Search Results

Search found 6580 results on 264 pages for 'require'.

Page 213/264 | < Previous Page | 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220  | Next Page >

  • Bash PATH: How long is too long?

    - by ajwood
    Hi, I'm currently designing a software quarantine pattern to use on Ubuntu. I'm not sure how standard "quarantine" is in this context, so here is what I hope to accomplish... Inside a particular quarantine is all of the stuff one needs to run an application (bin, share, lib, etc.). Ideally, the quarantine has no leaks, which means it's not relying on any code outside of itself on the system. A quarantine can be defined as a set of executables (and some environment settings needed to make them run). I think it will be beneficial to separate the built packages enough such that upgrading to a newer version of the quarantine won't require rebuilding the whole thing. I'll be able to update just a few packages, and then the new quarantine can use some of old parts and some of the new parts. One issue I'm wondering about is the environment variables I'll be setting up to use a particular quarantines. Is there a hard limit on how big PATH can be? (either in number of characters, or in the number of directories it contains) Might a path be so long that it affects performance? Thanks very much, Andrew p.s. Any other wisdom that might help my design would be greatly appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • To OpenID or not to OpenID? Is it worth it?

    - by Eloff
    Does OpenID improve the user experience? Edit Not to detract from the other comments, but I got one really good reply below that outlined 3 advantages of OpenID in a rational bottom line kind of way. I've also heard some whisperings in other comments that you can get access to some details on the user through OpenID (name? email? what?) and that using that it might even be able to simplify the registration process by not needing to gather as much information. Things that definitely need to be gathered in a checkout process: Full name Email (I'm pretty sure I'll have to ask for these myself) Billing address Shipping address Credit card info There may be a few other things that are interesting from a marketing point of view, but I wouldn't ask the user to manually enter anything not absolutely required during the checkout process. So what's possible in this regard? /Edit (You may have noticed stackoverflow uses OpenID) It seems to me it is easier and faster for the user to simply enter a username and password in a signup form they have to go through anyway. I mean you don't avoid entering a username and password either with OpenID. But you avoid the confusion of choosing a OpenID provider, and the trip out to and back from and external site. With Microsoft making Live ID an OpenID provider (More Info), bringing on several hundred million additional accounts to those provided by Google, Yahoo, and others, this question is more important than ever. I have to require new customers to sign up during the checkout process, and it is absolutely critical that the experience be as easy and smooth as possible, every little bit harder it becomes translates into lost sales. No geek factor outweighs cold hard cash at the end of the day :) OpenID seems like a nice idea, but the implementation is of questionable value. What are the advantages of OpenID and is it really worth it in my scenario described above?

    Read the article

  • Are there Windows API binaries for Subversion or do I have to build SVN to call the API from Windows

    - by JeffH
    I want to call a Subversion API from a Visual Studio 2003 C++ project. I know there are threads here, here, here, and here that tell how to get started with C#.NET on Windows (the consensus seems to be SharpSvn, which I've used easily and successfully on another project) but that's not what I want. I've read the chapter on using APIs in the red-bean book which says: Subversion is primarily a set of C libraries, with header (.h) files that live in the subversion/include directory of the source tree. These headers are copied into your system locations (e.g., /usr/local/include) when you build and install Subversion itself from source. These headers represent the entirety of the functions and types meant to be accessible by users of the Subversion libraries. I'd like to use CollabNet Subversion but there doesn't seem to be API binary downloads, and I'd just as soon not build the whole thing if I can avoid it. Considering another approach, I found RapidSVN's C++ API, but it doesn't appear to offer Windows API binaries either and seems to require building SVN (which I would be willing to do as a last choice if RapidSVN's API is higher-level than the stock SVN offering.) Does calling the API from C++ in Windows have to be this much more work compared to using SharpSvn under .NET, or is there something I haven't found that would help me achieve my goal?

    Read the article

  • Why should I care about RVM's Gemset feature when I use Bundler?

    - by t6d
    I just don't get it. I thought, Bundler was developed to resolve version conflicts between gems. So that I just have to require "bundler/setup" and everything is fine, knowing that Bundler will load the correct versions of all my gems and their dependencies. Now, RVM is great for managing multiple Rubies, I know, but why should I care about the Gemset feature? Do I miss something here? Can it make my development even easier? Maybe, some of you can give me some hints on the perfect RVM + Bundler workflow for both, development and production. I also don't know when RVM starts switching to another Ruby. I know that I can have an .rvmrc file in my project, but do I have to cd to this directory so that the switch happens? Furthermore, I usually use Passenger for development since, thanks to the Passenger.prefpane, integration in Mac OS is great. Can I still do that with RVM or is there a better way to do it? Does Passenger recognize .rvmrc files and switch to the correct Gemset?

    Read the article

  • SharePoint webpart with button to auto-login to 3rd party website

    - by JCdowney
    I have been tasked with creating a SharePoint 2007 webpart that logs the user directly into our website (which uses forms authentication). Most likely the username and password will be same in the SharePoint account as in our website. Ideally we would like it to be fully integrated in that the webpart looks up the SP login & password, somehow encodes that using SHA1, MD5 or similar encryption, then passes that along to our login page on the query string. However given we have little experience with SharePoint, and that it's probably impossible to programmatically access the SP username/password from a webpart we realize this isn't very likely to be possible and if so would probably require a lot of development time. Another option would be to load a login form from the website within an iframe in the webpart, which would show the login & password first but store a "remember me" cookie after the first login, and on each subsequent load display just a button that logs them in directly using the cookie. Has anyone done something similar before? I'm in over my head, any guidance would be much appreciated! :)

    Read the article

  • How can I refactor this to work without breaking the pattern horribly?

    - by SnOrfus
    I've got a base class object that is used for filtering. It's a template method object that looks something like this. public class Filter { public void Process(User u, GeoRegion r, int countNeeded) { List<account> selected = this.Select(u, r, countNeeded); // 1 List<account> filtered = this.Filter(selected, u, r, countNeeded); // 2 if (filtered.Count > 0) { /* do businessy stuff */ } // 3 if (filtered.Count < countNeeded) this.SendToSuccessor(u, r, countNeeded - filtered) // 4 } } Select(...), Filter(...) are protected abstract methods and implemented by the derived classes. Select(...) finds objects in the based on x criteria, Filter(...) filters those selected further. If the remaining filtered collection has more than 1 object in it, we do some business stuff with it (unimportant to the problem here). SendToSuccessor(...) is called if there weren't enough objects found after filtering (it's a composite where the next class in succession will also be derived from Filter but have different filtering criteria) All has been ok, but now I'm building another set of filters, which I was going to subclass from this. The filters I'm building however would require different params and I don't want to just implement those methods and not use the params or just add to the param list the ones I need and have them not used in the existing filters. They still perform the same logical process though. I also don't want to complicated the consumer code for this (which looks like this) Filter f = new Filter1(); Filter f2 = new Filter2(); Filter f3 = new Filter3(); f.Sucessor = f2; f2.Sucessor = f3; /* and so on adding filters as successors to previous ones */ foreach (User u in users) { foreach (GeoRegion r in regions) { f.Process(u, r, ##); } } How should I go about it?

    Read the article

  • How to detect a gamepad button press on OSX 10.5 and higher?

    - by Steph Thirion
    How do I detect a button press on a USB gamepad on OSX 10.5 and higher? I can't wrap my head around the ridiculously complex HID Manager (even though apparently it was simplified with 10.5), and the code samples at Apple have thousands of lines of code that would take days to understand and isolate what I need, so I'd appreciate if someone posts a simple, and fully coded solution for this isolated problem. EDIT: so far all answers are links to source code or semi obscure libraries for all kinds of HID devices, which will require more research time than what I'd like to invest on this. I am starting a bounty to get an actual snippet of code that solves this simple problem (using an external library or not). EDIT POS BOUNTY: thanks to all for you help; but unfortunately the answer that has been automatically selected by the system is not working for me, can't figure out why; and the author has not yet replied to my comments. Any insight would be appreciated, but until a fix is found, anyone looking for resources on this topic should take this answer with a pinch of salt.

    Read the article

  • Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

    - by hangy
    During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

    Read the article

  • How best to deal with warning c4305 when type could change?

    - by identitycrisisuk
    I'm using both Ogre and NxOgre, which both have a Real typedef that is either float or double depending on a compiler flag. This has resulted in most of our compiler warnings now being: warning C4305: 'argument' : truncation from 'double' to 'Ogre::Real' When initialising variables with 0.1 for example. Normally I would use 0.1f but then if you change the compiler flag to double precision then you would get the reverse warning. I guess it's probably best to pick one and stick with it but I'd like to write these in a way that would work for either configuration if possible. One fix would be to use #pragma warning (disable : 4305) in files where it occurs, I don't know if there are any other more complex problems that can be hidden by not having this warning. I understand I would push and pop these in header files too so that they don't end up spreading across code. Another is to create some macro based on the accuracy compiler flag like: #if OGRE_DOUBLE_PRECISION #define INIT_REAL(x) (x) #else #define INIT_REAL(x) static_cast<float>( x ) #endif which would require changing all the variable initialisation done so far but at least it would be future proof. Any preferences or something I haven't thought of?

    Read the article

  • Starting an STA thread, but with parameters to the final function

    - by DRapp
    I'm a bit weak on how some delegates behave, such as passing a method as the parameter to be invoked. While trying to do some NUnit test scripts, I have something that I need to run many test with. Each of these tests requires a GUI created and thus the need for an STA thread. So, I have something like public class MyTest { // the Delegate "ThreadStart" is part of the System.Threading namespace and is defined as // public delegate void ThreadStart(); protected void Start_STA_Thread(ThreadStart whichMethod) { Thread thread = new Thread(whichMethod); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); //Set the thread to STA thread.Start(); thread.Join(); } [Test] public void Test101() { // Since the thread issues an INVOKE of a method, I'm having it call the // corresponding "FromSTAThread" method, such as Start_STA_Thread( Test101FromSTAThread ); } protected void Test101FromSTAThread() { MySTA_RequiredClass oTmp = new MySTA_RequiredClass(); Assert.IsTrue( oTmp.DoSomething() ); } } This part all works fine... Now the next step. I now have a different set of tests that ALSO require an STA thread. However, each "thing" I need to do requires two parameters... both strings (for this case). How do I go about declaring proper delegate so I can pass in the method I need to invoke, AND the two string parameters in one shot... I may have 20+ tests to run with in this pattern and may have future of other similar tests with different parameter counts and types of parameters too. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

    - by Kyle
    I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

    Read the article

  • Database localization

    - by Don
    Hi, I have a number of database tables that contain name and description columns which need to be localized. My initial attempt at designing a DB schema that would support this was something like: product ------- id name description local_product ------- id product_id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale However, this solution requires a new local_ table for every table that contains name and description columns that require localization. In an attempt to avoid this overhead I redesigned the schema so that only a single localization table is needed product ------- id localization_id localization ------- id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale Here's an example of the data which would be stored in this schema when there are 2 tables (product and country) requiring localization: country id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 5 product id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 2 localization id, local_name, local_description, locale_id ------------------------------------------------------ 2, apple, a delicious fruit, 2 2, pomme, un fruit délicieux, 3 2, apfel, ein köstliches Obst, 4 5, ireland, a small country, 2 5, irlande, un petite pay, 3 locale id, locale -------------- 2, en 3, fr 4, de Notice that the compound primary key of the localization table is (id, locale_id), but the foreign key in the product table only refers to the first element of this compound PK. This seems like 'a bad thing' from the POV of normalization. Is there any way I can fix this problem, or alternatively, is there a completely different schema that supports localization without creating a separate table for each localizable table? Update: A number of respondents have proposed a solution that requires creating a separate table for each localizable table. However, this is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. The schema I've proposed above almost solves the problem to my satisfaction, but I'm unhappy about the fact that the localization_id foreign keys only refer to part of the corresponding primary key in the localization table. Thanks, Don

    Read the article

  • Are application servers necessary? Advantages of using one? (And other JEE questions)

    - by Mike
    Apologies for the long question.. there seems to be other similar questions on here but none really clear up my confusion. I'd be really grateful if someone could confirm or correct my understanding: Java Enterprise Edition is a set of APIs for building enterprise applications, which take away the burden of developing parts of the system that aren't actually features of the application you are trying to build (i.e. messaging, transactions etc). To do this, you can use an application server, which implements these APIs. So you could use JBoss, Glassfish, WebSphere, WebLogic etc which would provide your application with these enterprise services. However, there are many other implementations of these individual services available such as ActiveMQ for messaging, Hibernate for persistence, OpenEJB etc. You can download these implementations as Java libraries and include them in your application, and use the services they provide in a similar way to using the services provided by an application server. So if my understanding is correct, my questions are: I've read a lot of places that application servers are necessary for JEE features like EJB, but can't you just use an implementation such as OpenEJB and not need an application server at all? Are there any features that an application server provides which you cannot get from another source? Why would/wouldn't I choose an application server over a custom stack such as Tomcat, OpenEJB, ActiveMQ, and Hibernate? Is Spring a complete alternative to JEE? Does it ever require an application server or always just a servlet container? Why would someone choose Spring over JEE? Any help would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Azure Mobile Services with persistent authentication

    - by akshay2000
    I am trying to implement authentication with Windows Azure Mobile Services in my Windows Phone app. I have followed the official tutorials and the authentication works fine. The issue is that, whenever the app is closed and started again, the user has to enter username and password. Since the services only use authentication tokens, the 'Remember me' option on log in page is not likely to work. The official documentation for Windows Azure shows possibility of Single Sign On with the Microsoft account using the Live SDK. The Live SDK provides authentication token in form of string. However, even this token expires in about 24 hours. Moreover, this is restricted to the Microsoft Account only. What are my possibilities if I want to cache the user's identity and enable automatic log in? I have already gone through the article here. User will still have to log in again once the token expires. I have seen apps which require user to sign in only once!

    Read the article

  • Updating section in ConfigParser (or an alternative)

    - by lyrae
    I am making a plugin for another program and so I am trying to make thing as lightweight as possible. What i need to do is be able to update the name of a section in the ConfigParser's config file. [project name] author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 I then have text fields where user can edit project's name, author, email and year. I don't think changing [project name] is possible, so I have thought of two solutions: 1 -Have my config file like this: [0] projectname: foobar author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 that way i can change project's name just like another option. But the problem is, i would need the section # to be auto incremented. And to do this i would have to get every section, sort of, and figure out what the next number should be. The other option would be to delete the entire section and its value, and re-add it with the updated values which would require a little more work as well, such as passing a variable that holds the old section name through functions, etc, but i wouldn't mind if it's faster. Which of the two is best? or is there another way? I am willing to go with the fastest/lightweight solution possible, doesn't matter if it requires more work or not.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I start the Windows Update control panel with WinExec?

    - by Bill
    In Executing Control Panel Items, MSDN says this: Windows Vista Canonical Names In Windows Vista and later, the preferred method of launching a Control Panel item from a command line is to use the Control Panel item's canonical name. According to the Microsoft website this should work: The following example shows how an application can start the Control Panel item Windows Update with WinExec. WinExec("%systemroot%\system32\control.exe /name Microsoft.WindowsUpdate", SW_NORMAL); For Delphi 2010 I tried: var CaptionString: string; Applet: string; Result: integer; ParamString: string; CaptionString := ListviewApplets1.Items.Item[ ListviewApplets1.ItemIndex ].Caption; if CaptionString = 'Folder Options' then { 6DFD7C5C-2451-11d3-A299-00C04F8EF6AF } Applet := 'Microsoft.FolderOptions' else if CaptionString = 'Fonts' then {93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD} Applet := 'Microsoft.Fonts' else if CaptionString = 'Windows Update' then { 93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD } Applet := 'Microsoft.WindowsUpdate' else if CaptionString = 'Game Controllers' then { 259EF4B1-E6C9-4176-B574-481532C9BCE8 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GameControllers' else if CaptionString = 'Get Programs' then { 15eae92e-f17a-4431-9f28-805e482dafd4 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GetPrograms' //... ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; WinExec( ParamString, SW_NORMAL); <= This does not execute and when I trapped the error it returned ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND. I tried a ExecAndWait( ParamString ) method and it works perfectly with the same ParamString used with WinExec: ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; ExecAndWait( ParamString ); <= This executes and Runs perfectly The ExecAndWait method I used calls Windows.CreateProcess: if Windows.CreateProcess( nil, PChar( CommandLine ), nil, nil, False, 0, nil, nil, StartupInfo, ProcessInfo ) then begin try Does WinExec require a different ParamString, or am I doing this wrong with WinExec? I did not post the full ExecAndWait method but I can if someone wants to see it.

    Read the article

  • What are the elegant ways to do MixIns in Python?

    - by Slava Vishnyakov
    I need to find an elegant way to do 2 kinds of MixIns. First: class A(object): def method1(self): do_something() Now, a MixInClass should make method1 do this: do_other() - A.method1() - do_smth_else() - i.e. basically "wrap" the older function. I'm pretty sure there must exist a good solution to this. Second: class B(object): def method1(self): do_something() do_more() In this case, I want MixInClass2 to be able to inject itself between do_something() and do_more(), i.e.: do_something() - MixIn.method1 - do_more(). I understand that probably this would require modifying class B - that's ok, just looking for simplest ways to achieve this. These are pretty trivial problems and I actually solved them, but my solution is tainted. Fisrt one by using self._old_method1 = self.method1(); self.method1() = self._new_method1(); and writing _new_method1() that calls to _old_method1(). Problem: multiple MixIns will all rename to _old_method1 and it is inelegant. Second MixIn one was solved by creating a dummy method call_mixin(self): pass and injecting it between calls and defining self.call_mixin(). Again inelegant and will break on multiple MixIns.. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

    - by CoreyT
    I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

    Read the article

  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible for two VS2008 C# class library projects to share a single namespace?

    - by jeah
    I am trying to share a common namespace between two projects in a single solution. The projects are "Blueprint" and "Repositories". Blueprint contains Interfaces for the entire application and serves as a reference for the application structure. In the Blueprint project, I have an interface with the following declaration: namespace Application.Repositories{ public interface IRepository{ IEntity Get(Guid id); } } In the Repositories project I have a class the following class: namespace Application.Repositories{ public class STDRepository: IRepository { STD Get(Guid id){ return new SkankyExGirlfriendDataContext() .FirstOrDefault<STD>(x=>x.DiseaseId == id); } } } However, this does not work. The Repositories project has a reference to the Blueprint project. I receive a VS error: "The type or namespace name 'IRepository' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) - Normally, this is easy to fix but adding a using statement doesn't make sense since they have the same namespace. I tried it anyway and it didn't work. The reference has been added, and without the line of code referencing that interface, both projects compile successfully. I am lost here. I have searched all over and have found nothing, so I am assuming that there is something fundamentally wrong with what I'm doing ... but I don't know what it is. So, I would appreciate some explanation or guidance as to how to fix this problem. I hope you guys can help. Note: The reason I want to do it this way and keep the interfaces under the same namespace is because I want a solid project to keep all the interfaces in, in order to have a reference for the full architecture of the application. I have considered work arounds, such as putting all of the interfaces in the Blueprint.Application namespace instead of the application namespace. However, that would require me to write the using statement on virtually every page in the application...and my fingers get tired. Thanks again guys...

    Read the article

  • Should my validator have access to my entire model?

    - by wb
    As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Is there an x86 or x64 emulator that passes system calls back to the Windows API?

    - by Chris Lomont
    I want to emulate windows programs (not VM, true emulation) under windows. This would require the emulator to make calls back to the system APIs, but the program itself would be emulated. The reason is I want to change the opcode formats for research purposes. The process should be: Take existing program. Disassemble and then reassemble with my new opcode formats. Put the new format into the PE with a stub calling the emulator and passing the new code. The emulator would have to pass system calls from the emulated side back to windows API calls. I can do all these steps, except I need an open source emulator with the ability to pass the API calls out. I could try Bochs or QEMU, but I think I'd have to add in the system calls, which I could do if needed. I wonder if there is already something closer to what I need. I know I would have to change the instruction decoding in the emulator to match my new formats, but that is a given. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I DRY up business logic between sever-side Ruby and client-side Javascript?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a Widget model with inheritance (I'm using Single-Table Inheritance, but it's equally valid for Class-per-Table). Some of the subclasses require a particular field; others do not. class Widget < ActiveRecord ALL_WIDGET_TYPES = [FooWidget, BarWidget, BazWidget] end class FooWidget < Widget validates_presence_of :color end class BarWidget < Widget # no color field end class BazWidget < Widget validates_presence_of :color end I'm building a "New Widget" form (app/views/widgets/new.html.erb) and would like to dynamically show/hide the color field based on a <select> for widget_type. <% form_for @widget do |f| %> <%= f.select :type, Widget::ALL_WIDGET_TYPES %> <div class='hiddenUnlessWidgetTypeIsFooOrBaz'> <%= f.label :color %> <%= f.text_field :color %> </div> <% end %> I can easily write some jQuery to watch for onChange events on widget_type, but that would mean putting some sort of WidgetTypesThatRequireColor constant in my Javascript. Easy enough to do manually, but it is likely to get disconnected from the Widget model classes. I would prefer not to output Javascript directly in my view, though I have considered using content_for(:js) and have a yield :js in my template footer. Any better ideas?

    Read the article

  • Which fieldtype is best for storing PRICE values?

    - by BerggreenDK
    Hi there I am wondering whats the best "price field" in MSSQL for a shoplike structure? Looking at this overview: http://www.teratrax.com/sql_guide/data_types/sql_server_data_types.html We have datatypes called money, smallmoney, then we have decimal/numeric and lastly float and real Name, memory/disk-usage and value ranges: Money: 8 bytes (values: -922,337,203,685,477.5808 to +922,337,203,685,477.5807) Smallmoney: 4 bytes (values: -214,748.3648 to +214,748.3647) Decimal: 9 [default, min. 5] bytes (values: -10^38 +1 to 10^38 -1 ) Float: 8 bytes (values: -1.79E+308 to 1.79E+308 ) Real: 4 bytes (values: -3.40E+38 to 3.40E+38 ) My question is: is it really wise to store pricevalues in those types? what about eg. INT? Int: 4 bytes (values: -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647) Lets say a shop uses dollars, they have cents, but I dont see prices being $49.2142342 so the use of a lot of decimals showing cents seems waste of SQL bandwidth. Secondly, most shops wouldn't show any prices near 200.000.000 (not in normal webshops at least... unless someone is trying to sell me a famous tower in Paris) So why not go for an int? An int is fast, its only 4 bytes and you can easily make decimals, by saving values in cents instead of dollars and then divide when you present the values. The other approach would be to use smallmoney which is 4 bytes too, but this will require the math part of the CPU to do the calc, where as Int is integer power... on the downside you will need to divide every single outcome. Are there any "currency" related problems with regionalsettings when using smallmoney/money fields? what will these transfer too in C#/.NET ? Any pros/cons? Go for integer prices or smallmoney or some other? Whats does your experience tell?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220  | Next Page >