Search Results

Search found 57106 results on 2285 pages for 'matthew baier@oracle com'.

Page 2064/2285 | < Previous Page | 2060 2061 2062 2063 2064 2065 2066 2067 2068 2069 2070 2071  | Next Page >

  • Is there an easier way with jQuery accordions?

    - by Josh
    I've been struggling with a feature I've been trying to create for sometime. The idea here is that the user sees the little thumbnail + headline, as well as the Posted By information. They can then click on the headline to expand to the article or click on the "Comments" link to expand directly to the comments made on the article. Or, if they want they can view comments by clicking on the headline(to expand to the article), then click on View Comments (to expand to the comments). In the end, a modular yet flexible and functional open/close system to view latest news. Here is what I've been working on: (I put all my code in one place so its easier on whomever may look at this to view) http://notedls.com/pointtest.html This is what I'm shooting for, but it's far from what I want ;( It's using the jQuery 1.6 plugin, which 1.8 is out but I'm far from being a master or expert at this and I don't think I could build from the ground up. I've already edited this plugin to get it to work like this, but as you can see, the AUTHOR and Comments start making shit hit the fan ;; It's because the code is calling the "A TAG" for the header; which is the headline. Does anyone know any easier way to achieve what I'm envisioning or possible a way to fix this current code? I'm pretty desperate at this point ;;

    Read the article

  • Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

    - by pspahn
    Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

    Read the article

  • Paypal sandbox account in dotnet: "IPN Response invalid"

    - by Sam
    I am integrating Paypal with my website. I use a sandbox account, one buyer account and one seller account. I downloaded the code below from Paypal: string strSandbox = "https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr"; HttpWebRequest req = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(strSandbox); //Set values for the request back req.Method = "POST"; req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; byte[] param = Request.BinaryRead(HttpContext.Current.Request.ContentLength); string strRequest = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(param); strRequest += "&cmd=_notify-validate"; req.ContentLength = strRequest.Length; //for proxy //WebProxy proxy = new WebProxy(new Uri("http://url:port#")); //req.Proxy = proxy; //Send the request to PayPal and get the response StreamWriter streamOut = new StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream(), System.Text.Encoding.ASCII); streamOut.Write(strRequest); streamOut.Close(); StreamReader streamIn = new StreamReader(req.GetResponse().GetResponseStream()); string strResponse = streamIn.ReadToEnd(); streamIn.Close(); if (strResponse == "VERIFIED") { //check the payment_status is Completed //check that txn_id has not been previously processed //check that receiver_email is your Primary PayPal email //check that payment_amount/payment_currency are correct //process payment } else if (strResponse == "INVALID") { //log for manual investigation } else { //log response/ipn data for manual investigation } When I add this snippet in my pageload event of my success page, I show the IPN response as INVALID, but amount is paid successfully. Why is this? Paypal's docs are not clear.

    Read the article

  • How does XMPP work with perl?

    - by TheGNUGuy
    Hey everybody, I am trying to make my own jabber bot but i have run into a little trouble. I have gotten my bot to respond to messages, however, if I try to change the bot's presence then it seems as though all of the messages you send to the bot get delayed. What I mean is when I run the script I change the presence so I can see that it is online. Then When I send it a message it takes 3 before the callback subroutine i have set up for messages gets called. After the 3rd message is sent and the chat subroutine is called it still process the first message I sent. This really doesn't pose TOO much of a problem except that I have it set up to log out when I send the message "logout" and it has to be followed by two more messages in order to log out. I am not sure what it is that I have to do to fix this but i think it has something to do with iq packets because I have an iq callback set as well and it gets called 2 times after setting the presence. Here is my source code: http://pastebin.com/MgKMhTML Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • IIS6 configuration for WCF/Silverlight

    - by Grayson Mitchell
    I am trying the simple senario of running a WCF service to return Active directory information on a user. (http://rouslan.com/2009/03/20-steps-to-get-together-windows-authentication-silverlight-and-wcf-service/) using Silverlight 4 & .net 4 However, I am being driven insane by trying to set this up in IIS. Currently I have my solution working in VS, but when I try to run the service in ISS a debug window tries to open... (and I can't get rid of it, is is complaining about the WCF call). <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="winAuthBasicHttpBinding"> <security mode="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Ntlm"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> The Insanity: I have got the IIS to successfully call a WCF service (but can't reproduce), I have created 5 projects to try and get this working, but in my 5th I can't even browse the site (says it can't download silverlight application, but mime type are setup). My next step is to install Server2008 on a test machine and try IIS7... as all the various walkthrough's I have found just dont seem to work in IIS6.

    Read the article

  • How Do I make a simple .htaccess internal redirect Catch All script while forwarding POST data?

    - by RB
    I just want to catch all requests and forward them internally to my catchall page with all POST data intact Catch all page: http://www.mydomain.com/addons/redirect/catch-all.php I've tried so many combinations, but my server doesn't want to redirect internally if I specify more than catch-all.php # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule (.*) /addons/redirect/catch-all.php [L] Also, do I need [L] or is it useless for internal redirects? Then, what php code would I use to grab the POST data, use it, and finally PHP redirect the page to the originally requested page Would it be done just as normal by using $_POST['variable_name']; or something different? Then, how would I go about calling the originally requested page, so I can tell PHP to header location direct them to that page? Thanks! UPDATE: Ha sick, nevermind. The condition DOES work. Here's my code: # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/robots.txt$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !\.(gif¦jpe?g¦png¦css¦js¦pdf¦doc¦xml)$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/addons/redirect/catch-all\.php$ RewriteRule (.*)$ /addons/redirect/catch-all.php?q=$1 [L] Thanks guys for the inspiration! Now time to get that PHP to work...

    Read the article

  • Posting source code in blogger- fails with C# containers

    - by Lirik
    I tried the solutions that are posted in this related SO question and for the most part the code snippets are working, but there are some cases that are still getting garbled by Blogger when it publishes the blog. In particular, declaring generic containers seems to be most troublesome. Please see the code examples on my blog and in particular the section where I define the dictionary (http://mlai-lirik.blogspot.com/). I want to display this: static Dictionary<int, List<Delegate>> _delegate = new Dictionary<int,List<Delegate>>(); But blogger publishes this: static Dictionary<int, list=""><delegate>> _delegate = new Dictionary<int, list=""><delegate>>(); And it caps the end of my code section with this: </delegate></delegate></int,></delegate></int,> Apparently blogger thinks that the <int and <delegate> portion of the dictionary are some sort of HTML tags and it automatically attempts to close them at the end of the code snippet. Does anybody know how to get around this problem?

    Read the article

  • Constant error in compiler using C#'s provided objects

    - by dotnetdev
    I have used the built in C# methods to write a compiler, like the following: CodeDomProvider codeProvider = CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); string Output = "Out.exe"; Button ButtonObject = (Button)sender; this.RadTextBox1.Text = string.Empty; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); //Make sure we generate an EXE, not a DLL parameters.GenerateExecutable = true; parameters.OutputAssembly = Output; CompilerResults results = codeProvider.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, RadTextBox1.Text); if (results.Errors.Count > 0) { RadTextBox2.ForeColor = Color.Red; foreach (CompilerError CompErr in results.Errors) { RadTextBox2.Text = RadTextBox2.Text + "Line number " + CompErr.Line + ", Error Number: " + CompErr.ErrorNumber + ", '" + CompErr.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { //Successful Compile RadTextBox2.ForeColor = Color.Blue; Guid guid = Guid.NewGuid(); string PathToExe = Server.MapPath(Path.Combine(@"\Compiled" , Output)); FileStream fs = System.IO.File.Create(PathToExe); using (StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(fs)) { sw.Write(RadTextBox1.Text); } Response.WriteFile(PathToExe); When I run this code and write a Main method (such as the code sample in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228506(VS.80).aspx, I get this error: Line number 0, Error Number: CS5001, 'Program 'c:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\IDE\Out.exe' does not contain a static 'Main' method suitable for an entry point; The code above is used as the basis of a compiler on my site (not yet live). So you type in code and generate an .exe assembly. But when I enter code into the textbox for code writing (Radtextbox1), even with a main method, I get the error. What gives? Thanks

    Read the article

  • jquery: prepopulating autocomplete fields

    - by David Tildon
    I'm using the tokenizing autocomplete plugin for jquery ( http://loopj.com/2009/04/25/jquery-plugin-tokenizing-autocomplete-text-entry ). I mostly use Ruby, and I'm really unfamiliar with javascript, though. My basic setup looks like this, and works fine for a new, blank form: $(document).ready(function () { $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search" }); }); The problem comes when I try to prepopulate it, like for an edit page. I'm trying to do something like this (where the "#tag_ids_field" text box contains the JSON when the page is loaded - that way is just cleaner on the application side of things). $(document).ready(function () { var tags = $("#tag_ids_field").html(); $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: tags }); }); However, when the page loads I see that it's just filled with hundreds of entries that read 'undefined'. I get this even if I take the JSON output that Rails provides and try sticking it right in the .js file: $(document).ready(function () { $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: "[{\"id\":\"44\",\"name\":\"omnis sit impedit et numquam voluptas enim\"},{\"id\":\"515\",\"name\":\"deserunt odit id doloremque reiciendis aliquid qui vel\"},{\"id\":\"943\",\"name\":\"exercitationem numquam possimus quasi iste nisi illum\"}]" }); }); That's obviously not a solution, I just tried it out of frustration and I get the same behavior. My two questions: One, why are my text boxes being filled with "undefined" tags when I try to prepopulate, and how can I get them to prepopulate successfully? Two, I'm planning on having many autocomplete fields like this on the same page (for when several records are edited at once - they all query the same place). How can I make each autocomplete field take it's prepopulated values from it's own textbox? Something like (applying these settings to all input boxes with a certain class, not just the one of a particular id): $(document).ready(function () { $(".tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: (the contents of that particular ".tag_ids_field" input box) }); });

    Read the article

  • Receiving DB update events in .NET from SQLite

    - by Dan Tao
    I've recently discovered the awesomeness of SQLite, specifically the .NET wrapper for SQLite at http://sqlite.phxsoftware.com/. Now, suppose I'm developing software that will be running on multiple machines on the same network. Nothing crazy, probably only 5 or 6 machines. And each of these instances of the software will be accessing an SQLite database stored in a file in a shared directory (is this a bad idea? If so, tell me!). Is there a way for each instance of the app to be notifiied if one instance updates the database file? One obvious way would be to use the FileSystemWatcher class, read the entire database into a DataSet, and then ... you know ... enumerate through the entire thing to see what's new ... but yeah, that seems pretty idiotic, actually. Is there such a thing as a provider of SQLite updates? Does this even make sense as a question? I'm also pretty much a newbie when it comes to ADO.NET, so I might be approaching the problem from the entirely wrong angle.

    Read the article

  • XML streaming with XProc.

    - by Pierre
    Hi all, I'm playing with xproc, the XML pipeline language and http://xmlcalabash.com/. I'd like to find an example for streaming large xml documents. for example, given the following huge xml document: <Books> <Book> <title>Book-1</title> </Book> <Book> <title>Book-2</title> </Book> <Book> <title>Book-3</title> </Book> <!-- many many.... --> <Book> <title>Book-N</title> </Book> </Books> How should I proceed to loop (streaming) over x-N documents like <Books> <Book> <title>Book-x</title> </Book> </Books> and treat each document with a xslt ? is it possible with xproc ?

    Read the article

  • Oracle T4CPreparedStatement memory leaks?

    - by Jay
    A little background on the application that I am gonna talk about in the next few lines: XYZ is a data masking workbench eclipse RCP application: You give it a source table column, and a target table column, it would apply a trasformation (encryption/shuffling/etc) and copy the row data from source table to target table. Now, when I mask n tables at a time, n threads are launched by this app. Here is the issue: I have run into a production issue on first roll out of the above said app. Unfortunately, I don't have any logs to get to the root. However, I tried to run this app in test region and do a stress test. When I collected .hprof files and ran 'em through an analyzer (yourKit), I noticed that objects of oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement was retaining heap. The analysis also tells me that one of my classes is holding a reference to this preparedstatement object and thereby, n threads have n such objects. T4CPreparedStatement seemed to have character arrays: lastBoundChars and bindChars each of size char[300000]. So, I researched a bit (google!), obtained ojdbc6.jar and tried decompiling T4CPreparedStatement. I see that T4CPreparedStatement extends OraclePreparedStatement, which dynamically manages array size of lastBoundChars and bindChars. So, my questions here are: Have you ever run into an issue like this? Do you know the significance of lastBoundChars / bindChars? I am new to profiling, so do you think I am not doing it correct? (I also ran the hprofs through MAT - and this was the main identified issue - so, I don't really think I could be wrong?) I have found something similar on the web here: http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?messageID=2860681 Appreciate your suggestions / advice.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Connection Strings for Strongly Typed DataSet in a Class Library using App.Config

    - by Luc
    This is my first question on StackOverflow.com and I'm not sure if this is the correct way to do this. I found a similar question titled: Modifying the Data Source for the Strongly Typed Dataset Connection String. However, the answer provided is not working for me. I'm not able to comment on it because I don't have enough "reputation points" (again, I just signed up), and I didn't want to provide an "answer", because I don't know the correct answer. My problem is that I need to be able to modify the connection string inside the generated myproject.dll.config file, but doing so has no effect for me at all. My library still uses the default connection string that was setup at design time. I've tried everything I know to try, but still no luck. I've tried working around the issue using multiple different approaches, but still the problem persists. I can't find any help on the internet with my specific problem either. It would be great if somebody could shed some light as to why my modified config file isn't being read. Useful information: I'm using a Strongly Typed DataSet I don't know the actual connection string at design time. The app.config doesn't allow me to specify a 'User' scoped connection string. I'm tied to a class library (no Windows Forms) Thank you for any help! Luc

    Read the article

  • web service - client classes

    - by Noona
    The web service that I implemented is up and running, when I try to run the client I get the following error with regard to the classes that were generated using wsimport, Caused by: java.security.PrivilegedActionException: com.sun.xml.internal.bind.v2.runtime.IllegalAnnotationsException: 4 counts of IllegalAnnotationExceptions Two classes have the same XML type name "{http://server.agency.hw2/}userJoined". Use @XmlType.name and @XmlType.namespace to assign different names to them. this problem is related to the following location: at hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoined at public javax.xml.bind.JAXBElement hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.ObjectFactory.createUserJoined(hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoined) at hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.ObjectFactory this problem is related to the following location: at ChatCompany.BackendChatServer.hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoined Two classes have the same XML type name "{http://server.agency.hw2/}userJoinedResponse". Use @XmlType.name and @XmlType.namespace to assign different names to them. this problem is related to the following location: at hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoinedResponse at public javax.xml.bind.JAXBElement hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.ObjectFactory.createUserJoinedResponse(hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoinedResponse) But I can't figure out what exactly is meant by the error. I am assuming I need to change something in annotations in this class as pointed out by the compiler: @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.FIELD) @XmlType(name = "userJoinedResponse") public class UserJoinedResponse { } could someone please point out why there's a name collision and what annotations I need to change? thanks

    Read the article

  • XML Serialization Not Working For All Elements (C#)

    - by splatto
    I have an XML file that I'm trying to serialize into an object. Some elements are being ignored. My XML File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <License xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/MyApp.Domain"> <Guid>7FF07F74-CD5F-4369-8FC7-9BF50274A8E8</Guid> <Url>http://www.gmail.com</Url> <ValidKey>true</ValidKey> <CurrentDate>3/1/2010 9:39:28 PM</CurrentDate> <RegistrationDate>3/8/2010 9:39:28 PM</RegistrationDate> <ExpirationDate>3/8/2099 9:39:28 PM</ExpirationDate> </License> My class definition: [DataContract] public class License { [DataMember] public virtual int Id { get; set; } [DataMember] public virtual string Guid { get; set; } [DataMember] public virtual string ValidKey { get; set; } [DataMember] public virtual string Url { get; set; } [DataMember] public virtual string CurrentDate { get; set; } [DataMember] public virtual string RegistrationDate { get; set; } [DataMember] public virtual string ExpirationDate { get; set; } } And my Serialization attempt: XmlDocument Xmldoc = new XmlDocument(); Xmldoc.Load(string.Format(url)); string xml = Xmldoc.InnerXml; var serializer = new DataContractSerializer(typeof(License)); var memoryStream = new MemoryStream(Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(xml)); License license = (License)serializer.ReadObject(memoryStream); memoryStream.Close(); The following elements are serialized: Guid ValidKey The following elements are not serialized: Url CurrentDate RegistrationDate ExpirationDate Replacing the string dates in the xml file with "blah" doesn't work either. What gives?

    Read the article

  • using ontouch to zoom in

    - by user357032
    i have used some sample code and am trying to tweak it to let me allow the user to touch the screen and zoom in the code runs fine with no errors but when i touch the screen nothing happens package com.thomas.zoom; import android.content.Context; import android.graphics.Canvas; import android.graphics.drawable.Drawable; import android.view.KeyEvent; import android.view.MotionEvent; import android.view.View; public class Zoom extends View { private Drawable image; private int zoomControler=20; public Zoom(Context context) { super(context); image=context.getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.icon); setFocusable(true); } @Override protected void onDraw(Canvas canvas) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onDraw(canvas); //here u can control the width and height of the images........ this line is very important image.setBounds((getWidth()/2)-zoomControler, (getHeight()/2)-zoomControler, (getWidth()/2)+zoomControler, (getHeight()/2)+zoomControler); image.draw(canvas); } public boolean onTouch(int action, MotionEvent event) { action= event.getAction(); if(action == MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN){ zoomControler+=10; } invalidate(); return true; } }

    Read the article

  • Bash Templating: How to build configuration files from templates with Bash?

    - by FractalizeR
    Hello. I'm writting a script to automate creating configuration files for Apache and PHP for my own webserver. I don't want to use any GUIs like CPanel or ISPConfig. I have some templates of Apache and PHP configuration files. Bash script needs to read templates, make variable substitution and output parsed templates into some folder. What is the best way to do that? I can think of several ways. Which one is the best or may be there are some better ways to do that? I want to do that in pure Bash (it's easy in PHP for example) 1)http://stackoverflow.com/questions/415677/how-to-repace-variables-in-a-nix-text-file template.txt: the number is ${i} the word is ${word} script.sh: #!/bin/sh #set variables i=1 word="dog" #read in template one line at the time, and replace variables #(more natural (and efficient) way, thanks to Jonathan Leffler) while read line do eval echo "$line" done < "./template.txt" BTW, how do I redirect output to external file here? Do I need to escape something if variables contain, say, quotes? 2) Using cat & sed for replacing each variable with it's value: Given template.txt: The number is ${i} The word is ${word} Command: cat template.txt | sed -e "s/\${i}/1/" | sed -e "s/\${word}/dog/" Seems bad to me because of the need to escape many different symbols and with many variables the line will be tooooo long. Can you think of some other elegant and safe solution?

    Read the article

  • How do I grant a site's applet an AllPermission privilege?

    - by nahsra
    I'd like to specify certain applets to run with java.security.AllPermission on my computer (for debugging and security testing). However, I don't want to enable all applets that I run to have this permission. So, editing my user Java policy file (which I have ensured is the correct policy file through testing), I try to put this value: grant codeBase "http://host_where_applet_lives/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; This value fails when the applet tries to do something powerful (create a new Thread, in my case). However, when I put the following value: grant { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; The applet is able to perform the powerful operation. The only difference is the lack of a codeBase attribute. An answer to a similar question asked here [1] seemed to suggest (but never show or prove) that AccessController.doPrivileged() calls may be required. To me, this sounds wrong as I don't need that call when I grant the permissions to all applets (the second example I showed). Even if this is a solution, littering the applets I run with AccessController.doPrivileged() calls is not easy or necessarily possible. To top it off, my tests show that this just doesn't work anyway. But I'm happy to hear more ideas around it. [1] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1751412/cant-get-allpermission-configured-for-intranet-applet-can-anyone-help

    Read the article

  • diffie-hellman ssh keyxchange

    - by Chuck
    Hi, I've set out to make a primitive SSH client in C#; you might remember me from posts such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2872279/c-primitive-ssh-connection-lowlevel hehe. Anyway, things are great up until the time when I initiate a DH key exchange. I've compared the traffic when I establish a ssh connection (from openssh client to openssh server), to the traffic when my client connects to the same openssh server. OpenSSH client - OpenSSH server (S for server, C for client): S: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-6ubuntu2\r (saying hello) C: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.2\r (introducing myself) C: Key Exchange Init (0x14 = 20) S: Key Exchange Init C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Request (0x22 = 34) (with DH GEX min, number of bits and max) S: Diffie-Hellman Key Exchange Reply (with P, G, etc.) C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Init S: Diffie-Hellman GEX Reply My client - OpenSSH server: S: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-6ubuntu2\r (saying hello) C: SSH-2.0-Some_Name\r (introducing myself) C: Key Exchange Init (0x14 = 20) S: Key Exchange Init C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Request (0x22 = 34) (with DH GEX min, number of bits and max) and then a bogus TCP packet as reply (probably the server connection has been terminated after/upon GEX Request. I have yet to use AES128 (which I think is the encryption chosen, but I'm not sure how to verify this...), and I'm still sending in a non-compressed format, looking to get the P, G etc. values to make the DH calculations. So where I'm stranded is: RFC 4419 page 3 http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc4419.txt I've send SSH_MSG_KEY_DH_GEX_REQUEST, but the server does not respond SSH_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP. Can anyone give me a little advice on what I'm not understanding here? Does the server not understand my GEX request (due to it expecting encryption, or?)? Any help is very much appreciated, thanks :)

    Read the article

  • Django "login() takes exactly 1 argument (2 given)" error

    - by Oleksandr Bolotov
    I'm trying to store the user's ID in the session using django.contrib.auth.login . But it is not working not as expected. I'm getting error login() takes exactly 1 argument (2 given) With login(user) I'm getting AttributeError at /login/ User' object has no attribute 'method' I'm using slightly modifyed example form http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/auth/ : from django.shortcuts import render_to_response from django.contrib.auth import authenticate, login def login(request): msg = [] if request.method == 'POST': username = request.POST['u'] password = request.POST['p'] user = authenticate(username=username, password=password) if user is not None: if user.is_active: login(request, user) msg.append("login successful") else: msg.append("disabled account") else: msg.append("invalid login") return render_to_response('login.html', {'errors': msg}) there's nothing special about login.html: <html> <head> <title></title> </head> <body> <form action="/login/" method="post"> Login:&nbsp; <input type="text" name="u"> <br/> Password:&nbsp; <input type="password" name="p"> <input type="submit" value="Login"> </form> {% if errors %} <ul> {% for error in errors %} <li>{{ error }}</li> {% endfor %} </ul> {% endif %} </body> </html> Does anybody have idea how to make login() work.

    Read the article

  • vsts load test datasource issues

    - by ashish.s
    Hello, I have a simple test using vsts load test that is using datasource. The connection string for the source is as follows <connectionStrings> <add name="MyExcelConn" connectionString="Driver={Microsoft Excel Driver (*.xls)};Dsn=Excel Files;dbq=loginusers.xls;defaultdir=.;driverid=790;maxbuffersize=4096;pagetimeout=20;ReadOnly=False" providerName="System.Data.Odbc" /> </connectionStrings> the datasource configuration is as follows and i am getting following error estError TestError 1,000 The unit test adapter failed to connect to the data source or to read the data. For more information on troubleshooting this error, see "Troubleshooting Data-Driven Unit Tests" (http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=62412) in the MSDN Library. Error details: ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. ERROR [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. I wrote a test, just to check if i could create an odbc connection would work and that works the test is as follows [TestMethod] public void TestExcelFile() { string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["MyExcelConn"].ConnectionString; using (OdbcConnection con = new OdbcConnection(connString)) { con.Open(); System.Data.Odbc.OdbcCommand objCmd = new OdbcCommand("SELECT * FROM [loginusers$]"); objCmd.Connection = con; OdbcDataAdapter adapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(objCmd); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); adapter.Fill(ds); Assert.IsTrue(ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count > 1); } } any ideas ?

    Read the article

  • Making that move from junior > mid level

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I duplicate Facebook picture tagging functionality?

    - by marcamillion
    I asked this question in another post - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2597773/how-do-i-put-a-div-box-around-my-cursor-on-click I got a wonderful answer. See the code below: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#image-wrapper").click(function(e){ var ele = $("<div>"); ele.css({width:"50px", height:"50px", border:"1px solid green", position:"absolute", left: e.pageX - 25, top: e.pageY -25}); $("body").append(ele); }); }); </script> <div id="image-wrapper" style="border: 1px solid red; width: 300px; height: 200px;"> </div> The issue I am having is that when I implement this snippet, on every click a box appears and stays there. So if I click on the image 10 times, I get 10 boxes. How do I get the previous box to disappear once I click somewhere else (i.e. have the box move to another place on the image (just like with Facebook Picture Tagging))? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Firefox drags div like it was an image, javascript event handlers possibly to blame

    - by user281434
    Hi, I'm using this HTML,CSS and Javascript code (in one document together if you want to test it out): <style type="text/css"> #slider_container { width: 200px; height: 30px; background-color: red; display:block; } #slider { width: 20px; height: 30px; background-color: blue; display:block; position:absolute; left:0; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../js/libs/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#slider").mousedown(function() { $(document).mousemove(function(evnt) { $("#test").html("sliding"); }).mouseup(function() { $("#test").html("not sliding"); $(document).unbind("mousemove mouseup"); });}); }); </script> <div id="test">a</div> <div id="slider_container"> <div id="slider"></div> </div> Everything (surprisingly) works fine in IE, but firefox seems to totally clusterf*ck when this javascript is used. The first "slide" is okay, you drag, it says "sliding", you drop, it says "not sliding". On the second "slide" (or mousedown if you will), firefox suddenly thinks the div is an image or link and wants to drag it around. Screenshot of the dragging: http://i.imgur.com/nPJxZ.jpg Obviously the blue div half-positioned in the red div is the one being dragged. Windows does not capture the cursor when you take a screenshot, but it's a stop sign. Is there someway to prevent this default behaviour?

    Read the article

  • Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

    - by dcp
    This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 2060 2061 2062 2063 2064 2065 2066 2067 2068 2069 2070 2071  | Next Page >