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• C# Configuration Manager . ConnectionStrings

  - by Yoda

  I have a console app containing an application configuration file containing one connection string as shown below: <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="Target" connectionString="server=MYSERVER; Database=MYDB; Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> When I pass this to my Connection using: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[1].ToString() I have two values in there, hence using the second in the collection, my question is where is this second coming from? I have checked the Bin version and original and its not mine! Its obviously a system generated one but I have not seen this before? Can anyone enlighten me? The mystery connection string is: data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Integrated Security=SSPI;AttachDBFilename=|DataDirectory|aspnetdb.mdf;User Instance=true This isn't a problem as such I would just like to know why this is occuring? Thanks in advance! For future reference to those who may or may not stumble on this, after discovering the machine.config its become apparent it is bad practice to refer to a config by its index as each stack will potentially be different, which is why "Keys" are used. Cheers all!

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• Sending JSON to a server

  - by SK9

  I'm running the following Java, an HttpURLConnection PUT request with JSON data that will be sent from an Android device. I'll handle any raised exceptions after this is working. Authenticator.setDefault(new Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication(nameString, pwdString.toCharArray()); } }); url = new URL(myURLString); HttpURLConnection urlConnection = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); urlConnection.setDoOutput(true); urlConnection.setChunkedStreamingMode(0); urlConnection.setRequestMethod("PUT"); urlConnection.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "application/json"); OutputStream output = null; try { output = urlConnection.getOutputStream(); output.write(jsonArray.toString().getBytes()); } finally { if (output != null) { output.close(); } } int status = ((HttpURLConnection) urlConnection).getResponseCode(); System.out.println("" + status); urlConnection.disconnect(); I'm receiving an HTTP 500 error (internal error code), that an unexpected property is blocking the request. The JSONArray comprises JSONObjects whose keys I know are correct. The server is pretty standard, and expects HTTP PUTs with JSON bodies. Am I missing something glaring? Thanking you kindly in advance.

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• JPA - Entity design problem

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I am developing a Java Desktop Application and using JPA for persistence. I have a problem mentioned below: I have two entities: Country City Country has the following attribute: CountryName (PK) City has the following attribute: CityName Now as there can be two cities with same name in two different countries, the primaryKey for City table in the datbase is a composite primary key composed of CityName and CountryName. Now my question is How to implement the primary key of the City as an Entity in Java @Entity public class Country implements Serializable { private String countryName; @Id public String getCountryName() { return this.countryName; } } @Entity public class City implements Serializable { private CityPK cityPK; private Country country; @EmbeddedId public CityPK getCityPK() { return this.cityPK; } } @Embeddable public class CityPK implements Serializable { public String cityName; public String countryName; } Now as we know that the relationship from Country to City is OneToMany and to show this relationship in the above code, I have added a country variable in City class. But then we have duplicate data(countryName) stored in two places in the City class: one in the country object and other in the cityPK object. But on the other hand, both are necessary: countryName in cityPK object is necessary because we implement composite primary keys in this way. countryName in country object is necessary because it is the standard way of showing relashionship between objects. How to get around this problem?

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• Google Maps API and "rightclick" events on Macs

  - by samc

  Using the Google Maps API (v3), I can create a map and handle normal click events just fine, but when I want to handle rightclick events, it doesn't work on Macs. I assume this is because a rightclick on a Mac is actually converted to a ctrl-click, but the Google Maps API MouseEvent doesn't provide information about modifier keys, so I can't check for the ctrl key. I tried adding an "capture" event listener to the document that converts the click event to a rightclick event. function convertClick(e) { if (e.ctrlKey) { e.button = 2; } } document.addEventListener("click", convertClick, true) I added an alert to verify that the condition is correct, but modifying the event in this way didn't work. So, I decided to have my event handler set a global flag that my click handler could check. If the flag is set, it means ctrl was pressed, so the click handler just invokes the rightclick handler. var ctrl; function captureCtrl(e) { ctrl = e.ctrlKey; } This approach worked great, except for one thing. The ctrl flag gets set for the click after the one that occured when ctrl was pressed. That means the event handler is be called during the bubble phase rather than the capture phase. Could explain why the event modification approach didn't work. So, my question is how can you detect "rightclick" events from Macs with the Google Maps API? I can't be the first person to want to do this. That said, when I right-click on the map on http://maps.google.com from a Windows or Linux machine, I get a popup box with options like "Directions from here...", etc. On a Mac, nothing happens. So, not even the main Google Maps page has solved this problem. ...maybe I am the first person to want to do this.

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• Can Delphi dragging be "promoted" to docking?

  - by mghie

  I have a TPageControl whose pages are all various forms that are attached using ManualDock(). The user should be able to rearrange the tabs by dragging them, which works already. It should however also be possible to undock the docked forms. For now I have the following code: procedure TMainForm.PageControlMouseDown(Sender: TObject; Button: TMouseButton; Shift: TShiftState; X, Y: Integer); begin if (Button = mbLeft) and (Shift * [ssShift, ssCtrl] = []) and PageControl.DockSite then begin PageControl.BeginDrag(False, 32); end; end; If either the Shift or the Ctrl key are held down, then a docking operation will be started, otherwise the tabs can be rearranged by dragging them. Using the keys as modifiers is awkward though. Is there any way to cancel the active drag operation when the mouse cursor is outside of the tab area of the page control, and start docking the child form? This is with Delphi 2009.

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• jQuery issue with anchor tag using jqTransform

  - by James Helms

  I'm using jqtransform on my site. When the user is on a for them to be able to use hot keys to move through the selections. I added this function: $wrapper.find('a').keydown(function (e) { var Esc = 27; var code = (e.keyCode ? e.keyCode : e.which); if(code== Esc || (code>=65 &&code<=90)){ var letter = String.fromCharCode(code); if (code==Esc) keyCodes = ""; else{ if (keyCodes=='') keyCodes += letter; else keyCodes += letter.toLowerCase(); var item = $wrapper.find('a[text^=\'' + keyCodes + '\']:first'); item.click(); } } }); inside of $.fn.jqTransSelect. This code works fine in all browsers but IE. the only thing i can find is that IE doesn't like the click event. Can anyone please help me with this? If i debug into the code I can see that item is a select not an anchor like i would expect it to be, and that confuses me even more.

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• Why are symbols not frozen strings?

  - by Alex Chaffee

  I understand the theoretical difference between Strings and Symbols. I understand that Symbols are meant to represent a concept or a name or an identifier or a label or a key, and Strings are a bag of characters. I understand that Strings are mutable and transient, where Symbols are immutable and permanent. I even like how Symbols look different from Strings in my text editor. What bothers me is that practically speaking, Symbols are so similar to Strings that the fact that they're not implemented as Strings causes a lot of headaches. They don't even support duck-typing or implicit coercion, unlike the other famous "the same but different" couple, Float and Fixnum. The mere existence of HashWithIndifferentAccess, and its rampant use in Rails and other frameworks, demonstrates that there's a problem here, an itch that needs to be scratched. Can anyone tell me a practical reason why Symbols should not be frozen Strings? Other than "because that's how it's always been done" (historical) or "because symbols are not strings" (begging the question). Consider the following astonishing behavior: :apple == "apple" #=> false, should be true :apple.hash == "apple".hash #=> false, should be true {apples: 10}["apples"] #=> nil, should be 10 {"apples" => 10}[:apples] #=> nil, should be 10 :apple.object_id == "apple".object_id #=> false, but that's actually fine All it would take to make the next generation of Rubyists less confused is this: class Symbol < String def initialize *args super self.freeze end (and a lot of other library-level hacking, but still, not too complicated) See also: http://onestepback.org/index.cgi/Tech/Ruby/SymbolsAreNotImmutableStrings.red http://www.randomhacks.net/articles/2007/01/20/13-ways-of-looking-at-a-ruby-symbol Why does my code break when using a hash symbol, instead of a hash string? Why use symbols as hash keys in Ruby? What are symbols and how do we use them? Ruby Symbols vs Strings in Hashes Can't get the hang of symbols in Ruby

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• Show users a list of unique items on Java Google App Engine

  - by James

  I've been going round in circles with what must be a very simple challenge but I want to do it the most efficient way from the start. So, I've watched Brett Slatkin's Google IO videos (2008 & 2009) about building scalable apps including http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AgaL6NGpkB8 and read the docs but as a n00b, I'm still not sure. I'm trying to build an app on GAEJ similar to the original 'hotornot' where a user is presented with an item which they rate. Once they rate it, they are presented with another one which they haven't seen before. My question is this; is it most efficient to do a query up front to grab x items (say 100) and put them in a list (stored in memcache?) or is it better to simply make a query for a new item after each rating. To keep track of the items a user has seen, I'm planning to keep those items' keys in a list property of the user's entity. Does that sound sensible? I've really got myself confused about this so any help would be much appreciated.

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• ruby on rails one-to-many relationship

  - by fenec

  I would like to model a betting system relationship using the power of rails. so lets start with doing something very simple modelling the relationship from a user to a bet.i would like to have a model bet with 2 primary keys. here are my migrations enter code here class CreateBets < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bets do |t| t.integer :user_1_id t.integer :user_2_id t.integer :amount t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :bets end end class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.string :name t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :users end end the models enter code here class Bet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user_1,:class_name=:User belongs_to :user_2,:class_name=:User end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_1) has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_2) end when i test here in the console my relationships I got an error enter code here u1=User.create :name="aa" = # u2=User.create :name="bb" = # b=Bet.create(:user_1=u1,:user_2=u2) *****error***** QUESTIONS: 1 How do I define the relationships between these tables correctly? 2 are there any conventions to name the attributes (ex:user_1_id...) thank you for your help

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• Primary key/foreign Key naming convention

  - by Jeremy

  In our dev group we have a raging debate regarding the naming convention for Primary and Foreign Keys. There's basically two schools of thought in our group: 1) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called ID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID 2) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called EmployeeID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID I prefer not to duplicate the name of the table in any of the columns (So I prefer option 1 above). Conceptually, it is consisted with a lot of the recommended practices in other languages, where you don't use the name of the object in its property names. I think that naming the foreign key EmployeeID (or Employee_ID might be better) tells the reader that it is the ID column of the Employee Table. Some others prefer option 2 where you name the primary key prefixed with the table name so that the column name is the same throughout the database. I see that point, but you now can not visually distinguish a primary key from a foreign key. Also, I think it's redundant to have the table name in the column name, because if you think of the table as an entity and a column as a property or attribute of that entity, you think of it as the ID attribute of the Employee, not the EmployeeID attribute of an employee. I don't go an ask my coworker what his PersonAge or PersonGender is. I ask him what his Age is. So like I said, it's a raging debate and we go on and on and on about it. I'm interested to get some new perspective.

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• Problems with Json Serialize Dictionary<Enum, Int32>

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, whenever i try to serialize the dictionary i get the exception: System.ArgumentException: Type 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2[[Foo.DictionarySerializationTest+TestEnum, Foo, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null],[System.Int32, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089]]' is not supported for serialization/deserialization of a dictionary, keys must be strings or object My Testcase is: public class DictionarySerializationTest { private enum TestEnum { A, B, C } public void SerializationTest() { Dictionary<TestEnum, Int32> data = new Dictionary<TestEnum, Int32>(); data.Add(TestEnum.A, 1); data.Add(TestEnum.B, 2); data.Add(TestEnum.C, 3); JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); String result = serializer.Serialize(data); // Throws } public void SerializationStringTest() { Dictionary<String, Int32> data = new Dictionary<String, Int32>(); data.Add(TestEnum.A.ToString(), 1); data.Add(TestEnum.B.ToString(), 2); data.Add(TestEnum.C.ToString(), 3); JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); String result = serializer.Serialize(data); // Succeeds } } Of course i could use .ToString() whenever i enter something into the Dictionary but since it's used quite often in performance relevant methods i would prefer using the enum. My only solution is using .ToString() and converting before entering the performance critical regions but that is clumsy and i would have to change my code structure just to be able to serialize the data. Does anyone have an idea how i could serialize the dictionary as <Enum, Int32>? I use the System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer for serialization.

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• Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

  - by Brent Ramerth

  I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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• Google app engine: Poor Performance with JDO + Datastore

  - by Bosh

  I have a simple data model that includes USERS: store basic information (key, name, phone # etc) RELATIONS: describe, e.g. a friendship between two users (supplying a relationship_type + two user keys) I'm getting very poor performance, for instance, if I try to print the first names of all of a user's friends. Say the user has 500 friends: I can fetch the list of friend user_ids very easily in a single query. But then, to pull out first names, I have to do 500 back-and-forth trips to the Datastore, each of which seems to take on the order of 30 ms. If this were SQL, I'd just do a JOIN and get the answer out fast. I understand there are rudimentary facilities for performing joins across un-owned relations in a relaxed implementation of JDO (as described at http://gae-java-persistence.blogspot.com) but they sound experimental and non-standard (e.g. my code won't work in any other JDO implementation). Is this really my best bet? Otherwise, how do people extract satisfactory performance from JDO/Datastore in this kind of (very common) situation? -Bosh

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• Visual Studio + Database Edition + CDC = Deploy Fail

  - by Ben

  Hi All, I've got a database using change data capture (CDC) that is created from a Visual Studio database project (GDR2). My problem is that I have a stored procedure that is analyzing the CDC information and then returning data. How is that a problem you ask? Well, the order of operation is as follows. Pre-deployment Script Tables Indexes, keys, etc. Procedures Post-deployment Script Inside the post-deployment script is where I enable CDC. Here-in lies the problem. The procedure that is acting on the CDC tables is bombing because they don't exist yet! I've tried to put the call to sys.sp_cdc_enable_table in the script that creates the table, but it doesn't like that. Error 102 TSD03070: This statement is not recognized in this context. C:...\Schema Objects\Schemas\dbo\Tables\Foo.table.sql 20 1 Foo Is there a better/built-in way to enable CDC such that it's references are available when the stored procedures are created? Is there a way to run a script after tables are created but before other objects are created? How about a way to create the procedure dependencies be damned? Or maybe I'm just doing things that shouldn't be done?!?! Now, I have a work around. Comment out the sproc body Deploy (CDC is created) Uncomment sproc Deploy Everything is great until the next time I update a CDC tracked table. Then I need to comment out the 'offending' procedure. Thanks for reading my question and thanks for your help!

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• database structure

  - by jindalsyogesh

  I have a table named ActivityRecording. This table currently has 500,000 records. I need to add a lot of new inputs that relates to activityrecording table. The relation of activityrecording with these new input fields is 1 to 0,1. So, what's going to happen on screen is when user fills the ActivityRecording data, he will then be taken to a new page and this page will show a form based on the user's input (from a dropdown named service) in activityrecording. There will 6 different kinds of form (each form will have 7-8 inputs which includes textareas of size 5kb, textboxes and checkboxes). So, for one activityrecording user will fill one out of 6 forms. There are two ways I know (there could be more), I can design the data structure: Add all the inputs from all these 6 forms into the activityrecording table. So, columns belonging to 5 of these forms will be null in this table, only columns belonging to one of the forms will have values The other way would be add 6 new tables (one for each form) and add 6 foreign key columns to activityrecording table. So, out of 6 foreign keys, 5 will be null and one will actually point to a table Which approach is a better data structure design? Please take into consideration that number of rows in this table are 500,000 and are expected to grow at a faster rate now.

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• How to: Simulating keystroke inputs in shell to an app running in an embedded target

  - by fzkl

  I am writing an automation script that runs on an embedded linux target. A part of the script involves running an app on the target and obtaining some data from the stdout. Stdout here is the ssh terminal connection I have to the target. However, this data is available on the stdout only if certain keys are pressed and the key press has to be done on the keyboard connected to the embedded target and not on the host system from which I have ssh'd into the target. Is there any way to simulate this? Edit: Elaborating on what I need - I have an OpenGL app that I run on the embedded linux (works like regular linux) target. This displays some graphics on the embedded system's display device. Pressing f on the keyboard connected to the target outputs the fps data onto the ssh terminal from which I control the target. Since I am automating the process of running this OpenGL app and obtaining the fps scores, I can't expect a keyboard to be connected to the target let alone expect a user to input a keystroke on the embedded target keyboard. How do I go about this? Thanks.

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• Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

  - by Daniel Magliola

  I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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• Traversing through an arbitrary dictionary tree structure in C#

  - by Rudism

  I am trying to write a recursive C# function that will operate on generic dictionaries of the form IDictionary<string, T> where T is either another IDictionary<string, T> or a string. My first failed attempt looked something like this: public string HandleDict(IDictionary<string, string> dict){ // handle the leaf-node here } public string HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, IDictionary<string, T>> dict){ // loop through children foreach(string key in dict.Keys){ HandleDict(dict[key]); } } I also tried variants of HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, T>) where T : IDictionary<string, T> but that also doesn't quite work. I know that what I want to do could be achieved through a custom class as the parameter instead of dictionaries, and that my attempts are conceptually flawed (there's no end to the recursion in the generic function). I would still like to know if there is actually a way to do what I want here using just generic IDictionaries.

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• World's Most Challening MySQL SQL Query (least I think so...)

  - by keruilin

  Whoever answers this question can claim credit for solving the world's most challenging SQL query, according to yours truly. Working with 3 tables: users, badges, awards. Relationships: user has many awards; award belongs to user; badge has many awards; award belongs to badge. So badge_id and user_id are foreign keys in the awards table. The business logic at work here is that every time a user wins a badge, he/she receives it as an award. A user can be awarded the same badge multiple times. Each badge is assigned a designated point value (point_value is a field in the badges table). For example, BadgeA can be worth 500 Points, BadgeB 1000 Points, and so on. As further example, let's say UserX won BadgeA 10 times and BadgeB 5 times. BadgeA being worth 500 Points, and BadgeB being worth 1000 Points, UserX has accumulated a total of 10,000 Points ((10 x 500) + (5 x 1000)). The end game here is to return a list of top 50 users who have accumulated the most badge points. Can you do it?

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• Twitter API Rate Limit - Overcoming on an unauthenticated JSON Get with Objective C?

  - by Cian

  I see the rate limit is 150/hr per IP. This'd be fine, but my application is on a mobile phone network (with shared IP addresses). I'd like to query twitter trends, e.g. GET /trends/1/json. This doesn't require authorization, however what if the user first authorized with my application using OAuth, then hit the JSON API? The request is built as follows: - (void) queryTrends:(NSString *) WOEID { NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://api.twitter.com/1/trends/%@.json", WOEID]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self startImmediately:YES]; if (theConnection) { // Create the NSMutableData to hold the received data. theData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed in Query Trends"); } //NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; } I have no idea how I'd build this request as an authenticated one however, and haven't seen any examples to this effect online. I've read through the twitter OAuth documentation, but I'm still puzzled as to how it should work. I've experimented with OAuth using Ben Gottlieb's prebuild library, and calling this in my first viewDidLoad: OAuthViewController *oAuthVC = [[OAuthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"OAuthTwitterDemoViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; // [self setViewController:aViewController]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:oAuthVC animated:YES]; This should store all the keys required in the app's preferences, I just need to know how to build the GET request after authorizing! Maybe this just isn't possible? Maybe I'll have to proxy the requests through a server side application? Any insight would be appreciated!

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• Showing errors in updatepanel after processing a CSV file

  - by Younes

  I have a csv importroutine which imports my CSV values into Sitecore. After this proces is done i want to show the errors in an asp:literal. This is not working, and I think this is because i need an updatepanel for this in order to be able to update text after the first postback (the csv upload / import). I made this: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder1" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and coded this: string melding = string.Format("Er zijn {0} objecten geïmporteerd.{1}", nrOfItemsImported, errors); ViewState["Melding"] = melding; And i have a button. On the onclick of this button I have: Literal literal = new Literal(); literal.Text = (string)ViewState["Melding"]; literal.ID = DateTime.Now.Ticks.ToString(); UpdatePanel1.ContentTemplateContainer.Controls.Add(literal); PlaceHolder1.Controls.Add(literal); When i now press the button i want to update the panel so that it will show my Literal with the errormsg on it. This however isn't happening. How can this be? I'm guessing it has something to do with my viewstate, i don't see keys on the viewstate after I press the button...

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• translate a PHP $string using google translator API

  - by Toni Michel Caubet

  hey there! been google'ing for a while how is the best way to translate with google translator in PHP, found very different ways converting URLS, or using Js but i want to do it only with php (or with a very simple solution JS/JQUery) example: //hopefully with $from_lan and $to_lan being like 'en','de', .. or similar function translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do return $translated_text; } can you give me a clue? or maybe you already have this function.. my intention it's to use it only for the languages i have not already defined (or keys i haven't defined), that's why i wan it so simple, will be only temporal.. EDIT thanks for your replies we are now trying this soulutions: function auto_translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do $json = json_decode(file_get_contents('https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/services/language/translate?v=1.0&q=' . urlencode($text) . '&langpair=' . $from_lan . '|' . $to_lan)); $translated_text = $json->responseData->translatedText; return $translated_text; } (there was a extra 'g' on variables for lang... anyway) it returns: works now :) i don't really understand much the function, so any idea why is not acepting the object? (now i do) OR: unction auto_translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do // $json = json_decode(file_get_contents('https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/services/language/translate?v=1.0&q=' . urlencode($text) . '&langpair=' . $from_lan . '|' . $to_lan)); // $translated_text = $json['responseData']['translatedText']; error_reporting(1); require_once('GTranslate.php'); try{ $gt = new Gtranslate(); $translated_text = $gt-english_to_german($text); } catch (GTranslateException $ge) { $translated_text= $ge->getMessage(); } return $translated_text; } And this one looks great but it doesn't even gives me an error, the page won't load (error_report(1) :S) thanks in advance!

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• Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

  - by Ahmad

  Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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• Decrypting a string in C# 3.5 which was encrypted with openssl in php 5.3.2

  - by panny

  Hi everyone, maybe someone can clear me up. I have been surfing on this a while now. I used openssl from console to create a root certificate for me (privatekey.pem, publickey.pem, mycert.pem, mycertprivatekey.pfx). See the end of this text on how. The problem is still to get a string encrypted on the PHP side to be decrypted on the C# side with RSACryptoServiceProvider. Any ideas? PHP side I used the publickey.pem to read it into php: $server_public_key = openssl_pkey_get_public(file_get_contents("C:\publickey.pem")); // rsa encrypt openssl_public_encrypt("123", $encrypted, $server_public_key); and the privatekey.pem to check if it works: openssl_private_decrypt($encrypted, $decrypted, openssl_get_privatekey(file_get_contents("C:\privatekey.pem"))); Coming to the conclusion, that encryption/decryption works fine on the php side with these openssl root certificate files. C# side In same manner I read the keys into a .net C# console program: X509Certificate2 myCert2 = new X509Certificate2(); RSACryptoServiceProvider rsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); try { myCert2 = new X509Certificate2(@"C:\mycertprivatekey.pfx"); rsa = (RSACryptoServiceProvider)myCert2.PrivateKey; } catch (Exception e) { } string t = Convert.ToString(rsa.Decrypt(rsa.Encrypt(test, false), false)); coming to the point, that encryption/decryption works fine on the c# side with these openssl root certificate files. key generation on unix 1) openssl req -x509 -nodes -days 3650 -newkey rsa:1024 -keyout privatekey.pem -out mycert.pem 2) openssl rsa -in privatekey.pem -pubout -out publickey.pem 3) openssl pkcs12 -export -out mycertprivatekey.pfx -in mycert.pem -inkey privatekey.pem -name "my certificate"

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• keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

  - by Old McStopher

  UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

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