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• Search SharePoint ULS Logs with Windows

  - by djeeg

  Hi, I have a standard/new Windows 2008 R2 install with SharePoint 2010 and am looking for a SharePoint expectation that occurred sometime during the last week. So I open windows explorer, then go to the logs directory (C:\Program Files\Common Files\Microsoft Shared\Web Server Extensions\14\LOGS). In the toolbar I can enter some search text (exception) or i can Ctrl-F which puts my cursor in the same search box. First it searches the filenames, comes back with no results, and then i click File Contents. And it comes back with still no results. Now I think, maybe there are no errors, so i search for something that I know is in the log (w3wp), still no results. In previous versions of windows, i could usually fix this by making *.log files read as text. But apparently (http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc725753(WS.10).aspx) *.log files should already be read as text. Any idea how to make the search, really search log files. I would prefer a solution that did not involve installing any 3rd party software (eg like ULSViewer), but registry/powershell settings are okay.

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• How to create X509 self signed certificate for use in Apache Tomcat

  - by DaveJohnston

  I have a Java application that runs on Windows Mobile devices using a 3rd Party JVM. The application communicates with an Apache Tomcat server over HTTP. We have also used HTTPS for some connections and the certificates were created using the Sun keytool utility. First a keystore was created using genkey, then the certificate exported using export and finally that was imported into another keystore using import. The file created by genkey was loaded into the Apache server and the keystore created using import was loaded into the JVM on the PDA. Everything works as expected. I am now working with a new JVM on the PDA and (for whatever reason) I have established that this JVM requires the keystore to be in X509 (DER) format. I started working on this about a month ago and had it working, but stupidly never wrote down the steps I took, and now I can't for the life of me remember what I did. I seem to remember using openssl but other than that I am totally lost. Anything I create now using openssl and try to load into Apache causes an error at startup (Invalid Keystore Format) so I am probably missing something out entirely. Does anyone have any ideas how I should be going about creating this self-signed X509 certificate that can be loaded into Apache server and JVM running on a PDA?

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• TabHost NullPointerException in layout

  - by Chubbs

  I been following the Tab example provided by Google. I am trying to use the XML layout provided to setup a tab layout. I use this XML layout @ http://developer.android.com/guide/tutorials/views/hello-tabwidget.html <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TabHost xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@android:id/tabhost" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <TabWidget android:id="@android:id/tabs" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <FrameLayout android:id="@android:id/tabcontent" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <TextView android:id="@+id/textview1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:text="this is a tab" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/textview2" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:text="this is another tab" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/textview3" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:text="this is a third tab" /> </FrameLayout> </LinearLayout> </TabHost> When ever I switch the Layout tab in the Eclipse layout designer I get a NullPointerException: null error inside my Eclipse. This happens also when I try to drag and drop a TabHost, and then a TabWidget into an empty layout file. What am I doing wrong ? this seems pretty simple.

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• JNI problem when calling a native library that loads another native library

  - by TheEnemyOfQuality

  I've got a bit of an odd problem. I have a project in C++ that's basically a wrapper for a third party DLL like this: MyLibrary --loads DLL_A ----loads DLL_B I load DLL_A with LoadLibrary(), wrap several of its functions and generate my own DLL. I've tested this in a C++ project and a C# project. Both do everything they're supposed to do: load DLL_A, make a couple of function calls, and indirectly load DLL_B. The problem is when I build a DLL for java and make the calls through JNI. Everything runs like it should (no java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError), but when it comes time for DLL_A to load DLL_B it doesn't work. From debugging, the loading of DLL_B happens on a function call in DLL_A that takes a callback. When called from Java, this function call seems to fail (the function pointer is fine and the actual call goes off without a hitch), and I get an odd pop-up window saying DLL_B failed to load, and my program is left waiting for a callback that never happens. I can explicitly load DLL_B just fine (both from Java and from C++) and I've checked every possible path, path variable, and tried placing the dlls everywhere to see if it could be looking somewhere funny. I'm pretty sure it's not a path problem. Ultimately I don't know how DLL_A is loading DLL_B and I can't figure out why everything works fine in C++ and C#, but not in Java. I'm absolutely flummoxed. It could still be something specific to my setup (although I've looked as hard as I can look), but I'm throwing this scenario out there to see if anyone has run into a similar problem. -Dave

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• Visual Studio Debugging is not attaching to WebDev.WebServer.EXE

  - by Aaron Daniels

  I have a solution with many projects. On Debug, I have three web projects that I want to start up on their own Cassini ASP.NET Web Development servers. In the Solution Properties - Common Properties - Startup Project, I have Multiple startup projects chosen with the three web applications' Action set to Start. All three web development servers start, and all three web pages load. However, Visual Studio is only attaching to two of the WebDev.WebServer.EXE processes. I have to manually go attach to the third process in order to debug it with the debugger. This behavior just started happening, and I'm at a loss as to how to troubleshoot this. Any help is appreciated. EDIT: Also to note, I have stopped and restarted the development servers several times with no change in behavior. Also, when attaching to the process manually, I see that the Type property of the two automatically attached WebDev.WebServer.EXE processes is Managed, while the Type property of the unattached WebDev.WebServer.EXE process is TSQL, Managed, x86. When looking at the project's properties, however, I am targeting AnyCPU, and do NOT have SQL Server debugging enabled. EDIT: Also to note, the two projects that attach correctly are C# web applications. <ProjectTypeGuids>{349c5851-65df-11da-9384-00065b846f21};{fae04ec0-301f-11d3-bf4b-00c04f79efbc}</ProjectTypeGuids> The project that is not attaching correctly is a VB.NET web application. <ProjectTypeGuids>{349c5851-65df-11da-9384-00065b846f21};{F184B08F-C81C-45F6-A57F-5ABD9991F28F}</ProjectTypeGuids> EDIT: Also to note, the behavior is the same on another workstation. So odds are that it's not a machine specific problem.

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• Facebook Connect application inside iframe not working in IE7

  - by Antoine Aubry

  I am building a Facebook Connect application that runs inside a Google gadget. Being a gadget means that the application runs inside an iframe. Inside the application, there is a form that allows registered users to post comments. The submission is made using AJAX, but I get the same results with a normal form. The problem is that I need to get the user's facebook id. In Firefox, it works fine, but on Internet Explorer 7, I get the following error: 'A session key is required for calling this method' I believe that this is due to the way IE handles third-party cookies, because if I go to Internet options / Privacy / Advanced, and check Override automatic cookie handling and accept all cookies, it works fine. I cannot pass the Facebook id from the javascript, because anyone could tamper it. EDIT: If I open the content of the iframe directly, the app works fine. The problem is really due to the IFRAME and IE security model. What am I doing something wrong? How can I work around this problem?

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• An unhandled exception of type 'System.StackOverflowException' occurred in mscorlib.dll

  - by mazhar

  Ok the thing is that I am using asp.net mvc with linq to sql. I have a scenario where there are two tables group and features with many to many relationship with the third table groupfeatures. I have drag and drop all three table in the dbml file. The thing is that it runs fine with group but when I call the Feature things the above error occured and the compilers stops at this line in ((())). public partial class EgovtDataContext : System.Data.Linq.DataContext { private static System.Data.Linq.Mapping.MappingSource mappingSource = new AttributeMappingSource(); #region Extensibility Method Definitions partial void OnCreated(); partial void InsertGroup(Group instance); partial void UpdateGroup(Group instance); partial void DeleteGroup(Group instance); partial void InsertFeature(Feature instance); partial void UpdateFeature(Feature instance); partial void DeleteFeature(Feature instance); partial void InsertGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); partial void UpdateGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); partial void DeleteGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); #endregion (((public EgovtDataContext() : base(global::System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["egovtsConnectionString"].ConnectionString, mappingSource)))) The code in both the controller Group and features file is ditto copied. Note the group things are working, the features things are not. FeaturesRepository.cs public IQueryable<Feature> FindAllFeatures() { return db.Features; } FeaturesController.cs FeaturesRepository FeatureRepository = new FeaturesRepository(); public ActionResult Index() { var Feature = FeatureRepository.FindAllFeatures(); return View(Feature); } So what could be wrong?

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• nHibernate strategies in a web farm

  - by Pete Nelson

  Our current project at work is a new MVC web site that will use a WCF service primarily to access a 3rd party billing system via a web service as well as a small SQL database for user personalization. The WCF service uses nHibernate for the SQL database. We'd like to implement some sort of web farm for load balancing as well as failover and maintenance. I'm trying to decide the best way to handle nHibernate's caching and database concurrency if there are multiple WCF services running. Some scenarios I've been thinking about... 1) Multiple IIS servers, one WCF server. With this setup, the WCF server would be a single point of failure, but there would be no issues with nHibernate caching or database concurrency. 2) Multiple IIS servers, each with it's own WCF service. This removes a single point of failure, but now nHibernate on one machine would not know about database changes done by another machine. Some solutions to number 2 would be to use an IStatelessSession so we're not doing any caching and nHibernate is always fetching directly from the database. This might be the most feasible as our personalization database has very few objects in it. I'm also considering a 2nd-level cache such as memcached or Velocity, but it may be overkill for this system. I'm putting this out there to see if anyone has experience doing this sort of architecture and to get some ideas for a solution. Thanks!

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• Computer science final year project ideas

  - by roul

  I'm a Computer Science undergraduate student in UK and should be deciding the subject of my final year project soon. The school is pretty flexible with the subject... "The topic can be any area of the subject which is of mutual interest to both the student and supervisor. Topics can range from purely theoretical studies to practical work building a system for some third party, although most projects aim to provide a balance between the theoretical and practical aspects of the subject." ...so I'm a bit lost since I want to do something in software engineering but have no idea what (subject) or with what (languages)! :) a) Languages: I've had experience with Java, C# and ASP.NET mostly but I would definitely be interested in learning new languages/frameworks. I'm kind of drawn by the idea of dynamic languages at the moment so IronPython seems likely. b) Subject: Anything that will keep me interested through the year and will give me the opportunity to learn a lot of stuff. Maybe something that has to do with music, or a fancy website, or a website about music :P anything really. Open to any thoughts/ideas, geeky or cool! Edit: Professors do usually supervise projects in their research areas but I currently have the choice to approach any of them according to my interest - whatever that is.

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• Can YAML have inheritance?

  - by Jason

  This question involves a lot of symfony but it should be easy enough for someone to follow who only knows YAML and not symfony. My symfony models come from a three-step process: First, I create the tables in MySQL. Second, I run a symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-schema) to convert my table structure into a YAML file. Third, I run another symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-model) to convert the YAML file into PHP code. Here's the problem: there are some tables in the database that I don't want to end up in my symfony code. For example, let's say I have two tables: one called my_table and another called wordpress. The YAML file I end up with might look like this: MyTable: connection: doctrine tableName: my_table Wordpress: connection: doctrine tableName: wordpress That's great except the wordpress table has nothing to do with my symfony models. The result is that every single time I make a change to my database and generate this YAML file, I have to manually remove wordpress. It's annoying! I'd like to be able to create a file called baseConfig.php or something that looks like this: $config = array( 'MyTable' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'my_table', ), 'Wordpress' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'wordpress', ), ); And then I could have a separate file called config.php or something where I could make modifications to the base config: unset($config['Wordpress']); So my question is: is there any way to convert YAML into executable PHP code (as opposed to load YAML INTO PHP code like what sfYaml::load() does) to achieve this sort of thing? Or is there maybe some other way to achieve YAML inheritance? Thanks, Jason

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• Pass table as parameter to SQLCLR TV-UDF

  - by Skeolan

  We have a third-party DLL that can operate on a DataTable of source information and generate some useful values, and we're trying to hook it up through SQLCLR to be callable as a table-valued UDF in SQL Server 2008. Taking the concept here one step further, I would like to program a CLR Table-Valued Function that operates on a table of source data from the DB. I'm pretty sure I understand what needs to happen on the T-SQL side of things; but, what should the method signature look like in the .NET (C#) code? What would be the parameter datatype for "table data from SQL Server?" e.g. /* Setup */ CREATE TYPE InTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), Lat FLOAT, Lon FLOAT) GO CREATE TYPE OutTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), NeighborName VARCHAR(50), Distance FLOAT) GO CREATE ASSEMBLY myCLRAssembly FROM 'D:\assemblies\myCLR_UDFs.dll' WITH PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS GO CREATE FUNCTION GetDistances(@locations InTableType) RETURNS OutTableType AS EXTERNAL NAME myCLRAssembly.GeoDistance.SQLCLRInitMethod GO /* Execution */ DECLARE @myTable InTableType INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('aaa', -50.0, -20.0) INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('bbb', -20.0, -50.0) SELECT * FROM @myTable DECLARE @myResult OutTableType INSERT INTO @myResult MyCLRTVFunction @myTable --returns a table result calculated using the input The lat/lon - distance thing is a silly example that should of course be better handled entirely in SQL; but I hope it illustrates the general intent of table-in - table-out through a table-valued UDF tied to a SQLCLR assembly. I am not certain this is possible; what would the SQLCLRInitMethod method signature look like in the C#? public class GeoDistance { [SqlFunction(FillRowMethodName = "FillRow")] public static IEnumerable SQLCLRInitMethod(<appropriateType> myInputData) { //... } public static void FillRow(...) { //... } } If it's not possible, I know I can use a "context connection=true" SQL connection within the C# code to have the CLR component query for the necessary data given the relevant keys; but that's sensitive to changes in the DB schema. So I hope to just have SQL bundle up all the source data and pass it to the function. Bonus question - assuming this works at all, would it also work with more than one input table?

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• MVC ASP.NET, ObjectContext and Ajax. Weird Behaviour

  - by fabianadipolo

  Hi, i've been creating a web application in mvc asp.net. I have three different project/solutions. One solution contains the model in EF (DAL) and all the methods to add, update, delete and query the objects in the model, the objectcontext is managed here in a per request basis. Other solution contains a content management system in wich authorized users insert, delete, update and access objects through the DAL mentioned before. And the last solution contains the web page that is accessed by all users and where the only operations executed are selects, no update, inserts or deletes here. All the selects are executed against the DAL mentioned before (the first solution). The problem here is that i'm not sure whether an HttpContext lifespan ObjectContext is the best solution. I have a lot of ajax calls in my web app and i'm not sure if an httpcontext could interfere with the performance of the application. I've been noticed that in some cases, specially when someone is working in the content manager inserting, updating or deleting, when you try to click on any link of the user web application (the web app that is accessed by any user - the third one that i mentioned before) the web page freezes and it remains stucked transferring data. In order to stop that behaviour you have to stop and refresh or click several times on the link. Excuse me for my bad english. I hope you could understand and could help me to solve this issue. Thanx in advance.

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• Wrapped WPF Control

  - by Robert

  Hi, I'm trying to create a GUI (WPF) Library where each (custom) control basically wraps an internal (third party) control. Then, I'm manually exposing each property (not all of them, but almost). In XAML the resulting control is pretty straightforward: <my:CustomButton Content="ClickMe" /> And the code behind is quite simple as well: public class CustomButton : Control { private MyThirdPartyButton _button = null; static CustomButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(CustomButton))); } public CustomButton() { _button = new MyThirdPartyButton(); this.AddVisualChild(_button); } protected override int VisualChildrenCount { get { return _button == null ? 0 : 1; } } protected override Visual GetVisualChild(int index) { if (_button == null) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); } return _button; } #region Property: Content public Object Content { get { return GetValue(ContentProperty); } set { SetValue(ContentProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ContentProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Content", typeof(Object), typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(new PropertyChangedCallback(ChangeContent)) ); private static void ChangeContent(DependencyObject source, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { (source as CustomButton).UpdateContent(e.NewValue); } private void UpdateContent(Object sel) { _button.Content = sel; } #endregion } The problem comes after we expose MyThirdPartyButton as a property (in case we don't expose something, we would like to give the programmer the means to use it directly). By simply creating the property, like this: public MyThirdPartyButton InternalControl { get { return _button; } set { if (_button != value) { this.RemoveVisualChild(_button); _button = value; this.AddVisualChild(_button); } } } The resulting XAML would be this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl> <thirdparty:MyThirdPartyButton Content="ClickMe" /> </my:CustomButton.InternalControl> And what I'm looking for, is something like this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl Content="ClickMe" /> But (with the code I have) its impossible to add attributes to InternalControl... Any ideas/suggestions? Thanks a lot, -- Robert

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• Proper use of HTTP status codes in a "validation" server

  - by Romulo A. Ceccon

  Among the data my application sends to a third-party SOA server are complex XMLs. The server owner does provide the XML schemas (.xsd) and, since the server rejects invalid XMLs with a meaningless message, I need to validate them locally before sending. I could use a stand-alone XML schema validator but they are slow, mainly because of the time required to parse the schema files. So I wrote my own schema validator (in Java, if that matters) in the form of an HTTP Server which caches the already parsed schemas. The problem is: many things can go wrong in the course of the validation process. Other than unexpected exceptions and successful validation: the server may not find the schema file specified the file specified may not be a valid schema file the XML is invalid against the schema file Since it's an HTTP Server I'd like to provide the client with meaningful status codes. Should the server answer with a 400 error (Bad request) for all the above cases? Or they have nothing to do with HTTP and it should answer 200 with a message in the body? Any other suggestion? Update: the main application is written in Ruby, which doesn't have a good xml schema validation library, so a separate validation server is not over-engineering.

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• Programatically send SMS to email using Verizon Motorola Droid on Android

  - by Dave

  Hi, I was wondering if anyone knew the proper way to send an SMS message to an e-mail address using Verizon's CDMA Motorola Droid phone. The internal messaging application appears to automagically do this. While 3rd party applications like SMSPopup don't seem to be able to properly reply to e-mail addresses unless you compose the message inside the messaging application. When the internal messaging application sends a SMS message there's a corresponding 'RIL_REQUEST_CDMA_SEND_SMS' entry in the logcat (adb logcat -b radio). When you send a SMS to an e-mail address it prints the same thing, so behind the scenes it looks as though it is sending an sms. The interesting thing is that if you look at the content provider sent box the messages are addressed to various 1270XX-XXX-XXXX numbers. On other services you can send e-mail addresses by sending a SMS to a predefined short sms number. And then formatting your SMS as emailaddress subject message i.e. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SMS_gateway#Carrier-Provided_SMS_to_E-Mail_Gateways For example, using T-mobile's number (500) you can send a SMS to an e-mail using the following: SmsManager smsMgr = SmsManager.getDefault(); smsMgr.sendTextMessage("500", null, "[email protected] message sent to an e-mail address from a SMS", null, null); Does anyone know if It is possible to programatically send SMS to email messages from a CDMA Android phone? Does Verizon actually send your replies as SMS messages or are they actually sent as MMS or normal http email messages? Any ideas about how to intercept what the raw message being sent to see what's going on? It might be possible that Verizon somehow generates a fake number temporarily tied to an e-mail address (since repeated messages are not sent to the same number). But, that seems pretty heavy handed. Thanks!

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• Limiting choices from an intermediary ManyToMany junction table in Django

  - by Matthew Rankin

  Background I've created three Django models—Inventory, SalesOrder, and Invoice—to model items in inventory, sales orders for those items, and invoices for a particular sales order. Each sales order can have multiple items, so I've used an intermediary junction table—SalesOrderItems—using the through argument for the ManyToManyField. Also, partial billing of a sales orders is allowed, so I've created a ForeignKey in the Invoice model related to the SalesOrder model, so that a particular sales order can have multiple invoices. Here's where I deviate from what I've normally seen. Instead of relating the Invoice model to the Item model via a ManyToManyField, I've related the Invoice model to the SalesOrderItem intermediary junction table through the intermediary junction table InvoiceItem. I've done this because it better models reality—our invoices are tied to sales orders and can only include items that are tied to that sales order as opposed to any item in inventory. I will admit that it does seem strange having the intermediary junction table of a ManyToManyField related to the intermediary junction table of another ManyToManyField. Question How can I limit the choices available for the invoice_items in the Invoice model to just the sales_order_items of the SalesOrder model for that particular Invoice? (I tried using limit_choices_to= {'sales_order': self.invoice.sales_order}) as part of the item = models.ForeignKey(SalesOrderItem) in the InvoiceItem model, but that didn't work. Am I correct in thinking that limiting the choices for the invoice_items should be handled in the model instead of in a form? Code class Item(models.Model): item_num = models.SlugField(unique=True) default_price = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=2, blank=True, null=True) class SalesOrderItem(models.Model): item = models.ForeignKey(Item) sales_order = models.ForeignKey('SalesOrder') unit_price = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=2) quantity = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=4) class SalesOrder(models.Model): customer = models.ForeignKey(Party) so_num = models.SlugField(max_length=40, unique=True) sales_order_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, through=SalesOrderItem) class InvoiceItem(models.Model): item = models.ForeignKey(SalesOrderItem) invoice = models.ForeignKey('Invoice') unit_price = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=2) quantity = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=4) class Invoice(models.Model): invoice_num = models.SlugField(max_length=25) sales_order = models.ForeignKey(SalesOrder) invoice_items = models.ManyToManyField(SalesOrderItem, through='InvoiceItem')

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• Bypass all cacheing on jQuery.autocomplete(1.02)

  - by technicalbloke

  I am using jQuery.autocomplete(1.02) on my search box and I want exact string and substring matching. I don't care (yet!) about the database load, I'm happy for it to fire off a query every keystroke and bypass the caching entirely - I just don't want anything missed. To this end I have tried setting cacheLength=1, the minimum permitted, but the autocomplete function refuses to fire off a GET request for each key up. searchbox GET_request 'a' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=a 'ar' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ar 'ars' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ars Instead, it sends the first and the third and misses the second, giving me the wrong results for 'ar' :-/ I've cleared my cache and sessions but it looks like some sort of caching is still going on. AFAIK I have no proxying going on and I'm shift-refreshing each time. It looks likely then that this behavior is from jQuery.autocomplete itself. So my questions are... A) Does this seem likely? i.e. is it a feature, or maybe a bug? B) If so is there a clean way around it?... C) If not, what autocomplete would you use instead? Naturally D) No you're just using it incorrectly you douche! is always a possibility, and indeed the one I'd prefer having spent time going down this road - assuming it comes with a link to the docs I've failed to find / read! Cheers, Roger :)

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• How to test IO code in JUnit?

  - by add

  I'm want to test two services: service which builds file name service which writes some data into file provided by 1st service In first i'm building some complex file structure (just for example {user}/{date}/{time}/{generatedId}.bin) In second i'm writing data to the file passed by first service (1st service calls 2nd service) How can I test both services using mocks without making any real IO interractions? Just for example: 1st service: public class DefaultLogService implements LogService { public void log(SomeComplexData data) { serializer.write(new FileOutputStream(buildComplexFileStructure()), data); or serializer.write(buildComplexFileStructure(), data); or serializer.write(new GenericInputEntity(buildComplexFileStructure()), data); } private ComplextDataSerializer serializer; // mocked in tests } 2nd service: public class DefaultComplexDataSerializer implements ComplexDataSerializer { void write(InputStream stream, SomeComplexData data) {...} or void write(File file, SomeCompexData data) {...} or void write(GenericInputEntity entity, SomeComplexData data) {...} } In first case i need to pass FileOutputStream which will create a file (i.e. i can't test 1st service) In second case i need to pass File. What can i do in 2nd service test if I need to test data which will be written to specified file? (i can't test 2nd service) In third case i think i need some generic IO object which will wrap File. Maybe there is some ready-to-use solution for this purpose?

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• IIS error hosting WCF Data Service on shared web host

  - by jkohlhepp

  My client has a website hosted on a shared web server. I don't have access to IIS. I am trying to deploy a WCF Data Service onto his site. I am getting this error: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. I have searched SO and other sites quite a bit but can't seem to find someone with my exact situation. I cannot change the IIS settings because this is a third party's server and it is a shared web server. So my only option is to change things in code or in the service config. My service config looks like this: <system.serviceModel xdt:Transform="Insert"> <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://www.somewebsite.com"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="{Binding Name}" > <security mode="None" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="{Namespace to Service}"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="{Binding Name}" contract="System.Data.Services.IRequestHandler"> </endpoint> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> As you can see I tried to set the security mode to "None" but that didn't seem to help. What should I change to resolve this error?

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• ADT-like polymorphism in Java (without altering class)

  - by ffriend

  In Haskell I can define following data type: data Tree = Empty | Leaf Int | Node Tree Tree and then write polymorphic function like this: depth :: Tree -> Int depth Empty = 0 depth (Leaf n) = 1 depth (Node l r) = 1 + max (depth l) (depth r) In Java I can emulate algebraic data types with interfaces: interface Tree {} class Empty implements Tree {} class Leaf implements Tree { int n; } class Node implements Tree { Tree l; Tree r; } But if I try to use Haskell-like polymorphism, I get an error: int depth(Empty node) { return 0; } int depth(Leaf node) { return 1; } int depth(Node node) { return 1 + Math.max(depth(node.l), depth(node.r)); // ERROR: Cannot resolve method 'depth(Tree)' } Correct way to overcome this is to put method depth() to each class. But what if I don't want to put it there? For example, method depth() may be not directly related to Tree and adding it to class would break business logic. Or, even worse, Tree may be written in 3rd party library that I don't have access to. In this case, what is the simplest way to implement ADT-like polymorpism? Just in case, for the moment I'm using following syntax, which is obviously ill-favored: int depth(Tree tree) { if (tree instanceof Empty) depth((Empty)tree) if (tree instanceof Leaf) depth((Leaf)tree); if (tree instanceof Node) depth((Node)tree); else throw new RuntimeException("Don't know how to find depth of " + tree.getClass()); }

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• Numeric Data Entry in WPF

  - by Matt Hamilton

  How are you handling the entry of numeric values in WPF applications? Without a NumericUpDown control, I've been using a TextBox and handling its PreviewKeyDown event with the code below, but it's pretty ugly. Has anyone found a more graceful way to get numeric data from the user without relying on a third-party control?private void NumericEditPreviewKeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { bool isNumPadNumeric = (e.Key >= Key.NumPad0 && e.Key <= Key.NumPad9) || e.Key == Key.Decimal; bool isNumeric = (e.Key >= Key.D0 && e.Key <= Key.D9) || e.Key == Key.OemPeriod; if ((isNumeric || isNumPadNumeric) && Keyboard.Modifiers != ModifierKeys.None) { e.Handled = true; return; } bool isControl = ((Keyboard.Modifiers != ModifierKeys.None && Keyboard.Modifiers != ModifierKeys.Shift) || e.Key == Key.Back || e.Key == Key.Delete || e.Key == Key.Insert || e.Key == Key.Down || e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right || e.Key == Key.Up || e.Key == Key.Tab || e.Key == Key.PageDown || e.Key == Key.PageUp || e.Key == Key.Enter || e.Key == Key.Return || e.Key == Key.Escape || e.Key == Key.Home || e.Key == Key.End); e.Handled = !isControl && !isNumeric && !isNumPadNumeric; }

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• WCF ReliableMessaging method called twice

  - by Brian

  Using Fiddler, we see 3 HTTP requests (and matching responses) for each call when: WS-ReliableMessaging is enabled, and, the method returns a large amount of data (17MB) The first HTTP request is a SOAP message with the action "CreateSequence" (presumable to establish the reliable session). The second and third HTTP requests are identical SOAP messages invoking our webservice method. Why are there two identical messages? Here is our config: <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://server/vdir/AccountingService.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="customWsHttpBinding" behaviorConfiguration="LargeServiceBehavior" contract="MyProject.Accounting.IAccountingService" name="BasicHttpBinding_IAccountingService" /> </client> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="customWsHttpBinding" maxReceivedMessageSize="90000000"> <reliableSession enabled="true"/> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="LargeServiceBehavior"> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647"/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> Thanks, Brian

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• Why would a SQL query JOIN on the same table twice with the same condition?

  - by Scott Leis

  I'm working on changes to a SQL Server v8 database developed by someone else, and have found something that seems (based on my limited SQL knowledge) strange and pointless. One of the views has a query that does a LEFT OUTER JOIN twice on the same table with the same condition. Is there any reason for doing this? The query is below. See the second- and third-last lines that both join the "te_SDE_Survey" table on the "SDE_ID" field. Also note these lines set two different aliases for the table, and both aliases are used in the SELECT part of the query. SELECT vs.SLMS_Code, vs.Retail_Date, vs.TagNo, vs.Rego, vs.Model, vs.Company, vs.AccountType, viqdp.SDE_ID, bd.Debit_Date, isu.Survey_Date, CASE WHEN isu.Q6 IS NOT NULL THEN isu.Q6 ELSE CASE WHEN returned_surveys.survey_date IS NULL THEN CASE WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 IS NULL AND cs.sup2 IS NULL AND cs.sup3 IS NULL AND cs.sup5 IS NULL AND cs.sup8 IS NULL AND cs.sup9 IS NULL) THEN 'E' WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 = 'F' AND cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F' AND cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup1 = 'T' THEN 'S' WHEN cs.sup2 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup3 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup5 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup8 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup9 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN (cs.sup8 = 'T' OR cs.sup9 = 'T') AND (cs.sup2 = 'T' OR cs.sup3 = 'T' OR cs.sup5 = 'T') THEN 'S' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'pre2008') THEN CASE WHEN (datediff(month, viqdp.generate_date, returned_surveys.survey_date) 1) THEN 'E' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'expiryDateColumn') THEN CASE WHEN (returned_surveys.survey_date viqdp.expiryDate) THEN 'E' END END END AS score_or_exclusion_status, CASE WHEN (bd.explanation IS NULL) THEN '' ELSE bd.explanation END AS explanation, tey.te_Year FROM dbo.te_Vehicle_Sale vs INNER JOIN dbo.te_Year tey ON vs.Retail_Date = tey.Start_Date AND vs.Retail_Date <= tey.End_Date LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.Bad_Data bd ON vs.TagNo = bd.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_Vehicle_SDESurvey viqdp ON vs.TagNo = viqdp.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey isu ON viqdp.SDE_ID = isu.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey returned_surveys ON viqdp.SDE_ID = returned_surveys.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Contact_Suppression cs ON viqdp.SDE_ID = cs.SDE_ID

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• WPF MVVM Chart change axes

  - by c0uchm0nster

  I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I'm struggling to determine the best way to change the view of a chart. That is, initially a chart might have the axes: X - ID, Y - Length, and then after the user changes the view (either via lisbox, radiobutton, etc) the chart would display the information: X - Length, Y - ID, and after a third change by the user it might display new content: X - ID, Y - Quality. My initial thought was that the best way to do this would be to change the bindings themselves. But I don't know how tell a control in XAML to bind using a Binding object in the ViewModel, or whether it's safe to change that binding in runtime? Then I thought maybe I could just have a generic Model that has members X and Y and populate them as needed in the viewmodel? My last thought was that I could have 3 different chart controls and just hide and show them as appropriate. What is the CORRECT/SUGGESTED way to do this in the MVVM pattern? Any code examples would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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• I want to merge two PostScript Documents, pagewise. How?

  - by Peter Miehle

  hello, i have a tricky question, so i need to describe my problem: i need to print 2-sided booklets (a third of a paper) on normal paper (german A4, but letter is okay also) and cut the paper afterwards. The Pages are in a Postscript Level 2 File (generated by an ancient printer driver, so no chance to patch that, except ps2ps) generated by me with the ancient OS's Printing driver facilities (GpiMove, GpiLine, GpiText etc). I do not want to throw away two-thirds of the paper, so my idea is: Take file one, two and three, merge them (how?) on new double-sided papers by translate/move file two and three by one resp. two thirds and print the resulting new pages. If it helps, I can manage to print one page of the booklet per file. I cannot "speak" postscript natively, but I am capable of parsing and merging and manipulating files programmaticly. Maybe you can hint me to a webpage. I've read through the manuals on adobe's site and followed the links on www.inkguides.com/postscript.asp Maybe there are techniques with PDF that would help? I can translate ps2pdf. Thanks for help Peter Miehle PS: my current solution: i.e. 8 pages: print page 1, 4 and 7 on page one, 2,5,8 on page two and 3,6,blank on page three, cut the paper and restack. But i want to use a electrical cutting machine, which works better with thicker stacks of paper.

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