Search Results

Search found 28957 results on 1159 pages for 'single instance'.

Page 209/1159 | < Previous Page | 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216  | Next Page >

• .NET 4 ... Parallel.ForEach() question

  - by CirrusFlyer

  I understand that the new TPL (Task Parallel Library) has implemented the Parallel.ForEach() such that it works with "expressed parallelism." Meaning, it does not guarantee that your delegates will run in multiple threads, but rather it checks to see if the host platform has multiple cores, and if true, only then does it distribute the work across the cores (essentially 1 thread per core). If the host system does not have multiple cores (getting harder and harder to find such a computer) then it will run your code sequenceally like a "regular" foreach loop would. Pretty cool stuff, frankly. Normally I would do something like the following to place my long running operation on a background thread from the ThreadPool: ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem( new WaitCallback(targetMethod), new Object2PassIn() ); In a situation whereby the host computer only has a single core does the TPL's Parallel.ForEach() automatically place the invocation on a background thread? Or, should I manaully invoke any TPL calls from a background thead so that if I am executing from a single core computer at least that logic will be off of the GUI's dispatching thread? My concern is if I leave the TPL in charge of all this I want to ensure if it determines it's a single core box that it still marshalls the code that's inside of the Parallel.ForEach() loop on to a background thread like I would have done, so as to not block my GUI. Thanks for any thoughts or advice you may have ...

  Read the article

• ASP.NET DynamicData: Whats happening during an update?

  - by Jens A.

  I am using ASP.NET DynamicData (based on LINQ to SQL) on my site for basic scaffolding. On one table I have added additional properties, that are not stored in the table, but are retrieved from somewhere else. (Profile information for a user account, in this case). They are displayed just fine, but when editing these values and pressing "Update", they are not changed. Here's what the properties look like, the table is the standard aspnet_Users table: public String Address { get { UserProfile profile = UserProfile.GetUserProfile(UserName); return profile.Address; } set { UserProfile profile = UserProfile.GetUserProfile(UserName); profile.Address = value; profile.Save(); } } When I fired up the debugger, I've noticed that for each update the set accessor is called three times. Once with the new value, but on a newly created instance of user, then once with the old value, again on an new instance, and finally with the old value on the existing instance. Wondering a bit, I checked with the properties created by the designer, and they, too, are called three times in (almost) the same fashion. The only difference is, that the last call contains the new value for the property. I am a bit stumped here. Why three times, and why are my new properties behaving differently? I'd be grateful for any help on that matter! =)

  Read the article

• How to run stored procedures and ad-hoc scripts asynchronously with "loosely" connected SQL Server 2

  - by sanga

  Is there a way to initiate a script against an instance of SQL server when it is not connected then have it run on the instance the next time it connects? This needs to happen without any intervention from me. Background situation if you are interested: We have about 120 machines each with their own instance of SQL Server 2000. Most of them are laptops. We have merge replication set up with each one. From time to time, there is a need to delete "rogue" guids from some tables in some instances that overwrite legitimate records on the main publisher as well as perform administrative tasks via stored procedure or adhoc sql statements. The problem is there is no telling when each machine is going to be connected to the network. Some folks turn their machines completely off at the end of the day. Others disconnect their machines and take them on business trips, home for the weekend etc. Did I mention that about 35 of these machines are in utility trucks and "attempt" to sync over a wireless connection. Thanks in advance for any assistance or suggestions. Sanga

  Read the article

• Why can’t I create a database in an empty ASP MVC 2 project using Project->Add->New Item->SQL Server

  - by Dr Dork

  I'm diving head first into ASP MVC and am playing around with creating and manipulating a database. I did a search and found this tutorial for creating a database, however when I follow it, I get this error right at the start when trying to add a new database to my fresh, empty ASP MVC 2 project... A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) The only requirement the tutorial mentioned was SQL Server Express, but when I went to download it, it said it was already installed. I'm assuming it was part of the VS 2010 RC I installed and am running. So I don't know what else I need if I am missing something. This is all new to me, so I'm sure I'm missing something obvious here and after I'm done posting this question, I plan to do some more research into the topic of databases and how they work with ASP MVC. In the meantime, I was you could help me answer a couple high level questions... What am I missing/forgetting to do that is causing this error? Any suggestions for good resources/tutorials that focus on using databases with ASP MVC? I've done a lot of database programming in the past, so I'm familiar with the concepts of relational databases and the SQL language. I wish I could find a good resource for learning how to work with them in an ASP dev environment, as well as a good breakdown of all the related technologies used for working with them (i.e. LINQ to SQL). Thanks so much in advance for all your help! I'm going to start researching these questions right now.

  Read the article

• Unable to Connect to Management Studio Server

  - by Phil Hilliard

  I have a nasty situation. I am using Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio Express edition locally on my pc for testing, and once tested I upload database changes to a remote server. I have a situation where I deleted the Default Database on my local machine, and instead of searching hard enough to find an answer to that problem, I uninstalled and reinstalled Management Studio. Since then Management Studio has not been able to connect to the server. Is there any help (or hope for me for that matter), out there????? The following is the detailed error message: =================================== Cannot connect to LENOVO-E7A54767\SQLEXPRESS. =================================== A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) ------------------------------ For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&EvtSrc=MSSQLServer&EvtID=-1&LinkId=20476 ------------------------------ Error Number: -1 Severity: 20 State: 0 ------------------------------ Program Location: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Connect(ServerInfo serverInfo, SqlInternalConnectionTds connHandler, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, Boolean encrypt, Boolean trustServerCert, Boolean integratedSecurity, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.VSIntegration.ObjectExplorer.ObjectExplorer.ValidateConnection(UIConnectionInfo ci, IServerType server) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.ConnectionDlg.Connector.ConnectionThreadUser()

  Read the article

• Switching between 2 UINavigationControllers

  - by Smikey

  Hi all, I seem to have a problem switching between 2 UINavigationControllers, i.e. one which controls the main (selection) menu of my application, and the second which controls the main session (i.e. the user can't go back to the selection menu once they're started a new session). The first works just fine, but I get into trouble when trying to load the second. I have a class called GameViewController which contains the second UINavigationController instance. I set this up as usual, linking it as an IBOutlet to the delegate and setting up the NavController in the GameViewController.xib file with its 'Class' property pointing at GameScreenViewController (my main game screen), and its NIB Name property pointing to the GameScreenViewController nib file. I then create a new instance of GameViewController and load it. In IB, the navigation controller looks fine, with its View 'loaded from "GameScreenViewController"', however when the NavigationController is loaded in the game, it actually loads the GameViewController's UIWindow instance (just a blank window). I'm not sure how to make it load the Navigation Controller's view rather than its own window? Also, another quick question. When I load the second navigation controller from the first, which makes more sense to use: [self.view addSubview:gameViewController.view]; or [self presentModalViewController:gameViewController animated:YES]; Thanks for any help, much appreciated :D Michael

  Read the article

• visual studio attaching to a process in debug mode

  - by user1612986

  i have a strange problem. the dll that i built (lets call it my.dll) in c++ visual studio 2010 uses a third party library (say tp.lib) which in turn calls a third party dll (say tp.dll). for debugging prupose i have in configurationProperties-debugging-command: Excel.exe and configurationProperties-debugging-commandArguments: "$(TargetPath)" in my computer i also set PATH variable to the directory where tp.dll resides now when i hit the F5 in visual studio excel opens up with my.dll and crashes giving me a "cannot open in dos mode" error. the reason this happens is tp.dll is not deployed when debug version of my.dll is deployed. when i open an instance of excel seperately and manually drop the debug version of my.dll then everything works fine and i can see all my functions that i wrote in my.dll the only issue is now i do not know how to debug becuase i do not know how to attach visual studio to the instance of excel i opened up seperately. my question is: 1 how can i attach visual studio to an already opened instance of Excel or 2 how can i hit F5 and still make Excel pick up the required tp.dll from the directory specified in the PATH variable before it starts to deploy my.dll. any of these two will allow my to step through the code for the purpose of debugging. thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Global State and Singletons Dependency injection

  - by Manu

  this is a problem i face lot of times when i am designing a new app i'll use a sample problem to explain this think i am writing simple game.so i want to hold a list of players. i have few options.. 1.use a static field in some class private static ArrayList<Player> players = new ArrayList<Integer>(); public Player getPlayer(int i){ return players.get(i); } but this a global state 2.or i can use a singleton class PlayerList{ private PlayerList instance; private PlayerList(){...} public PlayerList getInstance() { if(instance==null){ ... } return instance; } } but this is bad because it's a singleton 3.Dependency injection class Game { private PlayerList playerList; public Game(PlayerList list) { this.list = list; } public PlayerList getPlayerList() { return playerList; } } this seems good but it's not, if any object outside Game need to look at PlayerList (which is the usual case) i have to use one of the above methods to make the Game class available globally. so I just add another layer to the problem. didn't actually solve anything. what is the optimum solution ? (currently i use Singleton approach)

  Read the article

• help me to parse JSON value using JSONTouch

  - by EquinoX

  I have the following json: http://www.adityaherlambang.me/webservice.php?user=2&num=10&format=json I would like to get all the name in this data by the following code, but it gives an error. How can I fix it? NSString *responseString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSDictionary *results = [responseString JSONValue]; NSDictionary *users = [results objectForKey:@"users"] objectForKey:@"user"]; for (NSDictionary *user in users){ //NSLog(@"key:%@, value:%@", user, [user objectForKey:user]); NSString *title = [users objectForKey:@"NAME"]; NSLog(@"%@", title); } Error: 2011-01-29 00:18:50.386 NeighborMe[7763:207] -[__NSArrayM objectForKey:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0xb618840 2011-01-29 00:18:50.388 NeighborMe[7763:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '-[__NSArrayM objectForKey:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0xb618840' *** Call stack at first throw: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x027d9b99 __exceptionPreprocess + 185 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x0292940e objc_exception_throw + 47 2 CoreFoundation 0x027db6ab -[NSObject(NSObject) doesNotRecognizeSelector:] + 187 3 CoreFoundation 0x0274b2b6 ___forwarding___ + 966 4 CoreFoundation 0x0274ae72 _CF_forwarding_prep_0 + 50 5 NeighborMe 0x0000bd75 -[NeighborListViewController connectionDidFinishLoading:] + 226 6 Foundation 0x0007cb96 -[NSURLConnection(NSURLConnectionReallyInternal) sendDidFinishLoading] + 108 7 Foundation 0x0007caef _NSURLConnectionDidFinishLoading + 133 8 CFNetwork 0x02d8d72f _ZN19URLConnectionClient23_clientDidFinishLoadingEPNS_26ClientConnectionEventQueueE + 285 9 CFNetwork 0x02e58fcf _ZN19URLConnectionClient26ClientConnectionEventQueue33processAllEventsAndConsumePayloadEP20XConnectionEventInfoI12XClientEvent18XClientEventParamsEl + 389 10 CFNetwork 0x02e5944b _ZN19URLConnectionClient26ClientConnectionEventQueue33processAllEventsAndConsumePayloadEP20XConnectionEventInfoI12XClientEvent18XClientEventParamsEl + 1537 11 CFNetwork 0x02d82968 _ZN19URLConnectionClient13processEventsEv + 100 12 CFNetwork 0x02d827e5 _ZN17MultiplexerSource7performEv + 251 13 CoreFoundation 0x027bafaf __CFRUNLOOP_IS_CALLING_OUT_TO_A_SOURCE0_PERFORM_FUNCTION__ + 15 14 CoreFoundation 0x0271939b __CFRunLoopDoSources0 + 571 15 CoreFoundation 0x02718896 __CFRunLoopRun + 470 16 CoreFoundation 0x02718350 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 208 17 CoreFoundation 0x02718271 CFRunLoopRunInMode + 97 18 GraphicsServices 0x030b800c GSEventRunModal + 217 19 GraphicsServices 0x030b80d1 GSEventRun + 115 20 UIKit 0x002e9af2 UIApplicationMain + 1160 21 NeighborMe 0x00001c34 main + 102 22 NeighborMe 0x00001bc5 start + 53 23 ??? 0x00000001 0x0 + 1 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' I really just wanted to be able to iterate through the names

  Read the article

• UIViewController maintains state after being nilled

  - by Eric

  In my app, I made a BookViewController class that displays and animates the pages of a book and a MainMenuViewController class that displays a set of books the user can read. In the latter class, when the user taps on one of the books, a function is called that should create a completely new instance of BookViewController, but for some reason the instance maintains its state (i.e. it resumes from the page the user left off). How can this be if I set it to nil? What am I missing here? (Note that I'm using ARC). MainMenuViewController.m @interface MainMenuViewController () @property (strong) BookViewController *bookViewController; @end @implementation MainMenuViewController @synthesize bookViewController; -(void)bookTapped:(UIButton *)sender{ NSString *bookTitle; if(sender == book1button) bookTitle = @"book1"; else if(sender == book2button) bookTitle = @"book2"; bookViewController = nil; bookViewController = [[BookViewController alloc] initWithBookTitle:bookTitle]; [self presentViewController:bookViewController animated:YES completion:nil]; } BookViewController.h @interface BookViewController : UIViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)bookTitle; @end BookViewController.m @implementation BookViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)theBookTitle{ self = [super init]; if(self){ bookTitle = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", theBookTitle]; [self setModalTransitionStyle:UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve]; NSLog(@"init a BookViewController with bookTitle: %@", bookTitle); } return self; } Every time a book is tapped, bookTapped: is called, and thee console always prints: 2012-08-31 16:29:51.750 AppName[25713:c07] init a BookViewController with bookTitle: book1 So if a new instance of BookViewController is being created, how come it seems to be returning the old one?

  Read the article

• How to do a partial database backup and restore?

  - by Workshop Alex

  Simple problem. I'm working on a single SQL Server database which is shared between several offices. Each office has their own schema inside this database, thus dividing the database in logical pieces. (Plus one schema that is shared between multiple offices.) The database is stored on a dedicated server and we use a single database to keep the backup/restore procedure easier. The problem, however, is that the Accounting Office might be modifying a lot of data and then the Secretary Office makes a mistake which requires restoration of a backup. Unfortunately, restoring the backup means that Accounting will lose their recently added data. So, the alternative solution is by restoring the backup into a new database, remove the data from the old accounting schema and move the data for accounting only from the backup top the original database. This is the current solution and it's time-consuming and error-prone. So, is there a way to make backups of a single schema, possibly through code? And then to restore just that schema, probably through code too?

  Read the article

• Need help with transferring data between MySQL db's using PHP

  - by JM4

  In one of the sites I manage, the client has decided to take on ACH/Bank Account administration where it was previously outsourced. As a result, the information submitted in our online form which used to simply store in a single database for processing now must sit in 'limbo' until the funds used for payment have been verified. My original plan is as follows: At the end of an enrollment, all form data is collected and stored in a single MySQL database. Our internal administrator will receive an email notification reminding him enrollments have taken place. He will process the ACH information collected and wait the 3-4 business days needed for payment to clear. Once the payment information has been returned as Good (haven't considered what I will do with the 'bad' yet), the administrator can log into a secure portal which allows him to click a button to 'process' the full information once compared and verified. the process is simplified as: Enrollment complete: data stored in DB 'A' Funds verified and link clicked: data from 'A' is copied to DB 'B' and 'A' is deleted. I have run similar processes with CSV output before and simply used //transfers old data to archive $transfer = mysql_query('INSERT INTO '.$archive.' SELECT * FROM '.$table) or die(mysql_error()); //empties existing table $query = mysql_query('TRUNCATE TABLE '.$table) or die(mysql_error()); but in those cases, ALL data returned was copied and deleted. I only want to copy and delete a single record. Any idea how to accomplish this?

  Read the article

• .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

  - by CitizenInsane

  Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

  Read the article

• In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

  - by Irchi

  Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

  Read the article

• Create table class as a singleton

  - by Mark

  I got a class that I use as a table. This class got an array of 16 row classes. These row classes all have 6 double variables. The values of these rows are set once and never change. Would it be a good practice to make this table a singleton? The advantage is that it cost less memory, but the table will be called from multiple threads so I have to synchronize my code which way cause a bit slower application. However lookups in this table are probably a very small portion of the total code that is executed. EDIT: This is my code, are there better ways to do this or is this a good practice? Removed synchronized keyword according to recommendations in this question. final class HalfTimeTable { private HalfTimeRow[] table = new HalfTimeRow[16]; private static final HalfTimeTable instance = new HalfTimeTable(); private HalfTimeTable() { if (instance != null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Already instantiated"); } table[0] = new HalfTimeRow(4.0, 1.2599, 0.5050, 1.5, 1.7435, 0.1911); table[1] = new HalfTimeRow(8.0, 1.0000, 0.6514, 3.0, 1.3838, 0.4295); //etc } @Override @Deprecated public Object clone() throws CloneNotSupportedException { throw new CloneNotSupportedException(); } public static HalfTimeTable getInstance() { return instance; } public HalfTimeRow getRow(int rownumber) { return table[rownumber]; } }

  Read the article

• What's a good way to organize a large collection of personal scripts using git?

  - by spooky note

  I have a large collection of my personal scripts that I would like to start versioning using Git. I've previously organized my code as follows: ~/code/python/projects/ (for large stuff, each project contained in an individual folder) ~/code/python/scripts/ (single file scripts all contained in this directory) ~/code/python/sandbox/ (my testing area) ~/code/python/docs/ (downloaded documentation) ~/code/java/... (as above) Now i'm going to start versioning my code using git, so that I can have history and backup all my code to a remote server. I know if I were using SVN I would just keep my entire "~/code/" directory in a large repository, but I understand this is not a good way to do things with Git. Most info I've seen online suggests keeping all my project folders in a single place (as in, no separate directories for python or java) with each project containing it's own git repository, and simply having a "snippets" directory containing all single-file scripts/experiments that can be converted into projects at a later date. But I'm not sure how I feel about consolidating all of my code directories into one area. Is there a good way to keep my separate code directories intact, or is it not worth the effort? Maybe I'm just attached to the separate code directories because I've never known anything else... Also (as a side note), I'd like to quickly be able to see a chronological history of all my projects and scripts. So I can see which projects I created most recently. I used to do this by keeping a number at the beginning of all my projects, 002project, 003project. Is there automatic or easy way to do this in git without having to add a number to all of the project names? I'm open to any practical or philosophical code organizing advice you have. Thanks!!!

  Read the article

• Run SQL Scripts from C# application across domains

  - by Saravanan AR

  To run sql script files from my C# application, I referred this. http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/adodotnetdataproviders/thread/43e8bc3a-1132-453b-b950-09427e970f31 it works perfectly when my machine and DB server are in the same domain. my problem now is, i'm executing this console application from a machine (name: X, user id: abc, domain D1). the SQL server is in another machine (name: Y, domain: D2). I use VPN to connect to machine Y with user id 'abc' and work on SQL in remote desktop. how can i run sql scripts across domains? I use this in a custom activity in my TFS build template as the last step to run the scripts in the target database which is in domain D2. i'm getting this error: "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified)" is it possible to connect to the DB using the admin user ID of machine Y in domain D2?

  Read the article

• understanding and implementing Boids

  - by alphablender

  So I'm working on porting Boids to Brightscript, based on the pseudocode here: http://www.kfish.org/boids/pseudocode.html I'm trying to understand the data structures involved, for example is Velocity a single value, or is it a 3D value, ie velocity={x,y,z} It seems as if the pseudocode seems to mix this up where sometimes it has an equation that incudes both vectors and single-value items: v1 = rule1(b) v2 = rule2(b) v3 = rule3(b) b.velocity = b.velocity + v1 + v2 + v3 If Velocity is a tripartite value then this would make sense, but I'm not sure. So my first question here is, is this the correct datastructure for a single boid based on the Pseudocode on that page: boid={position:{px:0,py:0,pz:0},velocity:{x:0,y:0,z:0},vector:{x:0,y:0,z:0},pc:{x:0,y:0,z:0},pv:{x:0,y:0,z:0}) where pc=perceived center, pv= perceived velocity I"ve implemented a vector_add, vector_sub, vector_div, and vector boolean functions. The reason I'm starting from this pseudocode is I've not been able to find anything else that is as readable, but it still leaves me with lots of questions as the data structures are not explicitly defined for each variable. (edit) here's a good example of what i'm talking about: IF |b.position - bJ.position| < 100 THEN if b.position - b[j].position are both 3D coordinates, how can they be considered "less than 100" unless they are < {100,100,100} ? Maybe that is what I need to do here, use a vector comparison function?

  Read the article

• Tips on refactoring an Android prototype

  - by Brad

  I have an Android project I've inherited from another developer. The original code was hacked together using a single View and a single Activity. The view class has a State variable that is switched on during input and rendering. Each "screen" is a single bitmap rendered directly onto the screen. There are no layouts used at all. To make things even worse each variable in both the View and Activity classes were all declared public static and would access each other frequently. I've reworked the code so it is now somewhat manageable, but it's still in those original two classes. This is my first decently sized Android app so I'm not completely sure where to go next. From the looks of things, each "screen" should have its own View and Activity. Is this the general practice? If so I need some way to share data between the separate Activities. I've read suggestions to use a Singleton class that holds generic data. Is there any other ways that are more built into the Android framework? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• [SOLVED]Django - Passing variables to template based on db

  - by George 'Griffin

  I am trying to add a feature to my app that would allow me to enable/disable the "Call Me" button based on whether or not I am at [home|the office]. I created a model in the database called setting, it looks like this: class setting(models.Model): key = models.CharField(max_length=200) value = models.CharField(max_length=200) Pretty simple. There is currently one row, available, the value of it is the string True. I want to be able to transparently pass variables to the templates like this: {% if available %} <!-- Display button --> {% else %} <!-- Display grayed out button --> {% endif %} Now, I could add logic to every view that would check the database, and pass the variable to the template, but I am trying to stay DRY. What is the best way to do this? UPDATE I created a context processor, and added it's path to the TEMPLATE_CONTEXT_PROCESSORS, but it is not being passed to the template def available(request): available = Setting.objects.get(key="available") if open.value == "True": return {"available":True} else: return {} UPDATE TWO If you are using the shortcut render_to_response, you need to pass an instance of RequestContext to the function. from the django documentation: If you're using Django's render_to_response() shortcut to populate a template with the contents of a dictionary, your template will be passed a Context instance by default (not a RequestContext). To use a RequestContext in your template rendering, pass an optional third argument to render_to_response(): a RequestContext instance. Your code might look like this: def some_view(request): # ... return render_to_response('my_template.html', my_data_dictionary, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) Many thanks for all the help!

  Read the article

• Window manipulation and inctences control

  - by touki

  In my application there are only 2 windows — win_a & win_b, on each of these windows there is button that call another window, e.g. click on btn1 of win_a will call win_b, click on btn2 of win_b will show win_a. Desired behaviour: 1. Only one instance of object is premitted at the same time, e.g. situation, where 2 instances of win_a running at the same time is not permitted. When you click on button that calls windows that already exist this action will only change a focus to needed window. If you call a window that previously had been created, but after this has been closed this action will create a new instance of this window. E.g. there are 2 running windows. you close one of them and after try to call this window back, so related button will create it. How to write it in WPF (XAML + C#). For the moment I wrote a version that can create a lot of instances of the same window (no number of instances control implemented), but I want to see only one instance of the same window, as we can see it in a lot of applications. Example of my code: Window win = new Window(); win.Show(); Thanks.

  Read the article

• grails services :: multiple projects

  - by naveen

  PROBLEM : I have multiple grails projects (lets say appA, appB and appC) : services to be precise I want to run them in a single grails-app.. probably a war deployment, how can i do this? REQUIREMENTS : I want this to be a single app since i am deploying it on cloud and i don't have enough memory to hold all these service instances individually. The reason for multiple grails project is scalability. So that if later on i want to run 10 instance of appA, 3 instance of appB, and 1 instance of aapC; i should be able to do that. EDIT : Can i use something like 0mq, will that be helpful in keeping the services separated from each other. How will i package my service? And reading the docs of 0mq seems that it can work with both inprocess and external process. Will async grails requests on HTTP work with 0mq in process/ external mq calls. Haven't used 0mq, but from the initial doc it seems to work. Need some experience calls in this scenario. Are there any other alternatives or mq alternatives?

  Read the article

• Class Inside Structure

  - by Knvn

  Could some one please explain, What happens when a reference type is defined inside the value type. I write the following code: namespace ClassInsideStruct { class ClassInsideStruct { static void Main(string[] args) { ValueType ObjVal = new ValueType(10); ObjVal.Display(); ValueType.ReferenceType ObjValRef = new ValueType.ReferenceType(10); ObjValRef.Display(); Test(ObjVal, ObjValRef); ObjVal.Display(); ObjValRef.Display(); Console.ReadKey(); } private static void Test(ValueType v, ValueType.ReferenceType r) { v.SValue = 50; r.RValue = 50; } } struct ValueType { int StructNum; ReferenceType ObjRef; public ValueType(int i) { StructNum = i; ObjRef = new ReferenceType(i); } public int SValue { get { return StructNum; } set { StructNum = value; ObjRef.RValue = value; } } public void Display() { Console.WriteLine("ValueType: " + StructNum); Console.Write("ReferenceType Inside ValueType Instance: "); ObjRef.Display(); } public class ReferenceType { int ClassNum; public ReferenceType(int i) { ClassNum = i; } public void Display() { Console.WriteLine("Reference Type: " + ClassNum); } public int RValue { get { return ClassNum; } set { ClassNum = value; } } } } } Which outputs: ValueType: 10 ReferenceType Inside ValueType Instance: Reference Type: 10 Reference Type: 10 ValueType: 10 ReferenceType Inside ValueType Instance: Reference Type: 50 Reference Type: 50 I'm curious to know, after calling the method Test(ObjVal, ObjValRef), how the values of ReferenceType is changed to 50 which resides inside the ValueType who's value is not changed?

  Read the article

• Changing Value of Array Pointer When Passed to a Function

  - by ZAX

  I have a function which receives both the array, and a specific instance of the array. I try to change the specific instance of the array by accessing one of its members "color", but it does not actually change it, as can be seen by debugging (checking the value of color after function runs in the main program). I am hoping someone can help me to access this member and change it. Essentially I need the instance of the array I'm specifying to be passed by reference if nothing else, but I'm hoping there is an easier way to accomplish what I'm trying to do. Here's the structures: typedef struct adjEdge{ int vertex; struct adjEdge *next; } adjEdge; typedef struct vertex{ int sink; int source; int color; //0 will be white, 1 will be grey, 5 will be black int number; adjEdge *nextVertex; } vertex; And here is the function: void walk(vertex *vertexArray, vertex v, int source, maxPairing *head) { int i; adjEdge *traverse; int moveVertex; int sink; traverse = vertexArray[v.number-1].nextVertex; if(v.color != 5 && v.sink == 5) { sink = v.number; v.color = 5; addMaxPair(head, source, sink); } else { walk(vertexArray, vertexArray[traverse->vertex-1], source, head); } } In particular, v.color needs to be changed to a 5, that way later after recursion the if condition blocks it.

  Read the article

• JS best practice for member functions

  - by MickMalone1983

  I'm writing a little mobile games library, and I'm not sure the best practice for declaring member functions of instantiated function objects. For instance, I might create a simple object with one property, and a method to print it: function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = function(){ console.log(this.id); }; }; However, a function which does not need access to 'private' members of the function does not need to be declared in the function at all. I could equally have written: function print(){ console.log(this.id); }; function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = print; }; When the function is invoked through an instance of Foo, the instance becomes the context for this, so the output is the same in either case. I'm not entirely sure how memory is allocated with JS, and I can't find anything that I can understand about something this specific, but it seems to me that with the first example all members of Foo, including the print function, are duplicated each time it is instantiated - but with the second, it just gets a pointer to one, pre-declared function, which would save any more memory having to be allocated as more instances of Foo are created. Am I correct, and if I am, is there any memory/performance benefit to doing this?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216  | Next Page >