjax for codeigniter. Weird thing is, when I download the latest codeigniter, and latest cjax framework for codeitniger and copy to my friends server, and call: domain.com/ajax.php?test/test2 to show the test ajax examples ... it works like a breeze, but when I do this on my server, I get server error (even tho, we both have same php version and such). Server then throws in error log file this error: PHP Fatal error: Class 'CI_Controller' not found in /hosting/www/domain.com/www/application/response/test.php on line 3 Now, I've read thru stackoverflow with people having this problem and solving by changing the construct and calling CI_Controller instead of Controller. But I already do that ... - I mean it's in the basic example that is suppose to work without touching the code, and it does, just not on my domain for some crappy reason. Ajax.php from cjax framework for codeingter should load controller from folder response, named test and call function test2, which looks like this (the actual file named test.php): class Test extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } /** * * ajax.php?test/test/a/b/c * * @param unknown_type $a * @param unknown_type $b * @param unknown_type $c */ function test($a = null,$b = null, $c = null) { $this->load->view('test', array('data' => $a .' '.$b.' '.$c)); } /** * ajax.php?test/test2 * * Here we are testing out the javascript library. * * Note: the library it is not meant to be included in ajax controllers - but in front-controllers, * it is being used here for the sake of simplicity in testing. */ function test2() { $ajax = ajax(); $ajax->update('response','Cjax Works'); $ajax->append('#response','<br /><br />version: '.$ajax->version); $ajax->success('Cjax was successfully installed.', 5); //see application/views/test2.php $this->load->view('test2'); } I was hoping someone could bring some light into this problem - or maybe someone has already experienced it? Thanks for your time! Mart

  Read the article

• flushing database cache in SWI-Prolog

  - by JPro

  We are using swi-prolog to run our testcases. Whenever the test starts, I am opening the connection to MYSQL database and storing the Name of the Test hat is being done and then closing the DB. These tests run for about 2 days continuously. After the tests are done, the results basically gets stored in folder in the server. There is a predicate in another prolog file that is called to update the results to the MYSQL database. The code is simple, I use odbc library and just call odbc_* predicates to connect and update the mysql by issuing direct queries. The actual problem is : If I try to call the Predicate from the same Prolog window, where the test just got completed, I get an error as updating to the DB server. Although I do not get any error in the connection. If I close the session of that prolog with halt and closing all the open prolog windows , then open an other complete new instance of Prolog and run the predicate the update goes well. I have a feeling that there is some connection reference to the MySQL DB in Prolog database. Is there any way to clear the database in prolog so that I can run the same predicate without closing any existing prolog windows? Any ideas appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Pseudocode: a clear definition?

  - by Cian E

  The following code is an example of what I think would qualify as pseudocode, since it does not execute in any language but the logic is correct. string checkRubric(gpa, major) bool brake = false num lastRange num rangeCounter string assignment = "unassigned" array bus['business']= array('person a'=>array(0, 2.9), 'person b'=>array(3, 4)) array cis['computer science']= array('person c'=>array(0, 2.9), 'person d'=>array(3, 4)) array lib['english']= array('person e'=>array(0, 4)) array rubric = array(bus, cis, lib) foreach (rubric as fieldAr) foreach (fieldAr as field => advisorAr) if (major == field) foreach (advisorAr as advisor => gpaRangeAr) rangeCounter = 0 foreach (gpaRangeAr as gpaValue) if (rangeCounter < 1) lastRange = gpaValue else if (gpa >= lastRange && gpa <= gpaValue) assignment = advisor brake = true break endif rangeCounter++ endforeach if (brake == true) break endif endforeach if (brake == true) break endif endif endforeach if (brake == true) break endif endforeach return assignment For the past couple of weeks I've been trying to create a clear definition of what pseudocode actually is. Is it relative to the programmer or is there an actual clearcut syntax? I say pseudocode is any code that does not execute, how about you? Thanks (links to this subject welcome)

  Read the article

• IE7 div boxes with clear: right and float: left - float to top

  - by i3rutus

  Hey, lately i've been slamming my head against my desk to solve this Problem. Didn't work out. I know it can be solved by editing the contents with some clearing elements. Sadly there is some javascript sorting beeing used and the Sourcode is being generated by CMS Components so that would be my last shot. I'm having a few boxes beeing floated alwayes 2 in a row. The boxes have a diffrent height but equal width and are all placed in a container with static width. The link shows the source i need to reproduce the Problem. My Boxes are beeing floated left. I tried to fix this with clear: left on odd and clear: right on even elements. But that only works in ff/ie8/chrome Browsers, not ie7. Example: http://www.i3rutus.de/ie7divfloatexample/ Anyone knows a possibility to fix this Problem by just editing the CSS not the actual XHTML? Problem appears in IE7. IE8, Chrome and FF work fine. Any Ideas? Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Core Data migration of to-one relationship to to-many relationship

  - by westsider

  I have a deployed app that samples measurements from sensors (e.g., Temp °C, Pressure kPa). The user can create Experiments and collect samples. Each sample is stored as a Run, such that there is a one-to-many relationship from Experiment to Run. In the interest of performance, Run has a to-one relationship with Data entity (which is where the actual raw data is stored); this allows some Run attributes to be loaded without necessarily loading lots of data. Most of our sensors have multiple measurements, so it would be nice to store all the data that is actually being sampled. But this means that the Run <--- Data relationship needs to become Run <-- Data (to use Xcode's convention). I am faced with trying to migrate data from old Run to-one Data model to new Run to-many Data model. Can this be done using Mapping Models? If so, does anyone have any pointers to examples? If not, does anyone have any pointers to examples of how to do that? Thanks for any pointers or advice.

  Read the article

• How to use drag and drop within a UIScrollView

  - by user249488

  I am trying to drag and drop UIViews within a UIScrollView. I'd like the UIScrollView to scroll if I drag a UIView so that it intersects the top or bottom of the ScrollView. If it touches the top, it should scroll up. If it touches the bottom, it should scroll down. Once the UIView is moved such that it is no longer intersecting the top or bottom, the scrolling should stop. The first approach I tried was to start an NSTimer whenever I detected that the UIView intersected with the top or bottom of the scrollview. The timer would scroll the UIScrollView bit by bit until it was invalidated. This resulted in very jerky scrolling, since there is no way to predict when the timers will fire. My current approach is to simply scroll all the way to the top or bottom of the ScrollView, like this: [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.parentScrollview setContentOffset:newOffset animated:NO]; [UIView commitAnimations]; In order to stop scrolling, I try to determine the position of the touch in the touchesMoved: delegate, and use that to calculate the contentOffset to use for the scrollView. The problem is, when I try to get the location in the view via [[touches anyObject] locationInView:self], I get the final end location, rather than the current location. I'm guessing that's because the contentOffset on the scrollView is set immediately. Is there a way to get the actual location of a touch in a situation like this? Or any other way to set the contentOffset when I interrupt the scrolling animation?

  Read the article

• Convert a (nested)HTML unordered list of links to PHP array of links

  - by Klark

  Hi, I have a regular, nested HTML unordered list of links, and I'd like to scrape it with PHP and convert it to an array. The original list looks something like this: <ul> <li><a href="http://someurl.com">First item</a> <ul> <li><a href="http://someotherurl.com/">Child of First Item</a></li> <li><a href="http://someotherurl.com/">Second Child of First Item</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="http://bogusurl.com">Second item</a></li> <li><a href="http://bogusurl.com">Third item</a></li> <li><a href="http://bogusurl.com">Fourth item</a></li> </ul> Any of the items can have children. (The actual screen scraping is not a problem, I can do that.) I'd like to turn this into a PHP array, of just the links, while keeping the hierarchical nature of the list. Any ideas? I've looked at using htmlsimpledom and phpQuery, which both use jQuery like syntax. But, I can't seem to get the syntax right. Thanks.

  Read the article

• MSBuild 2010 - how to publish web app to a specific location (nant)?

  - by Mr. Flibble

  I'm trying to get MSBuild 2010 to publish a web app to a specific location. I can get it to publish the deployment package to a particular path, but the deployment package then adds it's own path that changes. For example: if I tell it to publish to C:\dev\build\Output\Debug then the actual web files end up at C:\dev\build\Output\Debug\Archive\Content\C_C\code\sawadee\frontend\IPP-FrontEnd\Source\ControllersViews\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp And the C_C part of the path changes (not sure how it chooses this part of the path). This means I can't just script a copy from the publish location. I'm using this nant/msbuild command at the moment: <target name="compile" description="Compiles"> <msbuild project="${name}.sln"> <property name="Platform" value="Any CPU"/> <property name="Configuration" value="Debug"/> <property name="DeployOnBuild" value="true"/> <property name="DeployTarget" value="Package"/> <property name="PackageLocation" value="C:\dev\build\Output\Debug\"/> <property name="AutoParameterizationWebConfigConnectionStrings" value="false"/> <property name="PackageAsSingleFile" value="false"/> </msbuild> Any ideas on how to get it to send the web files directly to a specific location?

  Read the article

• Help with converting foreach loop to while loop in c#

  - by James Dawson

  I had learnt by reading your great answers here, that it is not good practice deleting items from within a foreach loop, as it is (and I quote) "Sawing off the branch you're sitting on". My code currently removes the text from the dropdownlist, but the actual item remains (just without text displayed). In other words, it isn't deleting, and probably can't because you can't delete from within a foreach loop. After hours of trying I am unable to get my head around a way of doing it. //For each checked box, run the delete code for (int i = 0; i < this.organizeFav.CheckedItems.Count; i++) { //this is the foreach loop foreach (ToolStripItem mItem in favoritesToolStripMenuItem.DropDownItems) { //This rules out seperators if (mItem is ToolStripMenuItem) { ToolStripMenuItem menuItem = mItem as ToolStripMenuItem; //This matches the dropdownitems text to the CheckedItems String if (((ToolStripMenuItem)mItem).Text.ToString() == organizeFav.CheckedItems[i].ToString()) { //And deletes the item menuItem.DropDownItems.Remove(mItem); } } } } But it isn't deleting because it is within a foreach loop! I would greatly appreciate your help, and be truly amazed if anyone can get their head around this code :) Kind Regards

  Read the article

• Android Live Wallpaper: waitForCondition(ReallocateCondition)

  - by jstatz

  I've been developing a live wallpaper using GLWallpaperService, and have gotten good results overall. It runs rock-solid in the emulator and looks good. I've dealt with OpenGL many times before so have a solid command of how to do things... unfortunately I'm having a hell of a time getting this to actually be stable on the actual hardware. The basic symption occurs when you slide the physical keyboard on a Motorola Droid in and out a few times. This causes the wallpaper to get destroyed/recreated several times in quick succession -- which would be fine, as I have my assets clearing in onDestroy and reloading in onSurfaceChanged. The problem is after a few iterations of this, (four or five, maybe) the calls to onSurfaceChanged completely stop, and i get an endless string of this printed to the log: 04-02 00:53:18.088: WARN/SharedBufferStack(1032): waitForCondition(ReallocateCondition) timed out (identity=337, status=0). CPU may be pegged. trying again. Is there something I should be implementing here aside from the Android-typical onSurfaceCreated/onSurfaceChanged/onSurfaceDestroyed triumvirate? Browsing through the WallpaperService and WallpaperRenderer classes doesn't pop up anything obvious to me.

  Read the article

• Async Load JavaScript Files with Callback

  - by Gcoop

  Hi All, I am trying to write an ultra simple solution to load a bunch of JS files asynchronously. I have the following script below so far. However the callback is sometimes called when the scripts aren't actually loaded which causes a variable not found error. If I refresh the page sometimes it just works because I guess the files are coming straight from the cache and thus are there quicker than the callback is called, it's very strange? var Loader = function () { } Loader.prototype = { require: function (scripts, callback) { this.loadCount = 0; this.totalRequired = scripts.length; this.callback = callback; for (var i = 0; i < scripts.length; i++) { this.writeScript(scripts[i]); } }, loaded: function (evt) { this.loadCount++; if (this.loadCount == this.totalRequired && typeof this.callback == 'function') this.callback.call(); }, writeScript: function (src) { var self = this; var s = document.createElement('script'); s.type = "text/javascript"; s.async = true; s.src = src; s.addEventListener('load', function (e) { self.loaded(e); }, false); var head = document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; head.appendChild(s); } } Is there anyway to test that a JS file is completely loaded, without putting something in the actual JS file it's self, because I would like to use the same pattern to load libraries out of my control (GMaps etc). Invoking code, just before the tag. var l = new Loader(); l.require([ "ext2.js", "ext1.js"], function() { var config = new MSW.Config(); Refraction.Application().run(MSW.ViewMapper, config); console.log('All Scripts Loaded'); }); Thanks for any help.

  Read the article

• Sharp architecture; Accessing Validation Results

  - by nabeelfarid

  I am exploring Sharp Architecture and I would like to know how to access the validation results after calling Entity.IsValid(). I have two scenarios e.g. 1) If the entity.IsValid() return false, I would like to add the errors to ModelState.AddModelError() collection in my controller. E.g. in the Northwind sample we have an EmployeesController.Create() action when we do employee.IsValid(), how can I get access to the errors? public ActionResult Create(Employee employee) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid && employee.IsValid()) { employeeRepository.SaveOrUpdate(employee); } // .... } [I already know that when an Action method is called, modelbinder enforces validation rules(nhibernate validator attributes) as it parses incoming values and tries to assign them to the model object and if it can't parse the incoming values  then it register those as errors in modelstate for each model object property. But what if i have some custom validation. Thats why we do ModelState.IsValid first.] 2) In my test methods I would like to test the nhibernate validation rules as well. I can do entity.IsValid() but that only returns true/ false. I would like to Assert against the actual error not just true/ false. In my previous projects, I normally use a wrapper Service Layer for Repositories, and instead of calling Repositories method directly from controller, controllers call service layer methods which in turn call repository methods. In my Service Layer all my custom validation rules resides and Service Layer methods throws a custom exception with a NameValueCollection of errors which I can easily add to ModelState in my controller. This way I can also easily implement sophisticated business rules in my service layer as well. I kow sharp architecture also provides a Service Layer project. But what I am interested in and my next question is: How I can use NHibernate Vaidators to implement sophisticated custom business rules (not just null,empty, range etc.) and make Entity.IsValid() to verify those rules too ?

  Read the article

• How can I get controller type and action info from a url or from route data?

  - by Rob Levine

  How can I get the controller action (method) and controller type that will be called, given the System.Web.Routing.RouteData? My scenario is this - I want to be able to do perform certain actions (or not) in the OnActionExecuting method for an action. However, I will often want to know not the current action, but the "root" action being called; by this I mean I may have a view called "Login", which is my login page. This view may include another partial view "LeftNav". When OnActionExecuting is called for LeftNav, I want to be able to determine that it is really being called for the "root" aciton of Login. I realise that by calling RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(actionExecutingContext.HttpContext), I can get the route for the "root" request, but how to turn this into method and type info? The only solution I have so far, is something like: var routeData = RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(actionExecutingContext.HttpContext) var routeController = (string)routeData.Values["controller"]; var routeAction = (string)routeData.Values["action"]; The problem with this is that "routeController" is the controller name with the "Controller" suffix removed, and is not fully qualified; ie it is "Login", rather than "MyCode.Website.LoginController". I would far rather get an actual Type and MethodInfo if possible, or at least a fully qualified type name. Any thoughts, or alternative approaches? [EDIT - this is ASP.Net MVC 1.0]

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212  | Next Page >