Search Results

Search found 6561 results on 263 pages for 'developing'.

Page 215/263 | < Previous Page | 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222  | Next Page >

  • ASP.NET validators alignment issue

    - by Mahesh
    Hi, I am developing contactus webpage which have a input field called Email. It is validated against a required field validator and regular expression validator with appropriate messages. Required: Enter Email Regular Expression: Invalid Email I am setting these two as given below: <asp:TextBox ID="txtEmail" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <font color="#FF0000">*</font> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="rfvemail" CssClass="error_text" ControlToValidate="txtEmail" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Enter email address."></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> <asp:RegularExpressionValidator ID="revemail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtEmail" ErrorMessage="Invalid Email" ValidationExpression="\w+([-+.]\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*"></asp:RegularExpressionValidator> My problem is both Enter Email and Invalid Email is occupying its own space. For Ex: If I leave email as empty space and press submit, Enter Email is displaying right next to it. If I enter invalid email(xxx), Enter Email is off but taking the space, Invalid Email message is displayed after these space taken by 'Enter Email' before. Is there any way to remove this space?? Mahesh

    Read the article

  • iphone mkmapview

    - by karthik
    Hi, This is karthik. I am developing an app using mapview in iphone. I have to use two different pins to show user locations. That two users are different type . One user is belong to some category and another one is some other category. I have to check that category and want to plot pin depend upon that category. When I try to do that, that pin is not showing properly. For a certain category it shows another pin, not what i set there. Can anyone help me? What i need is i want to load two different pins in map depend upon some category. For example , if that category is shopping mall then i have to show building image then if there is any garden i have to show some other image at a same time not one by one . I want to plot two pins with different category at the same time. For that,what could i do? I tried lot of solution , but its not showing properly. Help me?

    Read the article

  • SqlBackup from my client app

    - by Robbert Dam
    I have an client app that runs on several machines, and connects to a single SQL database. On the client app, the user has the possiblity to use a local SQL (CE) database or connect to a remote SQL database. There is also a box where a backup location can be set. For the backup of the remote SQL database I use the following code: var bdi = new BackupDeviceItem(backupFile, DeviceType.File); var backup = new Backup { Database = "AppDb", Initialize = true }; backup.Devices.Add(bdi); var server = new Server(connection); backup.SqlBackup(server); When developing my application, I wasn't aware that the given backupFile is written on the machine where the SQL server runs! And not on the client machine. What I want is "dump" all the data from my database to a local file. (Why? Because users may enter a network location in the "backup location" box, and backing up SQL immediately to a network location fails. So need to write local first and then copy to the network in that case.) I there an alternative to the method above?

    Read the article

  • Rails 2.3 session

    - by Sam Kong
    Hi, I am developing a rails 2.3.2 app. I need to keep session_id for an order record, retrieve it and finally delete the session_id when the order is completed. It worked when I used cookies as session store but it doesn't for active_record store. (I restarted my browser, so no cache issue.) I know rails 2.3 implements lazy session load. I read some info about it but am still confused. Can somebody clarify how I use session_id for such a case? What I am doing is... A user make an order going through several pages. There is no sign-up, neither login. So I keep session_id in the order record so that no other user can access the order. @order = Order.last :conditions = {:id = params[:id], :session_id = session[:session_id] } When the order is finished, I set nil to session_id column. How would you implement such a case in lazy session(and active_record store) environment? Thanks. Sam

    Read the article

  • jQuery .load() and sub-pages

    - by user354051
    Hi, I am not just a newbie with Javascript. I am developing a simple site to get my hands on web programming. The web site is simple and structure is like this: A simple ul/li/css based navigation menu Sub pages are loaded in "div" using jQuery, when ever user click appropriate menu item. Some of the sub-pages are using different jQuery based plugins such as LightWindow, jTip etc. The jQuery function that loads the sub-page is like this: function loadContent(htmlfile){ jQuery("#content").load(htmlfile); }; The menu items fires loadContent method like this: <li><a href="javascript:void(0)" onclick="loadContent('overview.html');return false">overview</a></li> This loads a sub-page name "overview.html" inside the "div". That's it. Now this is working fine but some of the sub-pages using jQuery based plugins are not working well when loaded inside the "div". If you load them individually in the browser they are working fine. Based on above I have few qustions: Most of the plugins are based on jQuery and sub-pages are loaded inside the "index.html" using "loadContent" function. Do I have to call <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> on each and every sub-page? If a page is using a custom jQuery plugin, then where do I call it? In "index.html" or on the page where I am using it? I think what ever script you will call in "index.html", you don't to have call them again in any of the sub pages you are using. Am I right here? Thanks Prashant

    Read the article

  • How to remove the error "Cant find PInvoke DLL SQLite.interop.dll"

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing windows mobile application. I am using the SQLlite database. I am using the following code to connect to this database as follows SQLiteConnection cn = new SQLiteConnection(); SQLiteDataReader SQLiteDR; cn.ConnectionString = @"Data Source=F:\CompNetDB.db3"; cn.Open(); SQLiteCommand cmd = new SQLiteCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "select * from CustomerInfo"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.Connection = cn; SQLiteDR = cmd.ExecuteReader(); In the above case I am getting the error "Cant find PInvike DLL SQLite.interop.dll". I have added the DLL System.Data.SQLLite from the \SQLite.NET\bin\compactframework this folder. This is the folder which is installed by default when I installed the SQLite. In the same folder there is one DLL file named SQLlite.Interop.66.DLL. When I try to add reference to this dll it is giving error that dll can not be added. Are the two dlls SQLlite.Interop.dll & System.Interop.066.dll same ? In the above code how to solve the error "Cant find PInvoke.SQLite.Interop.dll" Please can you tell whether there is mistake in my code or I am missing something in my application?

    Read the article

  • Modify Executing Jar file

    - by pinkynobrain
    Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Mimic.js handle fault response

    - by nikolas
    i use mimic.js regarding a project that i m developing.. the issue that i face, is if there is a fault response from the webservice, mimic, doesn't handle it, and the browser remains "awaiting" for a response, that has actually been back, but hasn't been handled by mimic.. to be more specific, one typical fault response is the following.. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <methodResponse> <fault> <value> <struct> <member> <name>faultCode</name><value><int>104</int></value> </member> <member> <name>faultString</name><value><string>Invalid Input Parameters</string></value> </member> </struct></value></fault></methodResponse> and chrome console get me the error mimic.js:11 Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'childNodes' of null any suggestions on how to handle "fault" responses? mimic.js hasn't been altered at all.. also tried to bypass the fact that mimic can't handle the fault, by trying to use the isFault flag, in the if statement, with no success either.. isFault is supposed to get a boolean value, i guess true/false?

    Read the article

  • How do I copy or move an NSManagedObject from one context to another?

    - by Aeonaut
    I have what I assume is a fairly standard setup, with one scratchpad MOC which is never saved (containing a bunch of objects downloaded from the web) and another permanent MOC which persists objects. When the user selects an object from scratchMOC to add to her library, I want to either 1) remove the object from scratchMOC and insert into permanentMOC, or 2) copy the object into permanentMOC. The Core Data FAQ says I can copy an object like this: NSManagedObjectID *objectID = [managedObject objectID]; NSManagedObject *copy = [context2 objectWithID:objectID]; (In this case, context2 would be permanentMOC.) However, when I do this, the copied object is faulted; the data is initially unresolved. When it does get resolved, later, all of the values are nil; none of the data (attributes or relationships) from the original managedObject are actually copied or referenced. Therefore I can't see any difference between using this objectWithID: method and just inserting an entirely new object into permanentMOC using insertNewObjectForEntityForName:. I realize I can create a new object in permanentMOC and manually copy each key-value pair from the old object, but I'm not very happy with that solution. (I have a number of different managed objects for which I have this problem, so I don't want to have to write and update copy: methods for all of them as I continue developing.) Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • How much business logic belongs in RIA services layer?

    - by jkohlhepp
    I have been experimenting recently with Silverlight, RIA Services, and Entity Framework using .NET 4.0. I'm trying to figure out if that stack makes sense for use in any of my upcoming projects. It certainly seems like these technologies can be very productive for developing applications, but I'm struggling to decide how an application on top of this stack should be architected. The main issue I have is that in most of the demos I've seen most of the business logic ends up as DataAnnotations and custom validations in the RIA Services domain service class. This seems inappropriate to me. I view the domain service as basically a glorified web service that happens to make it easy to push information to the client. But most of what I've seen seems to orient the domain service as the main source of business logic in the application. So, my questions: What is the best location for business logic (rules, validations, behaviors, authorization) in an application using this stack? Are there any guidelines published at an architectural level for using this stack? My questions pertain to large, complex, and long-lived applications. Obviously for an application of only a few screens this is less of a concern. Edit: Another thing I meant to mention is that obviously you can make the domain service class stupid, but then you lose a lot of the automagic entity information (e.g. validations) being pushed to the client. And then if you lose that is there any point to using RIA services?

    Read the article

  • (rsErrorOpeningConnection) Could not obtain information about Windows NT group/user

    - by ChelleATL
    I am trying to deploy a report to the Reporting Services Server but keep running up against this error: An error occurred during client rendering. An error has occurred during report processing. (rsProcessingAborted) Cannot create a connection to data source 'dataSource1'. (rsErrorOpeningConnection) Could not obtain information about Windows NT group/user 'DOMAIN\useradmin', error code 0x5. Here’s my situation: Everything is being ran using DOMAIN\useradmin and the report is using a remote database. Reporting Services and SQL Server are both ran under DOMAIN\useradmin. DOMAIN\useradmin is a windows AD login and is part of the server machine Administrators group. My test report is using a data source model that in turn is using a data source that is connection to a database on a different SQL Server. The data source is using “Credentials stored securely in the report server” with the options “Use as Windows credentials when connecting to the data source” and “Impersonate the authenticated user after a connection has been made to the data source.” I am using the credentials of DOMAIN\useradmin that is the db owner of the remote database. DOMAIN\useradmin is assigned the roles, System Administrator, System User and Browser, Content Manager, My Reports, Publisher, Report Builder. So if everything is being run under an über AD account, why I am getting this Could not obtain information about Windows NT group/user 'DOMAIN\useradmin' error? Under normal circumstances , an AD login with Publisher permissions will developing reports using a datasource model created by DOMAIN\useradmin but using one of the remote database’s users which is mapped from yet another AD login. I ran the following statements and non errors were returned: use master go xp_grantlogin 'DOMAIN\useradmin' go xp_logininfo 'DOMAIN\useradmin' go

    Read the article

  • Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

    - by Hamman359
    Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

    Read the article

  • Interactive Web Collaboration Platform

    - by user1477586
    I am currently unsatisfied with most, if not all, web-based collaboration tools I've ever used. Examples of what I'm considering a "web-based collaboration tool" are TWiki, WebEx, etc. What I have in mind of developing is to develop my own. The target "market" is for software/hardware developers who will likely be working on separate projects linked by a common goal. Example: You work at a company who is designing a brand new printer. So, one man is working on the ink cartridge, another on the paper feed, one on the circuitry of the printer and one more is working on the drivers. What I would like to make (unless it already exists) is a website that, upon loading, presents the user with a web that has each project within it's own bubble, graphically. These bubbles would all be linked to the central bubble of "[Company Name]". Upon selecting an individual bubble the browser would focus and zoom in on that project bubble and expand more information (in bullets or with more affiliated bubbles) about subprojects, progress, setbacks, etc. Then, at a terminal "node" (i.e. a bubble with no sub-bubbles) a selection would then load a page with information relevant to that node. That's a lot of monologue. In short, I want to know how I might approach this. My background is with algorithmic use of Python and C++. I've never done interactive web design like this; though, I have gone through the W3C tutorials on HTML4/5. I'm willing to learn a new language I'm just wondering which language/set of languages seem(s) most appropriate for this project. Thanks, world, for imparting your knowledge to me. An example of what the start page might look like is:

    Read the article

  • Declaration of arrays before "normal" variables in c?

    - by bjarkef
    Hi We are currently developing an application for a msp430 MCU, and are running into some weird problems. We discovered that declaring arrays withing a scope after declaration of "normal" variables, sometimes causes what seems to be undefined behavior. Like this: foo(int a, int *b); int main(void) { int x = 2; int arr[5]; foo(x, arr); return 0; } foo sometimes is passed a pointer as the second variable, that does not point to the arr array. We verify this by single stepping through the program, and see that the value of the arr variable in the main scope is not the same as the value of the b pointer variable in the foo scope. And no, this is not really reproduceable, we have just observed this behavior once in a while. Changing the example seems to solve the problem, like this: foo(int a, int *b); int main(void) { int arr[5]; int x = 2; foo(x, arr); return 0; } Does anybody have any input or hints as to why we experience this behavior? Or similar experiences? The MSP430 programming guide specifies that code should conform to the ANSI C89 spec. and so I was wondering if it says that arrays has to be declared before non-array variables? Any input on this would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What's the best way to develop a debugging window for an ajax ASP.Net MVC application

    - by KallDrexx
    While developing my ASP.NET MVC, I have started to see the need for a debugging console window to assist in figuring out what is going right and wrong in my code. I read the last few chapters of the Pro Asp.net MVC book, and the author details how to use http modules to show page load/creation times and linq to sql query logs, both of which I definitely want to be able to see. However, since I am loading a lot of small sections of my page individually with ajax I don't want the debug information right there in the middle of my screen. So the idea I came up with was to have a separate browser window (open-able by a link or some javascript) with a console log, that can contain logged entries both from javascript and from the asp.net mvc run. The former should be relatively easy, but I'm having trouble coming up with a way to log the asp.net information in ajax requests. The direction I have been thinking of going is to create an httpmodule (like the Pro MVC book does), and have that module contain some that append the javascript's log to console calls with the messages. The issue I see with this is finding a way to get the log messages from the controller's action methods to the httpmodule's methods. The only way I see to do this is with a singleton, but I'm not sure if singletons are bad practice for a stateless web application. Furthermore, it seems like if I return json with my ajax calls (instead of pure html) then that won't work at all anyways and unless there is a way to add data to an existing json structure inside the httpmodule. How does everyone else handle this type of debugging in heavily ajax applications? For reference, the javascript library I am using is jquery.

    Read the article

  • Problem with RVM and gem that has an executable

    - by djhworld
    Hi there, I've recently made the plunge to use RVM on Ubuntu. Everything seems to have gone swimmingly...except for one thing. I'm in the process of developing a gem of mine that has a script placed within its own bin/ directory, all of the gemspec and things were generated by Jeweler. The bin/mygem file contains the following code: - #!/usr/bin/env ruby begin require 'mygem' rescue LoadError require 'rubygems' require 'mygem' end app = MyGem::Application.new app.run That was working fine on the system version of Ruby. Now...recently I've moved to RVM to manage my ruby versions a bit better, except now my gem doesn't appear to be working. Firstly I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 Then I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 gem install mygem Which installs fine, except...when I try to run the command for mygem mygem I just get the following exception: - daniel@daniel-VirtualBox:~$ mygem <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- mygem (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/gems/mygem-0.1.4/bin/mygem:2:in `<top (required)>' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `load' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `<main>'mygem NOTE: I have a similar RVM setup on MAC OSX and my gem works fine there so I think this might be something to do with Ubuntu?

    Read the article

  • Pydev and Django: Shell not finding certain modules?

    - by Rosarch
    I am developing a Django project with PyDev in Eclipse. For a while, PyDev's Django Shell worked great. Now, it doesn't: >>> import sys; print('%s %s' % (sys.executable or sys.platform, sys.version)) C:\Python26\python.exe 2.6.4 (r264:75708, Oct 26 2009, 08:23:19) [MSC v.1500 32 bit (Intel)] >>> >>> from django.core import management;import mysite.settings as settings;management.setup_environ(settings) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named mysite.settings >>> The dev server runs just fine. What could I be doing wrong? The models module is also conspicuously absent: >>> import mysite.myapp.models Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named mysite.myapp.models On the normal command line, outside of PyDev, the shell works fine. Why could this be happening?

    Read the article

  • Best way to enforce inter-table constraints inside database

    - by FerranB
    I looking for the best way to check for inter-table constraints an step forward of foreing keys. For instance, to check if a date child record value is between a range date on two parent rows columns. For instance: Parent table ID DATE_MIN DATE_MAX ----- ---------- ---------- 1 01/01/2009 01/03/2009 ... Child table PARENT_ID DATE ---------- ---------- 1 01/02/2009 1 01/12/2009 <--- HAVE TO FAIL! ... I see two approaches: Create materialized views on-commit as shown in this article (or other equivalent on other RDBMS). Use stored-procedures and triggers. Any other approach? Which is the best option? UPDATE: The motivation of this question is not about "putting the constraints on database or on application". I think this is a tired question and anyone does the way she loves. And, I'm sorry for detractors, I'm developing with constraints on database. From here, the question is "which is the best option to manage inter-table constraints on database?". I'm added "inside database" on the question title. UPDATE 2: Some one added the "oracle" tag. Of course materialized views are oracle-tools but I'm interested on any option regardless it's on oracle or others RDBMSs.

    Read the article

  • TextBox doesn't fire TextChanged Event on IE 8, AutoPostback is true

    - by MaikoID
    Hi guys, I have the same thing, there are many TextBoxes with the event TextChanged set and with AutoPostback = true, and works in all browsers (Chrome, Opera, Firefox 3.6) except in IE 8, IE 6/7 I didn't test. I don't want to put the onblur event in all my TextBoxs because there are many pages with many TextBox that use this event. Description I'm using a masterPage, in the aspx i have <asp:TextBox ID="txtCnpj" runat="server" CssClass="txt" Width="200px" onkeyup="Mascara(this,Cnpj)" onkeydown="Mascara(this,Cnpj)" MaxLength="18" AutoPostBack="true" ValidationGroup="txtCnpj" OnTextChanged="txtCnpj_TextChanged"></asp:TextBox> in the aspx.cs protected void txtCnpj_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (CredorInvestimento.GetCredorInvestimento(txtCnpj.Text) != null) { ((TextBox)sender).Text = ""; ((TextBox)sender).Focus(); rfvCnpj.ErrorMessage = "Duplicado"; Page.Validate(txtCnpj.ID); } else txtNome.Focus(); } Thanks! ps: I really doesn't like of asp.net I spend more time fixing errors than developing new functions. ps: sorry for my english. ps: if i remove the onkeydown and onkeyup events the textchanged fire in IE, but i realy this events too.

    Read the article

  • How to test an application for correct encoding (e.g. UTF-8)

    - by Olaf
    Encoding issues are among the one topic that have bitten me most often during development. Every platform insists on its own encoding, most likely some non-UTF-8 defaults are in the game. (I'm usually working on Linux, defaulting to UTF-8, my colleagues mostly work on german Windows, defaulting to ISO-8859-1 or some similar windows codepage) I believe, that UTF-8 is a suitable standard for developing an i18nable application. However, in my experience encoding bugs are usually discovered late (even though I'm located in Germany and we have some special characters that along with ISO-8859-1 provide some detectable differences). I believe that those developers with a completely non-ASCII character set (or those that know a language that uses such a character set) are getting a head start in providing test data. But there must be a way to ease this for the rest of us as well. What [technique|tool|incentive] are people here using? How do you get your co-developers to care for these issues? How do you test for compliance? Are those tests conducted manually or automatically? Adding one possible answer upfront: I've recently discovered fliptitle.com (they are providing an easy way to get weird characters written "u?op ?pisdn" *) and I'm planning on using them to provide easily verifiable UTF-8 character strings (as most of the characters used there are at some weird binary encoding position) but there surely must be more systematic tests, patterns or techniques for ensuring UTF-8 compatibility/usage. Note: Even though there's an accepted answer, I'd like to know of more techniques and patterns if there are some. Please add more answers if you have more ideas. And it has not been easy choosing only one answer for acceptance. I've chosen the regexp answer for the least expected angle to tackle the problem although there would be reasons to choose other answers as well. Too bad only one answer can be accepted. Thank you for your input. *) that's "upside down" written "upside down" for those that cannot see those characters due to font problems

    Read the article

  • Initialize webservice WSDL at runtime using Flex and Mate framework

    - by GroovyB
    I am developing a Flex application on top of Mate framework. In this application, I am using a webservice to retrieve data. As this webservice as not a fix location URL (depending on where customers installed it), I define this URL in a config file. When the Flex application starts, it first reads this config file, then I would like to use the value I found to initialize the webservice. But currently, I have no idea how to this. Here is my EventMap.mxml <EventMap> <services:Services id="services" /> <EventHandlers type="{FlexEvent.PREINITIALIZE}"> <HTTPServiceInvoker instance="{services.configService}"> <resultHandlers> <MethodInvoker generator="{ConfigManager}" method="loadFromXml" arguments="{resultObject}" /> </resultHandlers> <faultHandlers> <InlineInvoker method="Alert.show" arguments="ERROR: Unable to load config.xml !" /> </faultHandlers> </HTTPServiceInvoker> In this part, the ConfigManager parse the config file and intitialize a bindable property called webServiceWsdl Here is my Services.mxml <mx:Object> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var webservice:String; ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HTTPService id="configService" url="config.xml" useProxy="false" /> <mx:WebService id="dataService" wsdl="{webservice}" useProxy="false"/> </mx:Object> How can I initialize this webservice property ?

    Read the article

  • Career Plan: The one year plan. The three year plan.

    - by drelihan
    Hi Folks, I work as a developer however I only recently began developing full time having worked for 5 years in various roles. When it comes to career planning I think I pretty much agree with The Journeyman to Craftsman model coined in The Pragmatic Probrammer and used by Bob Martin. I see myself as a journeyman and I won't call myself a "good" (for want of a better word) until I re-evaluate my skills in 5 years time. However, as part of our careers we are encouraged to make one and three year plan with specific goals that we should hit. Unfortunately, my goal is this: Write clean code that solves a problem and is easy to maintain. From a technology point of view I want to know C++ and .net programming inside out(C#, WCF etc..) But that's it. That's my plan. Is this enough? So although there's a great discussion on what people should do with their career: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/11313/career-planning-any-tips My question is this: What's your one year plan? What's your three year plan? And am I being naive with my career? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • How to get the "real" colors when exporting a GDI drawing to bmp

    - by Rodrigo
    Hi guys I'm developing a ASP.Net web handler that returns images making a in-memory System.Windows.Forms.Control and then exports the rendered control as a bitmap compressed to PNG, using the method DrawToBitmap(). The classes are fully working by now, except for a problem with the color assignment. By example, this is a Gauge generated by the web handler. The colors assigned to the inner parts of the gauge are red (#FF0000), yellow (#FFFF00) and green (#00FF00) but I only get a dully version of each color (#CB100F for red, #CCB70D for yellow and #04D50D for green). The background is a bmp file containing the color gradient. The color loss happens whether the background is a gradient as the sample, a black canvas, a white canvas, a transparent canvas, even when there is not a background set. With black background With transparent background With a white background Without a background set With pixel format in Format32bppArgb I've tried multiple bitmap color deeps, output formats, compression level, etc. but none of them seems to work. Any ideas? This is a excerpt of the source code: Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(w, h, System.Drawing.Imaging.PixelFormat.Format32bppPArgb); Image bgimage = (Image) HttpContext.GetGlobalResourceObject("GraphicResources", "GaugeBackgroundImage"); Canvas control_canvas = new Canvas(); .... //the routine that makes the gauge .... control_canvas.DrawToBitmap(bmp, new Rectangle(0, 0, w, h));

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to read data that has been separately copied to the Android sd card without having ro

    - by icecream
    I am developing an application that needs to access data on the sd card. When I run on my development device (an odroid with Android 2.1) I have root access and can construct the path using: File sdcard = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(); String path = sdcard.getAbsolutePath() + File.separator + "mydata" File data = new File(path); File[] files = data.listFiles(new FilenameFilter() { @Override public boolean accept(File dir, String filename) { return filename.toLowerCase().endsWith(".xyz"); }}); However, when I install this on a phone (2.1) where I do not have root access I get files == null. I assume this is because I do not have the right permissions to read the data from the sd card. I also get files == null when just trying to list files on /sdcard. So the same applies without my constructed path. Also, this app is not intended to be distributed through the app store and is needs to use data copied separately to the sd card so this is a real use-case. It is too much data to put in res/raw (I have tried, it did not work). I have also tried adding: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> to the manifest, even though I only want to read the sd card, but it did not help. I have not found a permission type for reading the storage. There is probably a correct way to do this, but I haven't been able to find it. Any hints would be useful.

    Read the article

  • How does a java web project architecture look like without EJB3 ?

    - by Hendrik
    A friend and I are building a fairly complex website based on java. (PHP would have been more obvious but we chose for java because the educational aspect of this project is important to us) We have already decided to use JSF (with richfaces) for the front end and JPA for the backend and so far we have decided not to use EJB3 for the business layer. The reason we've decided not to use EJB3 is because - and please correct me if I am wrong - if we use EJB3 we can only run it on a full blown java application server like jboss and if we don't use EJB3 we can still run it on a lightweight server like tomcat. We want to keep speed and cost of our future web server in mind. So far i've worked on two JEE projects and both used the full stack with web business logic factories/persistence service entities with every layer a seperate module. Now here is my question, if you dont use EJB3 in the business logic layer. What does the layer look like? Please tell what is common practice when developing java web projects without ejb3? Do you think business logic layer can be thrown out altogether and have business logic in the backing beans? If you keep the layer, do you have all business methods static? Or do you initialize each business class as needed in the backing beans in every session as needed?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222  | Next Page >