Search Results

Search found 6730 results on 270 pages for 'loaded'.

Page 212/270 | < Previous Page | 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219  | Next Page >

  • Nhibernate join on a table twice

    - by Zuber
    Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

    - by mikep
    Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate database integrity with multiple java applications

    - by Austen
    We have 2 java web apps both are read/write and 3 standalone java read/write applications (one loads questions via email, one processes an xml feed, one sends email to subscribers) all use hibernate and share a common code base. The problem we have recently come across is that questions loaded via email sometimes overwrite questions created in one of the web apps. We originally thought this to be a caching issue. We've tried turning off the second level cache, but this doesn't make a difference. We are not explicitly opening and closing sessions, but rather let hibernate manage them via Util.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(), which thinking about it, may actually be the issue. We'd rather not setup a clustered 2nd level cache at this stage as this creates another layer of complexity and we're more than happy with the level of performance we get from the app as a whole. So does implementing a open-session-in-view pattern in the web apps and manually managing the sessions in the standalone apps sound like it would fix this? Or any other suggestions/ideas please? <property name="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransactionFactory</property> <property name="hibernate.current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property>

    Read the article

  • Simple Prototype.js code to select multiple elements with the same classname

    - by stephemurdoch
    I have one link with an id of "link", and I use the javascript below to open that link up in a modalbox: #In my template I have: <a href="some/path" id="link">link</a> #Then in my application.js file I have: document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { $('login-link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500}); }); }) Since id's must be unique, this javascript only works for one element per page so I use it to observe my login-link and it has served me well. Until now. I want to use the same javascript to observe multiple links which have classnames instead of id's as below: <a href="link/to/some/stuff" class="link">link 1</a> <a href="link/to/some/other/stuff" class="link">link 2</a> When I do this, I can't get any of the links to open in a modalbox. If I change the class to an id for each link, then I can get the first link in the list to open in a modalbox. I've tried to use the '$$' notation to build an array of links in my javascript (shown below) but if I do that, then none of the links open correctly #document.observe method removed for display purposes $$('link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500} ); }); My javascript skills obviously suck. Does anyone know how to fix the problem?

    Read the article

  • Which apache worker to use with passenger and how?

    - by Millisami
    I've this config in my apache2.conf <IfModule mpm_prefork_module> StartServers 5 MinSpareServers 5 MaxSpareServers 10 MaxClients 150 MaxRequestsPerChild 0 </IfModule> # worker MPM # StartServers: initial number of server processes to start # MaxClients: maximum number of simultaneous client connections # MinSpareThreads: minimum number of worker threads which are kept spare # MaxSpareThreads: maximum number of worker threads which are kept spare # ThreadsPerChild: constant number of worker threads in each server process # MaxRequestsPerChild: maximum number of requests a server process serves <IfModule mpm_worker_module> StartServers 2 MaxClients 15 MinSpareThreads 4 MaxSpareThreads 5 ThreadsPerChild 15 MaxRequestsPerChild 50000 </IfModule> Now I'm confused here. Which module gets loaded on which conditions? The phusion guys have suggested to use the worker module. Since both are present in apache conf file, do I have to comment the mpm_prefork_module or leave it as it is? Following is my passenger conf file for apache: LoadModule passenger_module /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.4/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so PassengerRoot /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.4 PassengerRuby /usr/bin/ruby1.8 PassengerMaxPoolSize 3 PassengerPoolIdleTime 999999 RailsFrameworkSpawnerIdleTime 0 RailsAppSpawnerIdleTime 0 I'm running just a single Rails 2.3.2 app on 256MB slice at slicehost. I'm not quite satisfied with the performance yet. Are the settings above are any good??

    Read the article

  • Using java.util.regex in Android apps - are there issues with this?

    - by johnrock
    In an Android app I have a utility class that I use to parse strings for 2 regEx's. I compile the 2 patterns in a static initializer so they only get compiled once, then activities can use the parsing methods statically. This works fine except that the first time the class is accessed and loaded, and the static initializer compiles the pattern, the UI hangs for close to a MINUTE while it compiles the pattern! After the first time, it flies on all subsequent calls to parseString(). My regEx that I am using is rather large - 847 characters, but in a normal java webapp this is lightning fast. I am testing this so far only in the emulator with a 1.5 AVD. Could this just be an emulator issue or is there some other reason that this pattern is taking so long to compile? private static final String exp1 = "(insertratherlong---847character--regexhere)"; private static Pattern regex1 = null; private static final String newLineAndTagsExp = "[<>\\s]"; private static Pattern regexNewLineAndTags = null; static { regex1 = Pattern.compile(exp1, Pattern.CASE_INSENSITIVE); regexNewLineAndTags = Pattern.compile(newLineAndTagsExp); } public static String parseString(CharSequence inputStr) { String replacementStr = "replaceMentText"; String resultString = "none"; try { Matcher regexMatcher = regex1.matcher(inputStr); try { resultString = regexMatcher.replaceAll(replacementStr); } catch (IllegalArgumentException ex) { } catch (IndexOutOfBoundsException ex) { } } catch (PatternSyntaxException ex) { } return resultString; }

    Read the article

  • Beginning Haskell: "not in scope" Unprecedented error

    - by user1071838
    So I just started learning Haskell, and this (http://learnyouahaskell.com) nifty book is giving a lot of help. So yesterday I wrote in a text file doubleMe x = x + x and saved it as double.hs. So after saving that I open up my command prompt, CD to the right folder, type in "ghci" to get haskell started, and then type in >doubleMe 5 10 and everything seems to work. Now today, I do the same thing and this happens (actual copy paste from command line) . . . C:\Users\myName\haskell>ghci GHCi, version 7.0.3: http://www.haskell.org/ghc/ :? for help Loading package ghc-prim ... linking ... done. Loading package integer-gmp ... linking ... done. Loading package base ... linking ... done. Loading package ffi-1.0 ... linking ... done. Prelude> :l double.hs [1 of 1] Compiling Main ( double.hs, interpreted ) Ok, modules loaded: Main. *Main> doubleMe 5 <interactive>:1:1: Not in scope: `doubleMe' So basically, everything was working fine, but now haskell can't find the function I wrote in double.hs. Can anyone tell what is going on? I'm pretty lost and confused. This is just a guess but does it have to do with *Main at all? Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't gcc remove this check of a non-volatile variable?

    - by Thomas
    This question is mostly academic. I ask out of curiosity, not because this poses an actual problem for me. Consider the following incorrect C program. #include <signal.h> #include <stdio.h> static int running = 1; void handler(int u) { running = 0; } int main() { signal(SIGTERM, handler); while (running) ; printf("Bye!\n"); return 0; } This program is incorrect because the handler interrupts the program flow, so running can be modified at any time and should therefore be declared volatile. But let's say the programmer forgot that. gcc 4.3.3, with the -O3 flag, compiles the loop body (after one initial check of the running flag) down to the infinite loop .L7: jmp .L7 which was to be expected. Now we put something trivial inside the while loop, like: while (running) putchar('.'); And suddenly, gcc does not optimize the loop condition anymore! The loop body's assembly now looks like this (again at -O3): .L7: movq stdout(%rip), %rsi movl $46, %edi call _IO_putc movl running(%rip), %eax testl %eax, %eax jne .L7 We see that running is re-loaded from memory each time through the loop; it is not even cached in a register. Apparently gcc now thinks that the value of running could have changed. So why does gcc suddenly decide that it needs to re-check the value of running in this case?

    Read the article

  • How to implement an ID field on a POCO representing an Identity field in MS SQL?

    - by Dr. Zim
    If I have a Domain Model that has an ID that maps to a SQL identity column, what does the POCO look like that contains that field? Candidate 1: Allows anyone to set and get the ID. I don't think we want anyone setting the ID except the Repository, from the SQL table. public class Thing { public int ID {get;set;} } Candidate 2: Allows someone to set the ID upon creation, but we won't know the ID until after we create the object (factory creates a blank Thing object where ID = 0 until we persist it). How would we set the ID after persisting? public class Thing { public Thing () : This (ID: 0) {} public Thing (int ID) { this.ID = ID } private int _ID; public int ID { get { return this.ID;}; } Candidate 3: Methods to set ID? Somehow we would need to allow the Repository to set the ID without allowing the consumer to change it. Any ideas? Is this barking up the wrong tree? Do we send the object to the Repository, save it, throw it away, then create a new object from the loaded version and return that as a new object?

    Read the article

  • AVAudioPlayer not unloading cached memory after each new allocation

    - by Rob
    I am seeing in Instruments that when I play a sound via the standard "AddMusic" example method that Apple provides, it allocates 32kb of memory via the prepareToPlay call (which references the AudioToolBox framework's Cache_DataSource::ReadBytes function) each time a new player is allocated (i.e. each time a different sound is played). However, that cached data never gets released. This obviously poses a huge problem if it doesn't get released and you have a lot of sound files to play, since it tends to keep allocating memory and eventually crashes if you have enough unique sound files (which I unfortunately do). Have any of you run across this or what am I doing wrong in my code? I've had this issue for a while now and it's really bugging me since my code is verbatim of what Apple's is (I think). How I call the function: - (void)playOnce:(NSString *)aSound { // Gets the file system path to the sound to play. NSString *soundFilePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:aSound ofType:@"caf"]; // Converts the sound's file path to an NSURL object NSURL *soundURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: soundFilePath]; self.soundFileURL = soundURL; [soundURL release]; AVAudioPlayer * newAudio=[[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL: soundFileURL error:nil]; self.theAudio = newAudio; // automatically retain audio and dealloc old file if new m4a file is loaded [newAudio release]; // release the audio safely // this is where the prior cached data never gets released [theAudio prepareToPlay]; // set it up and play [theAudio setNumberOfLoops:0]; [theAudio setVolume: volumeLevel]; [theAudio setDelegate: self]; [theAudio play]; } and then theAudio gets released in the dealloc method of course.

    Read the article

  • .net user control event handler lost on postback

    - by user154008
    I have a menu usercontrol called LeftMenu that has a bulletedlist of linkitems. It's on the ascx page as such: <asp:BulletedList ID="PublisherList" DisplayMode="LinkButton" OnClick="PublisherList_Click" cssClass="Menu" runat="server"></asp:BulletedList> I databind the list in the page_load under if(!isPostBack) I'm having an issue on a page that loads the control. When the page first loads, the event handler fires. However, when the page posts back it no longer fires and in IE8, when I'm debugging, I get "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" in Visual Studio pointing at "doPostBack('LeftMenu$PublisherList','0')." In FF I don't get the error, but nothing happens. I'm **not loading the control dynamically, it's loaded on the aspx page using: <%@ Register TagPrefix="Standards" TagName="LeftMenu" Src="LeftMenu.ascx" %> <Standards:LeftMenu ID="LeftMenu" runat="server"/> Any ideas of where I'm losing the event handler? I just realized this is happening on another user control I have as well. A text box and a button and I'm using the default button to make sure pressing the enter key uses that button. .Net converts that in the html to: <div id="SearchBarInclude_SearchBar" onkeypress="javascript:return WebForm_FireDefaultButton(event, 'SearchBarInclude_QuickSearchButton')"> so as soon as i enter a key in the box I get a javascript error at the line saying "object expected." It seems like the two issues are related. Edit Again: I think I need to clarify. It's not that I'm clicking on the menu item and it can't find the selected item on postback. I have this search page with the left navigation on it and then the main content of the page is something that causes a postback. Everything is fine with this postback. Once that page has been posted back, now if I click on the bulleted list in the left navigation I get a javascript error and it fails. The page_init for the LeftMenu control is never called.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript alert not working in Android WebView

    - by user655192
    In my application I am using WebView and in that I am using JavaScript alert( ) method but its not working, no pop-up appears. in my manifest file I have added <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> and in activity file I have added mWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview); mWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); mWebView.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/demo.html"); In layout xml file I have added <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> Any clue how to enable full JavaScript in WebView. Update Thanks mark the alert() method in the html file are working now :) . Now there are two issues in WebView : 1: I am using a in the html file that i am loading in WebView , and trying to write in Hindi language font in it, but when i try to write Hindi text it displays as symbols ( rectangle symbols like [] ) . when i do the same in firefox browser on desktop it works fine. any clue how to give support for multiple language in textarea in WebView ? 2: When I am clicking submit and trying to open the value of text in alert() method in another java script it doesn't work , does it mean even after using WebChromeClient its applicable only for current loaded html page and not java scripts called from that page ?

    Read the article

  • Get a "sqlceqp35.dll" error when debugging but not when running deployed code.

    - by nj
    In our current windows mobile project a problem while debugging recently arised. When trying to debug the code it throws an exception on the open command on a connection to the local database. The message is "A SQL Server Compact DLL could not be loaded. Reinstall SQL Server Compact Edition. [ DLL Name = sqlceqp35.dll ]". Sometime it's an unknow error instead, with reference to the same file. If you execute the binary, thats deployd during the debug, on the device it runs without any problem. I've tried: Reinstall both .net and sqlce on the device. Changed the "specific version" on the reference properties in the project. The hardware I'm using is a Motorola MC70 with Windows mobile 5.0. The target platform of the project is windows mobile 5.0. Any ideas on what might cause this problem? EDIT: When I tried it on a MC75 I can debug it. The MC70 got OS Version: 05.01.0478 and the MC75 05.01.0478. My best guess now is that it's someway related to the OS version or the actual device.

    Read the article

  • Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

    - by brady
    I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

    Read the article

  • C# reflection instantiation

    - by NickLarsen
    I am currently trying to create a generic instance factory for which takes an interface as the generic parameter (enforced in the constructor) and then lets you get instantiated objects which implement that interface from all types in all loaded assemblies. The current implementation is as follows:     public class InstantiationFactory     {         protected Type Type { get; set; }         public InstantiationFactory()         {             this.Type = typeof(T);             if (!this.Type.IsInterface)             {                 // is there a more descriptive exception to throw?                 throw new ArgumentException(/* Crafty message */);             }         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedTypes()         {             // this line of code found in other stack overflow questions             var types = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()                 .SelectMany(a = a.GetTypes())                 .Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */);             return types;         }         public IEnumerable GetImplementations(IEnumerable types)         {             var implementations = types.Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */                 .Select(x = CreateInstance(x));             return implementations;         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedImplementations()         {             var loadedTypes = GetLoadedTypes();             var implementations = GetImplementations(loadedTypes);             return implementations;         }         private T CreateInstance(Type type)         {             T instance = default(T);             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             if (/* valid to instantiate test */)             {                 object constructed = constructor.Invoke(null);                 instance = (T)constructed;             }             return instance;         }     } It seems useful to me to have my CreateInstance(Type) function implemented as an extension method so I can reuse it later and simplify the code of my factory, but I can't figure out how to return a strongly typed value from that extension method. I realize I could just return an object:     public static class TypeExtensions     {         public object CreateInstance(this Type type)         {             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             return /* valid to instantiate test */ ? constructor.Invoke(null) : null;         }     } Is it possible to have an extension method create a signature per instance of the type it extends? My perfect code would be this, which avoids having to cast the result of the call to CreateInstance():     Type type = typeof(MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType);     MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType usable = type.CreateInstance();

    Read the article

  • Gracefully handling screen orientation change during activity start

    - by Steve H
    I'm trying to find a way to properly handle setting up an activity where its orientation is determined from data in the intent that launched it. This is for a game where the user can choose levels, some of which are int portrait orientation and some are landscape orientation. The problem I'm facing is that setRequestedOrientation(ActivityInfo.SCREEN_ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE) doesn't take effect until the activity is fully loaded. This is a problem for me because I do some loading and image processing during startup, which I'd like to only have to do once. Currently, if the user chose a landscape level: the activity starts onCreate(), defaulting to portrait discovers from analysing its launching Intent that it should be in landscape orientation continues regardless all the way to onResume(), loading information and performing other setup tasks at this point setRequestedOrientation kicks in so the application runs through onPause() to onDestroy() it then again starts up from onCreate() and runs to onResume() repeating the setup from earlier Is there a way to avoid that and have it not perform the loading twice? For example, ideally, the activity would know before even onCreate was called whether it should be landscape or portrait depending on some property of the launching intent, but unless I've missed something that isn't possible. I've managed to hack together a way to avoid repeating the loading by checking a boolean before the time-consuming loading steps, but that doesn't seem like the right way of doing it. I imagine I could override onSaveInstanceState, but that would require a lot of additional coding. Is there a simple way to do this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • InstallExecuteSequence cache interferes with custom action operation

    - by Dima G
    I need to upgrade a product that could be installed in per-user context to a new version that is always in per-machine context. The requirements are: Whether the old version was installed in a Per-User (no matter who) or Per-Machine context should be completely seamless to an administrator user that performs the upgrade. The MSI upgrade should succeed without the need to know the password of the user that originally installed the previous version of the product in a Per-User context. The installation should be performed from a single .msi file (no setup.exe is allowed). The installation should be able to run in a silent (non-UI) mode. No reboots are allowed during installation. My strategy is to find in the beginning of the installation whether the product is already installed in per-user context, and if so, to transform the registry keys manually to Per-Machine context (I checked: no additional changes such as file system changes etc. are needed except this transform). I figured out how to move all appropriate keys in the registry from the user settings to the machine settings (pre-loaded appropriate user hive in case it didn't appear in HKEY_USERS) and created custom action that does it - and it does work when I run it as a stand-alone executable before running the MSI. The problem, however, is that when Windows Installer runs InstallExecuteSequence it first creates a 'cached product context' for all products. So when my custom action runs in the course of InstallExecuteSequence, this cache has already been created. Thus FindRelatedProducts action that determines if older product with same upgrade code exists looks on that cache and ignores the changes that my custom action applied. If before running the MSI the previous product was in per-user context, FindRelatedProducts will look at the cache and not apply the upgrade and remove the previous version, because the new product is in per-machine context, even though the previous product version is already configured to per-machine context in the registry by that time by my custom action. What can be done to solve this problem without violating the requirements stated above?

    Read the article

  • pluto or jetspeed on google app engine?

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    I am trying to build something "portlet server"-ish on the google app engine. (as open source) I'd like to use the JSR168/286 standards, but I think that the restrictions of the app engine will make it somewhere between tricky and impossible. Has anyone tried to run jetspeed or an application that uses pluto internally on the google app engine? Based on my current knowledge of portlets and the google app engine I'm anticipating these problems: A war file with portlets is from the deployment standpoint more or less a complete webapp (yes, I know that it doesn't really work without a portal server). The war file may contain it's own web.xml etc. This makes deployment on the app engine rather difficult, because the apps are not visible to each other, so all portlet containing archives need to be included in the war file of the deployed "app engine based portal server". The "portlets" are (at least in liferay) started as permanent servlet processes, based on their portlet.xmls and web.xmls which is located in the same spot for every portlet archive that is loaded. I think this may be problematic in the app engine, because everything is in one big "web app", so it may be tricky to access the portlet.xmls from each archive. This prevents a 100% compatibility in my opinion. Is here anyone who has any experience with the combination of portlets and the app engine? Do you think it's feasible to modify jetspeed, pluto or any other portlet container to be able to run it on the app engine?

    Read the article

  • Multiple consecutive alerts in Java ME

    - by Casebash
    According to the documentation, Display.setCurrent doesn't work if the current displayable is an alert. Does anyone know how to work around this so that we can go from one alert to another? I am using CLDC 1.0 and MIDP 2.0. My attempt The spec does allow us to edit an alert while it is on screen, but some Nokia phones don't handle it well at all. So I am now trying to go from the alert to a canvas, then back to the alert. Of course I don't want the user to interact with the previous canvas, so it seems that I am forced to create a new blank canvas. As a sidenote, this has the slight disadvantage of looking worse on phones which still have the previous screen when an alert is shown. The bigger problem is how to transition from the blank canvas back to an alert once the canvas is loaded. Testing on the Motorola emulator revealed that showNotify is not called after returning from an alert to the previous screen. I guess I could create the next alert in the paint method, but this seems like a ugly hack.

    Read the article

  • Raphael.js map default fill colors

    - by RIDER
    I am trying to familiarize myself with raphael.js. I want to create a USA map that already has default colors for each state and those colors stay there. Here is what I came up with. If you look at AK, I'm getting the default color loaded, but if I highlight another state, the default color for AK disappears. I want AK - and other states - to stay the same color. Specifically, I don't know what is clearing out my AK full color. I think part of this statement is clearing out the fill cover when I mouseover a different state: for (var state in aus) { //aus[state].color = Raphael.getColor(); (function (st, state) { st[0].style.cursor = "pointer"; st[0].onmouseover = function () { current && aus[current].animate({fill: "#333", stroke: "#666"}, 500) && (document.getElementById(current).style.display = ""); st.animate({fill: st.color, stroke: "#ccc"}, 500); st.toFront(); R.safari(); document.getElementById(state).style.display = "block"; current = state; }; })(aus[state], state); } Any ideas where I might be going wrong?

    Read the article

  • Hidden div height

    - by fudgey
    Ok, I was going to answer someone's question here on SO about why their script wasn't working. They loaded content into a hidden div, then got the height so they could animate the wrapping div. But I always try to test the code I provide. So I made this demo to prove it to them. So, umm, have I entered the twilight zone or am I dreaming right now? pinches self OUCH! I tried that demo in Firefox, IE and Chrome and both methods return the same value. Firebug says zero! I rebooted my computer and I even changed the code a bit (removed the height function) and tried it with jQuery 1.3.2 and it still worked! I know hidden elements USED to return a zero value. Even this SO Answer is giving the advice I would have! So I guess my question is... did I miss something or are we giving bad advice?

    Read the article

  • RSA_sign and RSACryptoProvider.VerifySignature

    - by Miky D
    I'm trying to get up to speed on how to get some code that uses OpenSSL for cryptography, to play nice with another program that I'm writing in C#, using the Microsoft cryptography providers available in .NET. More to the point, I'm trying to have the C# program verify an RSA message signature generated by the OpenSSL code. The code that generates the signature looks something like this: // Code in C, using the OpenSSL RSA implementation char msgToSign[] = "Hello World"; // the message to be signed char signature[RSA_size(rsa)]; // buffer that will hold signature int slen = 0; // will contain signature size // rsa is an OpenSSL RSA context, that's loaded with the public/private key pair memset(signature, 0, sizeof(signature)); RSA_sign(NID_sha1 , (unsigned char*)msgToSign , strlen(msgToSign) , signature , &slen , rsa); // now signature contains the message signature // and can be verified using the RSA_verify counterpart // .. I would like to verify the signature in C# In C#, I would do the following: import the other side's public key into an RSACryptoServiceProvider object receive the message and it's signature try to verify the signature I've got the first two parts working (I've verified that the public key is loading properly because I managed to send an RSA encrypted text from the C# code to the OpenSSL code in C and successfully have it decrypted) In order to verify the signature in C#, I've tried using the: VerifySignature method of the RSACryptoServiceProvider but that didn't work. And digging around the internet I was only able to find some vague information pointing out that .NET uses a different method for generating the signature than OpenSSL does. So, does anybody know how to accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • Loading a helper elsewhere than the autoload.php?

    - by drpcken
    I inherited a project and I'm cleaning up a bit and trying to finish it. I noticed that they used (or wrote) a breadcrumb helper. It is in my helpers folder and is named breadcrumb_helper.php It has a single function to build a breadcrumb menu with links and pass it to the view breadcrumbs.php. Here's the code: function show_breadcrumbs() { $ci =& get_instance(); $ci->load->helper('inflector'); $data = ''; //build breadcrumb and store in $data $this->load->view("breadcrumbs", $data) } I was trying to figure out how this helper worked and I checked the autoload.php but there is no reference to the helper in there. In face here is my autoload: $autoload['helper'] = array('url','asset','combine','navigation','form','portfolio','cookie','default'); This show_breadcrumbs() function is used quite a bit in some of my pages so I'm confused as to how its loading if it isn't in the autoloader. It is called like this in a few of my pages: <?=show_breadcrumbs()?> What am I missing? Why isn't this in my autoload? I even did a global search and couldn't find anywhere the helper is being loaded.

    Read the article

  • SSIS - Bulk Update at Database Field Level

    - by Adam
    Hello, Here's our mission: Receive files from clients. Each file contains anywhere from 1 to 1,000,000 records. Records are loaded to a staging area and business-rule validation is applied. Valid records are then pumped into an OLTP database in a batch fashion, with the following rules: If record does not exist (we have a key, so this isn't an issue), create it. If record exists, optionally update each database field. The decision is made based on one of 3 factors...I don't believe it's important what those factors are. Our main problem is finding an efficient method of optionally updating the data at a field level. This is applicable across ~12 different database tables, with anywhere from 10 to 150 fields in each table (original DB design leaves much to be desired, but it is what it is). Our first attempt has been to introduce a table that mirrors the staging environment (1 field in staging for each system field) and contains a masking flag. The value of the masking flag represents the 3 factors. We've then put an UPDATE similar to... UPDATE OLTPTable1 SET Field1 = CASE WHEN Mask.Field1 = 0 THEN Staging.Field1 WHEN Mask.Field1 = 1 THEN COALESCE( Staging.Field1 , OLTPTable1.Field1 ) WHEN Mask.Field1 = 2 THEN COALESCE( OLTPTable1.Field1 , Staging.Field1 ) ... As you can imagine, the performance is rather horrendous. Has anyone tackled a similar requirement? We're a MS shop using a Windows Service to launch SSIS packages that handle the data processing. Unfortunately, we're pretty much novices at this stuff.

    Read the article

  • $.ajax not loading data data everytime from server

    - by Ted
    I have written a simple jQuery.ajax function which loads a user control from the server on click of a button. The first time I click the button, it goes to the server and gets me the user control. But each subsequent click of the same button does not goes to the server to fetch me the user control. Since my user control fetches data from db, I need to reload the user control everytime i hit the button. But if anyhow I get my user control to unload from the page, and re-click the button, it goes to the server and fetches me the user control. Here's the code: $("#btnLoad").click(function() { if ($(this).attr("value") == "Load Control") { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "loadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Unload Control"); } else { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "unloadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Load Control"); } }); Please let me know if there is any other way I can get my user control loaded from server everytime I click the button.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219  | Next Page >