Search Results

Search found 6395 results on 256 pages for 'weird behaviour'.

Page 211/256 | < Previous Page | 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218  | Next Page >

  • [php] Cookies only changing value every two page refreshes?

    - by Gazillion
    Hello, I'm trying to implement some pixel tracking where I will save certain values in a cookie to then forward users to another page. If users purchase a product after being forwarded to the online store by us the store adds an image tag in the page with our php script included. With the values set in the cookie we would like to track conversions. I understand this tracking technique has some limitations (like if a user has cookies turned off or if they do not load images but that's the direction my client wanted to go in). The problem I'm having is that the cookie's behaviour is extremely... random. I've been trying to track their values (with a var_dump so I don't have to wait for a page reload to view the cookie's value) but it seems the value for one field only gets refreshed every two page reloads. setcookie("tracking[cn]", $cn, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[t]", $t, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[kid]", $kid, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); redirectTo($redirect_url); the values of cn, t are fine but for some reason kid is always wrong (having taken the value of the previous kid) Any help would be extremely appreciated I've been at this all evening! :)

    Read the article

  • What can I do about ambigous wildcard patterns in Struts?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I have a problem finding the right wildcard pattern to extract parts of my URL into action parameters in Struts. This is how I set up the action. The intent of the pattern is to capture the last two path elements and then everything that might precede them. <action name="**/*/*" class="com.example.ObjectAction"> <param name="filter">{1}</param> <param name="type">{2}</param> <param name="id">{3}</param> </action> Calling it with the URL channels/123/transmissions/456 I get the following result (the action just sets the input parameters on a POJO and returns that as XML): <result> <filter>channels/123/transmissions</filter> <id/> <type>456</type> </result> It should be: <result> <filter>channels/123</filter> <id>456</id> <type>transmissions</type> </result> Now, because ** matches all characters including the slash, I guess my pattern allows more than one way to match the URL, and Struts happens to pick one that leaves the id empty. Is the behaviour for multiple possible matches defined somewhere? Can I make the pattern less ambigous? Are there alternative ways of doing this? I'm running Struts 2.0.8. Upgrading to 2.1.9 would give me regex matching, but I got into trouble with Struts' dependencies and my OSGi environment when I went past 2.0.8, so I'd like to stick to that version for now.

    Read the article

  • Stored procedure woes ... inserting binary ...

    - by Wardy
    Ok so I have this storedproc in my SQL 2008 database (works in 2005 too / used to) ... CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[SetBinaryContent] @Ref nvarchar(50), @Content varbinary(MAX), @ObjectID uniqueidentifier AS BEGIN DELETE ObjectContent WHERE ObjectId = @ObjectID AND Ref = @Ref IF DATALENGTH(@Content) > 5 BEGIN INSERT INTO ObjectContent (Ref,BinaryContent,ObjectId) VALUES (@Ref,@Content,@ObjectId) END UPDATE Objects SET [Status] = 1 WHERE ID = @ObjectID END Relatively simple, I take a byte array in C# and chuck it in @Content i then give it a guid and string for the other params and off we go. ... Great, it used to work ... but it don't anymore ... so erm ... What's wrong with this stored proc? I've stepped through my C# code thinking I screwed up somehow in that but it definately adds the params and gives them the correct values so what would cause the server to just stop executing this storedproc correctly? When called this proc executes but nothing changes in the db ... no new records are added to the ObjectContent table. Weird huh ...

    Read the article

  • Lucene wildcard queries

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have this question relating to Lucene. I have a form and I get a text from it and I want to perform a full text search in several fields. Suppose I get from the input the text "textToLook". I have a Lucene Analyzer with several filters. One of them is lowerCaseFilter, so when I create the index, words will be lowercased. Imagine I want to search into two fields field1 and field2 so the lucene query would be something like this (note that 'textToLook' now is 'texttolook'): field1: texttolook* field2:texttolook* In my class I have something like this to create the query. I works when there is no wildcard. String text = "textToLook"; String[] fields = {"field1", "field2"}; //analyser is the same as the one used for indexing Analyzer analyzer = fullTextEntityManager.getSearchFactory().getAnalyzer("customAnalyzer"); MultiFieldQueryParser parser = new MultiFieldQueryParser(fields, analyzer); org.apache.lucene.search.Query queryTextoLibre = parser.parse(text); With this code the query would be: field1: texttolook field2:texttolook but If I set text to "textToLook*" I get field1: textToLook* field2:textToLook* which won't find correctly as the indexes are in lowercase. I have read in lucene website this: " Wildcard, Prefix, and Fuzzy queries are not passed through the Analyzer, which is the component that performs operations such as stemming and lowercasing" My problem cannot be solved by setting the behaviour case insensitive cause my analyzer has other fields which for examples remove some suffixes of words. I think I can solve the problem by getting how the text would be after going through the filters of my analyzer, then I could add the "*" and then I could build the Query with MultiFieldQueryParser. So in this example I woud get "textToLower" and after being passed to to these filters I could get "texttolower". After this I could make "textotolower*". But, is there any way to get the value of my text variable after going through all my analyzer's filters? How can I get all the filters of my analyzer? Is this possible? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is extending a base class with non-virtual destructor dangerous in C++

    - by Akusete
    Take the following code class A { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { int x; }; int main (int argc, char** argv) { A* b = new B(); A* c = new C(); //in both cases, only ~A() is called, not ~B() or ~C() delete b; //is this ok? delete c; //does this line leak memory? return 0; } when calling delete on a class with a non-virtual destructor with member functions (like class C), can the memory allocator tell what the proper size of the object is? If not, is memory leaked? Secondly, if the class has no member functions, and no explicit destructor behaviour (like class B), is everything ok? I ask this because I wanted to create a class to extend std::string, (which I know is not recommended, but for the sake of the discussion just bear with it), and overload the +=,+ operator. -Weffc++ gives me a warning because std::string has a non virtual destructor, but does it matter if the sub-class has no members and does not need to do anything in its destructor? -- FYI the += overload was to do proper file path formatting, so the path class could be used like class path : public std::string { //... overload, +=, + //... add last_path_component, remove_path_component, ext, etc... }; path foo = "/some/file/path"; foo = foo + "filename.txt"; //and so on... I just wanted to make sure someone doing this path* foo = new path(); std::string* bar = foo; delete bar; would not cause any problems with memory allocation

    Read the article

  • Issue on dojo onlick event on html button

    - by Cuong Le
    I am a new kid with dojo, I got weird issue which I take lots of time and have not yet found out, assume I have 4 buttons: <button id="btnMoveFirst" data-dojo-type="dijit.form.Button" iconclass="plusIcon"> &lt; &lt;</button> <button id="btnMovePrev" data-dojo-type="dijit.form.Button" iconclass="plusIcon"> &lt;</button> <button id="btnMoveNext" data-dojo-type="dijit.form.Button" iconclass="plusIcon"> &gt;</button> <button id="btnMoveLast" data-dojo-type="dijit.form.Button" iconclass="plusIcon"> &gt; &gt;</button> And use dojo with event onclick as below: dojo.connect(dijit.registry.byId('btnMoveFirst'), "onclick", function(evt){ alert('test1'); }); dojo.connect(dijit.registry.byId('btnMovePrev'), "onclick", function(evt){ alert('test2'); }); dojo.connect(dijit.registry.byId('btnMoveNext'), "onclick", function(evt){ alert('test3'); }); dojo.connect(dijit.registry.byId('btnMoveLast'), "onclick", function(evt){ alert('test4'); }); But when I click any one of 4 buttons, or even any button in form, I got 4 alerts instead of only correct one. Does anyone know this?

    Read the article

  • "hour" int taken from NSDate not behaving as expected at midnight??

    - by Eric
    I feel like I've lost my mind. Can someone tell me what's going on here? Also, I'm sure there is a better way to do what I'm trying to do, but I'm not interested in that now. I'd just like to solve the mystery of why my ints are not responding to logic as expected. // Set "At: " field close to current time NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"HH"]; int hour = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"mm"]; int minute = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; NSLog(@"currently %i:%i",hour, minute); if(hour >= 12){ // convert to AM/PM selectedMeridiem = 1; if(hour != 12){ hour = hour - 12; } } else{ selectedMeridiem = 0; } selectedHour = hour - 1; if(selectedHour <= 0){ selectedHour = 11; } When I debug the above code with my clock set to 12:XX AM, the integer "hour" returned is 0. But then any if statements with the condition if(hour == 0) are not evaluated. Likewise, this would not be evaluated either: if(hour < 1). The code above puts the hour int into another int, selectedHour (don't worry about why I'm doing this for now), but selectedHour suffers from the same weird behavior; the if(selectedHour <= 0) line is never evaluated. Am I going crazy, or am I just an idiot? Maybe there's some behavior of 0 integers that I'm not aware of. All of my code runs fine as long as it's not 12:XX AM.

    Read the article

  • .NET - Is there a way to programmatically fill all tables in a strongly-typed dataset?

    - by Mike Loux
    Hello, all! I have a SQL Server database for which I have created a strongly-typed DataSet (using the DataSet Designer in Visual Studio 2008), so all the adapters and select commands and whatnot were created for me by the wizard. It's a small database with largely static data, so I would like to pull the contents of this DB in its entirety into my application at startup, and then grab individual pieces of data as needed using LINQ. Rather than hard-code each adapter Fill call, I would like to see if there is a way to automate this (possibly via Reflection). So, instead of: Dim _ds As New dsTest dsTestTableAdapters.Table1TableAdapter.Fill(_ds.Table1) dsTestTableAdapters.Table2TableAdapter.Fill(_ds.Table2) <etc etc etc> I would prefer to do something like: Dim _ds As New dsTest For Each tableName As String In _ds.Tables Dim adapter as Object = <routine to grab adapter associated with the table> adapter.Fill(tableName) Next Is that even remotely doable? I have done a fair amount of searching, and I wouldn't think this would be an uncommon request, but I must be either asking the wrong question, or I'm just weird to want to do this. I will admit that I usually prefer to use unbound controls and not go with strongly-typed datasets (I prefer to write SQL directly), but my company wants to go this route, so I'm researching it. I think the idea is that as tables are added, we can just refresh the DataSet using the Designer in Visual Studio and not have to make too many underlying DB code changes. Any help at all would be most appreciated. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

    - by Dan Ryan
    I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

    Read the article

  • Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

    - by d4nt
    Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

    Read the article

  • How can I superimpose modified loess lines on a ggplot2 qplot?

    - by briandk
    Background Right now, I'm creating a multiple-predictor linear model and generating diagnostic plots to assess regression assumptions. (It's for a multiple regression analysis stats class that I'm loving at the moment :-) My textbook (Cohen, Cohen, West, and Aiken 2003) recommends plotting each predictor against the residuals to make sure that: The residuals don't systematically covary with the predictor The residuals are homoscedastic with respect to each predictor in the model On point (2), my textbook has this to say: Some statistical packages allow the analyst to plot lowess fit lines at the mean of the residuals (0-line), 1 standard deviation above the mean, and 1 standard deviation below the mean of the residuals....In the present case {their example}, the two lines {mean + 1sd and mean - 1sd} remain roughly parallel to the lowess {0} line, consistent with the interpretation that the variance of the residuals does not change as a function of X. (p. 131) How can I modify loess lines? I know how to generate a scatterplot with a "0-line,": # First, I'll make a simple linear model and get its diagnostic stats library(ggplot2) data(cars) mod <- fortify(lm(speed ~ dist, data = cars)) attach(mod) str(mod) # Now I want to make sure the residuals are homoscedastic qplot (x = dist, y = .resid, data = mod) + geom_smooth(se = FALSE) # "se = FALSE" Removes the standard error bands But does anyone know how I can use ggplot2 and qplot to generate plots where the 0-line, "mean + 1sd" AND "mean - 1sd" lines would be superimposed? Is that a weird/complex question to be asking?

    Read the article

  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

    Read the article

  • TextArea being used as an itemEditor misbehaves when the enter key is pressed

    - by ChrisInCambo
    Hi, I have a TextArea inside an itemEditor component, the problem is that when typing in the TextArea if the enter key is pressed the itemEditor resets itself rather moving the caret to the next line as expected: <mx:List width="100%" editable="true" > <mx:dataProvider> <mx:ArrayCollection> <mx:Array> <mx:Object title="Stairway to Heaven" /> </mx:Array> </mx:ArrayCollection> </mx:dataProvider> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:Text height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> <mx:itemEditor> <mx:Component> <mx:TextArea height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemEditor> </mx:List> </mx:Application> Could anyone advise how I can get around this strange behaviour and make the enter key behave as expected? Thanks, Chris

    Read the article

  • svnsync looses revision properties although hook installed

    - by roesslerj
    Hello all! I have a pretty weird problem. We have setup an SVN-Mirror via cronjob (because it needs to go from inside to outside of a firewall, so no post-commit-hook possible) and svnsync. We installed a pre-revprop-hook just as told. Everything seems to work fine, except that it doesn't. E.g. when manually executing the script. # svnsync --non-interactive sync file://<path-to-mirror> --source-username <usr> --source-password <pwd> Committed revision 19817. Copied properties for revision 19817. No error, no complaints. But if checking for the revision properties it says: # svnlook info <path-to-mirror> 0 # svn info -r HEAD file://<path-to-mirror> 2>&1 Path: <root-of-mirror> URL: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository Root: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository UUID: <uid> Revision: 19817 Node Kind: directory Last Changed Rev: 19817 So somehow the author and timestamp information gets lost. But we need that information for our internal processes. Since no error or warning is produced I have absolutely no idea even where to start to look. Everything is local (except for the remote master), so there are no server-logs to look at. Any ideas how I could approach that problem, or even better -- how to solve it? Any ideas appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Alternative to 'Dispatch for ASP' deployment plug-in?

    - by Django Reinhardt
    Hi there, we've recently stumbled across the excellent Dispatch for ASP deployment plug in. It looks great apart from one thing: It doesn't work with Visual Studio 2010, at least for us, anyway. (It's supposed to work fine.) (Yes, we've tried everything: We've managed to get Dispatch working for another FTP site, but not the main one we regularly deploy to. We have managed to connect to our main site through FileZilla FTP, so the site itself is configured correctly. All settings have been triple checked, but the software still throws up weird errors (always to do with its internal libraries).) So does anyone know of any other comparable FTP-based, deployment plug-ins for Visual Studio? Here's what Dispatch does (and so any suggested replacement must do): Monitor any altered files in the project. When a file is changed, it's added to a list of files to be deployed. To deploy these files to the live site, all we need to do is click "Upload" and the plugin will connect via FTP to our live site and upload all the files. We can filter out any filenames we don't want to be monitored/uploaded (e.g. .cs or web.config or /Images/, etc.) I think that's all the features that we need. Thanks for any suggestions!

    Read the article

  • ExecutorService memory leak on exception

    - by TofuBeer
    I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

    Read the article

  • operators computing direction

    - by amiad
    Hi all! I enqunterd something that I can't understand. I have this code: cout << "f1 * f1 + f2 * f1 - f1 / f2 is: "<< f1 * f1 + f2 * f1 - f1 / f2 << endl; All the "f"s are objects, and all the operators are overloaded. The weird this is that the first computarion is of the "/" operator, then the second "" and then the first "", after that - the operator "+" and at last - operator "-". So basicly - the "/" and "*" worked from right to left, and the "+" and "-" operators worked from left to right. I made another test... I checked this code: cout << "f1 * f1 / f2 is: " << f1 * f1 / f2 << endl; Now, the first operator was "*" and only then oerator "/". So now, it worked from left to right. Can someone help me underatand why is there diffrence in the directions? 10X!

    Read the article

  • SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

    Read the article

  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

    Read the article

  • Rails with passenger only runs in development

    - by Ignace
    Hey, I have a problem on one of our webservers. I'll try to explain it as clear as possible, but I'm not 100% aware of all the configuration of the server. There are 2 sites running next to eachother (blcc_preprod and blcc_prod), so in the 'sites-enabled' of apache this i have a file 'blcc' like this: <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /opt/dn/blcc/www RailsBaseURI /blcc_preprod RailsBaseURI /blcc_prod RailsEnv production </VirtualHost> My config/environments/production.log (from both) looks like this(I removed all comments, because it messes with the layout) config.cache_classes = true config.action_controller.consider_all_requests_local = false config.action_controller.perform_caching = true config.action_view.cache_template_loading = true config.log_level = :debug The weird thing is, that my production log dates from months ago, so something is really wrong. Could someone help? If you need more info, just ask. Thanks! Edit: Error.log from apache show the normal output for a event to the server (the situation here is that the webserver plugs in to another business (java) server via a framework) Access.log is empty Content from other_vhosts_access.log after we surf to ip/blcc_preprod is the following blcc.localdomain:80 192.168.21.194 - - [25/May/2010:08:33:04 +0200] "GET/ blcc_preprod HTTP/1.1" 500 594 "-" "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727)"

    Read the article

  • Prevent default on a click within a JQuery tabs in Google Chrome.

    - by Sydney
    I would like to prevent the default behaviour of a click on a link. I tried the return false; also javascript:void(0); in the href attribute but it doesn’t seem to work. It works fine in Firefox, but not in Chrome and IE. I have a single tab that loads via AJAX the content which is a simple link. <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#tabs").tabs({ ajaxOptions: { error: function(xhr, status, index, anchor) { $(anchor.hash).html("Couldn't load this tab. We'll try to fix this as soon as possible. If this wouldn't be a demo."); }, success: function() { alert('hello'); $('#lk').click(function() { alert('Click Me'); return false; }); } }, load: function(event, ui) { $('a', ui.panel).click(function() { $(ui.panel).load(this.href); return false; }); } }); }); </script> <body> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="linkChild.htm">Link</a></li> </ul> </div> </body> The content of linkChild.htm is <a href="javascript:void(0)" id="lk">Click Me</a> So basically when the tab content is loaded with success, a click event is attached to the link “lk”. When I click on the link, the alert is displayed but then link disappears. I check the HTML and the element is actually removed from the DOM.

    Read the article

  • Long-held TCP sessions in an ASMX client

    - by John
    Hi, I have an ASP.NET application which talks to a third-party SOAP web service. My application uses an ASMX client proxy (i.e. System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol). The third-party service uses WCF, although I don't expect that makes much difference. I should note that we're using .NET 3.5 SP1. We haven't customised the proxy or done anything unusual - we're just making standard web service requests and getting back the results. We have encapsulated the proxy reference within a using block so it will get disposed after the response is received. We've been told that our application is behaving strangely in its use of TCP sessions. Instead of opening a new TCP session for each request from a new proxy instance (which is what I would have expected it to do), it's apparently keeping several connections alive and re-using them. This is causing some issues at the third party end, as they are expecting us to be using multiple sessions. Is this a known behaviour for the SoapHttpClientProtocol client proxy? If so, is there any way we can override it so that each request results in a new TCP session? Thanks, John

    Read the article

  • [MFC] Creating multiple dialogs in an MFC app with no main Window, they become children of each othe

    - by John
    (title updated) Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000) Running in the debugger, if I manually change pParentWnd back to 0 in CDialog::CreateIndirect, everything works fine... but how do I stop it happening in the first place?

    Read the article

  • How to export Oracle statistics

    - by A_M
    Hi, I am writing some new SQL queries and want to check the query plans that the Oracle query optimiser would come up with in production. My development database doesn't have anything like the data volumes of the production database. How can I export database statistics from a production database and re-import them into a development database? I don't have access to the production database, so I can't simply generate explain plans on production without going through a third party hosting organisation. This is painful. So I want a local database which is in some way representative of production on which I can try out different things. Also, this is for a legacy application. I'd like to "improve" the schema, by adding appropriate indexes. constraints, etc. I need to do this in my development database first, before rolling out to test and production. If I add an index and re-generate statistics in development, then the statistics will be generated around the development data volumes, which makes it difficult to assess the impact my changes on production. Does anyone have any tips on how to deal with this? Or is it just a case of fixing unexpected behaviour once we've discovered it on production? I do have a staging database with production volumes, but again I have to go through a third party to run queries against this, which is painful. So I'm looking for ways to cut out the middle man as much as possible. All this is using Oracle 9i. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218  | Next Page >