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  • Unable to persist objects in GAE JDO

    - by Basil Dsouza
    Hello Guys, I am completely fresh to both JDO and GAE, and have been struggling to get my data layer to persist any code at all! The issues I am facing may be very simple, but I just cant seem to find any a way no matter what solution I try. Firstly the problem: (Slightly simplified, but still contains all the info necessary) My data model is as such: User: (primary key) String emailID String firstName Car: (primary key) User user (primary key) String registration String model This was the initial datamodel. I implemented a CarPK object to get a composite primary key of the User and the registration. However that ran into a variety of issues. (Which i will save for another time/question) I then changed the design as such: User: (Unchanged) Car: (primary key) String fauxPK (here fauxPK = user.getEmailID() + SEP + registration) User user String registration String model This works fine for the user, and it can insert and retrieve user objects. However when i try to insert a Car Object, i get the following error: "Cannot have a java.lang.String primary key and be a child object" Found the following helpful link about it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2063467/persist-list-of-objects Went to the link suggested there, that explains how to create Keys, however they keep talking about "Entity Groups" and "Entity Group Parents". But I cant seem to find any articles or sites that explain what are "Entity Group"s or an "Entity Group Parents" I could try fiddling around some more to figure out if i can store an object somehow, But I am running sort on patience and also would rather understand and implement than vice versa. So i would appreciate any docs (even if its huge) that covers all these points, and preferably has some examples that go beyond the very basic data modeling. And thanks for reading such a long post :)

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  • SQLAlchemy Expression Language problem

    - by Torkel
    I'm trying to convert this to something sqlalchemy expression language compatible, I don't know if it's possible out of box and are hoping someone more experienced can help me along. The backend is PostgreSQL and if I can't make it as an expression I'll create a string instead. SELECT DISTINCT date_trunc('month', x.x) as date, COALESCE(b.res1, 0) AS res1, COALESCE(b.res2, 0) AS res2 FROM generate_series( date_trunc('year', now() - interval '1 years'), date_trunc('year', now() + interval '1 years'), interval '1 months' ) AS x LEFT OUTER JOIN( SELECT date_trunc('month', access_datetime) AS when, count(NULLIF(resource_id != 1, TRUE)) AS res1, count(NULLIF(resource_id != 2, TRUE)) AS res2 FROM tracking_entries GROUP BY date_trunc('month', access_datetime) ) AS b ON (date_trunc('month', x.x) = b.when) First of all I got a class TrackingEntry mapped to tracking_entries, the select statement within the outer joined can be converted to something like (pseudocode):: from sqlalchemy.sql import func, select from datetime import datetime, timedelta stmt = select([ func.date_trunc('month', TrackingEntry.resource_id).label('when'), func.count(func.nullif(TrackingEntry.resource_id != 1, True)).label('res1'), func.count(func.nullif(TrackingEntry.resource_id != 2, True)).label('res2') ], group_by=[func.date_trunc('month', TrackingEntry.access_datetime), ]) Considering the outer select statement I have no idea how to build it, my guess is something like: outer = select([ func.distinct(func.date_trunc('month', ?)).label('date'), func.coalesce(?.res1, 0).label('res1'), func.coalesce(?.res2, 0).label('res2') ], from_obj=[ func.generate_series( datetime.now(), datetime.now() + timedelta(days=365), timedelta(days=1) ).label(x) ]) Then I suppose I have to link those statements together without using foreign keys: outer.outerjoin(stmt???).??(func.date_trunc('month', ?.?), ?.when) Anyone got any suggestions or even better a solution?

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  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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  • getting data from tableviewcell to 2nd view

    - by chubsta
    I am very new to this and am trying to learn by creating a few little apps for myself. I have a navigation-based app where the user taps the row to select a film title - i then want the second view to show details of the film. Thanks to a very helpful person here i am getting the results of the row pressed as 'rowTitle' as follows : (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *key = [keys objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *nameSection = [names objectForKey:key]; NSString *rowTitle = [nameSection objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSLog(@"rowTitle = %@", rowTitle); [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; I am, however, struggling to make the data at 'rowTitle' available to the 2nd view - basically, if i can get the info - for example rowTitle is "aliens2" - i want to be able to add a new extension to the end of the string returned by 'rowTitle' in order to point to an image (if that makes sense) in the second view... something like tempImageName=[** this is where the info from rowTitle needs to be i suppose**]; tempImageType=@".png"; finalImageName=[tempImageName stringByAppendingString:tempImageType]; does this make sense to anyone (apologies if it doesnt - i know what i want but how to explain it is a little more awkward!) Thanks again for any help anyone can give (and any help as to formatting these questions would be useful too obviously!!)!

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  • Showing errors in updatepanel after processing a CSV file

    - by Younes
    I have a csv importroutine which imports my CSV values into Sitecore. After this proces is done i want to show the errors in an asp:literal. This is not working, and I think this is because i need an updatepanel for this in order to be able to update text after the first postback (the csv upload / import). I made this: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder1" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and coded this: string melding = string.Format("Er zijn {0} objecten geïmporteerd.{1}", nrOfItemsImported, errors); ViewState["Melding"] = melding; And i have a button. On the onclick of this button I have: Literal literal = new Literal(); literal.Text = (string)ViewState["Melding"]; literal.ID = DateTime.Now.Ticks.ToString(); UpdatePanel1.ContentTemplateContainer.Controls.Add(literal); PlaceHolder1.Controls.Add(literal); When i now press the button i want to update the panel so that it will show my Literal with the errormsg on it. This however isn't happening. How can this be? I'm guessing it has something to do with my viewstate, i don't see keys on the viewstate after I press the button...

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  • translate a PHP $string using google translator API

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    hey there! been google'ing for a while how is the best way to translate with google translator in PHP, found very different ways converting URLS, or using Js but i want to do it only with php (or with a very simple solution JS/JQUery) example: //hopefully with $from_lan and $to_lan being like 'en','de', .. or similar function translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do return $translated_text; } can you give me a clue? or maybe you already have this function.. my intention it's to use it only for the languages i have not already defined (or keys i haven't defined), that's why i wan it so simple, will be only temporal.. EDIT thanks for your replies we are now trying this soulutions: function auto_translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do $json = json_decode(file_get_contents('https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/services/language/translate?v=1.0&q=' . urlencode($text) . '&langpair=' . $from_lan . '|' . $to_lan)); $translated_text = $json->responseData->translatedText; return $translated_text; } (there was a extra 'g' on variables for lang... anyway) it returns: works now :) i don't really understand much the function, so any idea why is not acepting the object? (now i do) OR: unction auto_translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do // $json = json_decode(file_get_contents('https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/services/language/translate?v=1.0&q=' . urlencode($text) . '&langpair=' . $from_lan . '|' . $to_lan)); // $translated_text = $json['responseData']['translatedText']; error_reporting(1); require_once('GTranslate.php'); try{ $gt = new Gtranslate(); $translated_text = $gt-english_to_german($text); } catch (GTranslateException $ge) { $translated_text= $ge->getMessage(); } return $translated_text; } And this one looks great but it doesn't even gives me an error, the page won't load (error_report(1) :S) thanks in advance!

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  • updating dataset using join and bindingsource?

    - by netadictos
    Hi, I have created a dataset and in the designer I have created the relations and foreign keys that exist in the database. Basically, I have a product that has a relationship to a table of prices. The keyfield they share is IdProduct in the Prices table. In the Fill/Get of the product I return the Price field. I also have a DataGrid that uses a BindingSource which uses this table. Everything displays correctly and when I double click on a row within the datagrid I then open up a tabbed form that contains a detailed view of the record selected. The user at this point is able to make changes to the record and they are properly propogated back to the BindingSource. The problem is that the TableAdapter does not contain the appopriate update, therefore I am not able to call the TableAdapter.Update method with the dataset as I would had I created a tableadapter not using a join. How am I best to handle this situation. At the same time I cannot get any modified row: dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable modified = (dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable) dTiendasDs.Productos.GetChanges(DataRowState.Modified); modified is always null Thanks,

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  • How to write a good PHP database insert using an associative array

    - by Tom
    In PHP, I want to insert into a database using data contained in a associative array of field/value pairs. Example: $_fields = array('field1'=>'value1','field2'=>'value2','field3'=>'value3'); The resulting SQL insert should look as follows: INSERT INTO table (field1,field2,field3) VALUES ('value1','value2','value3'); I have come up with the following PHP one-liner: mysql_query("INSERT INTO table (".implode(',',array_keys($_fields)).") VALUES (".implode(',',array_values($_fields)).")"); It separates the keys and values of the the associative array and implodes to generate a comma-separated string . The problem is that it does not escape or quote the values that were inserted into the database. To illustrate the danger, Imagine if $_fields contained the following: $_fields = array('field1'=>"naustyvalue); drop table members; --"); The following SQL would be generated: INSERT INTO table (field1) VALUES (naustyvalue); drop table members; --; Luckily, multiple queries are not supported, nevertheless quoting and escaping are essential to prevent SQL injection vulnerabilities. How do you write your PHP Mysql Inserts? Note: PDO or mysqli prepared queries aren't currently an option for me because the codebase already uses mysql extensively - a change is planned but it'd take alot of resources to convert?

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  • Parse a CSV file using python (to make a decision tree later)

    - by Margaret
    First off, full disclosure: This is going towards a uni assignment, so I don't want to receive code. :). I'm more looking for approaches; I'm very new to python, having read a book but not yet written any code. The entire task is to import the contents of a CSV file, create a decision tree from the contents of the CSV file (using the ID3 algorithm), and then parse a second CSV file to run against the tree. There's a big (understandable) preference to have it capable of dealing with different CSV files (I asked if we were allowed to hard code the column names, mostly to eliminate it as a possibility, and the answer was no). The CSV files are in a fairly standard format; the header row is marked with a # then the column names are displayed, and every row after that is a simple series of values. Example: # Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4 Value01, Value02, Value03, Value04 Value11, Value12, Value13, Value14 At the moment, I'm trying to work out the first part: parsing the CSV. To make the decisions for the decision tree, a dictionary structure seems like it's going to be the most logical; so I was thinking of doing something along these lines: Read in each line, character by character If the character is not a comma or a space Append character to temporary string If the character is a comma Append the temporary string to a list Empty string Once a line has been read Create a dictionary using the header row as the key (somehow!) Append that dictionary to a list However, if I do things that way, I'm not sure how to make a mapping between the keys and the values. I'm also wondering whether there is some way to perform an action on every dictionary in a list, since I'll need to be doing things to the effect of "Everyone return their values for columns Column1 and Column4, so I can count up who has what!" - I assume that there is some mechanism, but I don't think I know how to do it. Is a dictionary the best way to do it? Would I be better off doing things using some other data structure? If so, what?

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  • NHibernate One to One Foreign Key ON DELETE CASCADE

    - by xll
    I need to implement One-to-one association between Project and ProjecSettings using fluent NHibernate: public class ProjectMap : ClassMap<Project> { public ProjectMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .UniqueKey(MapUtils.Col<Project>(x => x.Id)) .GeneratedBy.HiLo("NHHiLoIdentity", "NextHiValue", "1000", string.Format("[EntityName] = '[{0}]'", MapUtils.Table<Project>())) .Not.Nullable(); HasOne(x => x.ProjectSettings) .PropertyRef(x => x.Project); } } public class ProjectSettingsMap : ClassMap<ProjectSettings> { public ProjectSettingsMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .UniqueKey(MapUtils.Col<ProjectSettings>(x => x.Id)) .GeneratedBy.HiLo("NHHiLoIdentity", "NextHiValue", "1000", string.Format("[EntityName] = '[{0}]'", MapUtils.Table<ProjectSettings>())); References(x => x.Project) .Column(MapUtils.Ref<ProjectSettings, Project>(p => p.Project, p => p.Id)) .Unique() .Not.Nullable(); } } This results in the following sql for Project Settings: CREATE TABLE ProjectSettings ( Id bigint PRIMARY KEY NOT NULL, Project_Project_Id bigint NOT NULL UNIQUE, /* Foreign keys */ FOREIGN KEY (Project_Project_Id) REFERENCES Project() ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION ); What I am trying to achieve is to have ON DELETE CASCADE for the FOREIGN KEY (Project_Project_Id), so that when the project is deleted through sql query, it's settings are deleted too. How can I achieve this ? EDIT: I know about Cascade.Delete() option, but it's not what I need. Is there any way to intercept the FK statement generation?

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  • Some optimization about the code (computing ranks of a vector)?

    - by user1748356
    The following code is a function (performance-critical) to compute tied ranks of a vector: mergeSort(x,inds,ci); //a sort function to sort vector x of length ci, also returns keys (inds) of x. int tj=0; double xi=x[0]; for (int j = 1; j < ci; ++j) { if (x[j] > xi) { double rankvalue = 0.5 * (j - 1 + tj); for (int k = tj; k < j; ++k) { ranks[inds[k]]=rankvalue; }; tj = j; xi = x[j]; }; }; double rankvalue = 0.5 * (ci - 1 + tj); for (int k = tj; k < ci; ++k) { ranks[inds[k]]=rankvalue; }; The problem is, the supposed performance bottleneck mergeSort(), which is O(NlogN) is several times faster than the other part of codes (which is O(N)), which suggests there is room for huge improvment with the other part of the codes, any advices?

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  • (PHP) Converting an array of arrays from one format into another

    - by Richard Carter
    Hi, I currently have an array, created from a database, an example of which looks like the following: Array( [0] => Array ( objectid => 2, name => title, value => apple ), [1] => Array ( objectid => 2, name => colour, value => red ), [2] => Array ( objectid => 3, name => title, value => pear ), [3] => Array ( objectid => 3, name => colour, value => green ) ) What I would like to do is group all the items in the array by their objectid, and convert the 'name' values into keys and 'value' values into values of an associative array....like below: Array ( [0] => Array ( objectid => 2, title => apple, colour => red ), [1] => Array ( objectid => 3, title => pear, colour => green ) ) I've tried a few things but haven't really got anywhere.. Any ideas? Thanks in advance

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  • Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

    - by slack3r
    In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

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  • implementing cryptographic algorithms, specifically the key expansion part

    - by masseyc
    Hey, recently I picked up a copy of Applied Cryptography by Bruce Schneier and it's been a good read. I now understand how several algorithms outlined in the book work, and I'd like to start implementing a few of them in C. One thing that many of the algorithms have in common is dividing an x-bit key, into several smaller y-bit keys. For example, blowfish's key, X, is 64-bits, but you are required to break it up into two 32-bit halves; Xl and Xr. This is where I'm getting stuck. I'm fairly decent with C, but I'm not the strongest when it comes to bitwise operators and the like. After some help on IRC, I managed to come up with these two macros: #define splitup(a, b, c) {b = a >> 32; c = a & 0xffffffff; } #define combine(a, b, c) {a = (c << 32) | a;} Where a is 64 bits and b and c are 32 bits. However, the compiler warns me about the fact that I'm shifting a 32 bit variable by 32 bits. My questions are these: what's bad about shifting a 32-bit variable 32 bits? I'm guessing it's undefined, but these macros do seem to be working. Also, would you suggest I go about this another way? As I said, I'm fairly familiar with C, but bitwise operators and the like still give me a headache.

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  • How to build a simulation of a login hardware token in .Net

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have a hardware token for remote login to some citrix environment. When i click the button on the device, i get an id and i can use that to login to the citrix farm. I can click the button as much as i like, and every time a new code gets generated, and they all work. Now i want to secure my private website likewise, but not with the hardware token, but with a 'token app' on my phone. So i run an app on my phone, generate a key, and use that to (partly) authenticate myself on the server. But here's the point: i don't know how it works! How can i generate 1, 2 or 100 keys at one time which i can see (on the server) are all valid, but without the server and the phone app having contact (the hardware token also is an 'offline' solution). Can you help me with a hint how i would do this? This is what i thought of so far: the phone app and the server app know (hardcoded) the same encryption key. The phone app encrypts the current time. The server app decrypts the string to the current time and if the diff between that time and the actual server time is less than 10 minutes it's an ok. Difficult for other users to fake a key, but encryption gives such nasty strings to enter, and the hardware token gives me nice things like 'H554TU8' And this is probably not how the real hardware token works, because the server and the phone app must 'know' the same encryption key. Michel

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  • VB.NET: Dialog exits when enter pressed?

    - by Camilo Martin
    Hi all; My problem seems to be quite simple, but it's not working the intuitive way. I'm designing a Windows Forms Application, and there is a dialog that should NOT exit when the enter key is pressed, instead it has to validate data first, in case enter was pressed after changing the text of a ComboBox. I've tried by telling it what to do on KeyPress event of the ComboBox if e is the Enter key: Private Sub ComboBoxSizeChoose_KeyPress(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyPressEventArgs) Handles ComboBoxSizeChoose.KeyPress If e.KeyChar = Convert.ToChar(Keys.Enter) Then Try TamanhoDaNovaFonte = Single.Parse(ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text) Catch ex As Exception Dim Dialogo2 As New Dialog2 Dialog2.ShowDialog() ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text = TamanhoDaNovaFonte End Try End If End Sub But no success so far. When the Enter key is pressed, even with the ComboBox on focus, the whole dialog is closed, returning to the previous form. The validation is NOT done at all, and it has to be done before exiting. In fact, I don't even want to exit on the form's enter KeyPress, the only purpose of the enter key on the whole dialog is to validate the ComboBox (but only when in focus, for the sake of an intuitive UI). I've also tried appending the validation to the KeyPress event of the whole dialog's form, if the key is Enter. NO SUCCESS! It's like my code wasn't there at all. What should I do? (Visual Studio 2008, VB.NET)

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  • Using Subsonic 3.0 Advanced Templates

    - by umit
    Hi all, I've been trying to use Subsonic Advanced Templates in a project for a while but most of the time I find myself writing a Stored Procedure as I can't find a proper way of doing it in code. Subsonic created corresponding objects for my DB tables and for foreign keys it created IQueryable fields inside each object. These fields are not loaded by default and a new SQL query is executed when you access them. 1- Is there a way to get all data in one query (deep load)? Also these fields can not be assigned. So when I want to create an object in a maintenance page, I can't put all the data into this object before saving it in DB: Post post = new Post(); //get photos for this post IList<PostPhoto> postPhotos = GetPostPhotos(); post.PostPhotos = postPhotos; 2- Is it possible to have one Post object with all fields set from user input? Think of the Post object above and assume I've successfully assigned its fields. Now I need to save it to the DB. 3- Is using BatchQuery the only way to do it in one query? If I have 4 photos in PostPhotos field; 2 of them previously saved and 2 of them new, can I use the Update method to handle both the adding and updating of these photos? Any ideas or links are appreciated. Cheers...

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  • jquery plugin caroufredsel hide next/prev buttons until mouseover carousel

    - by John Magnolia
    I am trying to make the buttons hide by default and they only become visible when the mouse is over. Although I am having problems where the carousel core code seems to be adding display block even if I set display none in the CSS. var $slides = $("#slides"); $slides.find('ul.banners').eq(0).carouFredSel({ height: 360, items: { visible: 1 }, scroll: { easing: "easeInOutSine", duration: 1200 }, auto: { delay: 1000 }, prev: { button: $slides.find('.prev'), items: 1 }, next:{ button: $slides.find('.next'), items: 1 }, pagination: { container: $slides.find(".pagination"), keys: true, anchorBuilder: function(nr) { return '<li><a href="#"><span>'+nr+'</span></a></li>'; } } }); $slideButtons = $slides.find(".next,.prev"); $slides.find('ul.banners').hover(function(){ $slideButtons.fadeIn(); },function(){ $slideButtons.fadeOut(); }); HTML <div id="slides"> <ul class="banners"> <li><img /></li> <li><img /></li> </ul> <ul class="pagination"></ul> <div class="next">Next</div> <div class="prev">Previous</div> </div>

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  • Distinct Value Array for View Controller Index Using Core Data

    - by b.dot
    Hi, I'm trying to create an index representing the first letter value of each record in a Core Data store to be used in a table view controller. I'm using a snippet of the code from Apple's documentation. I would simply like to produce an array or dictionary of distinct values as the result. My store already has the character defined within each record object. Questions: 1) I'm having a problem understanding NSDictionaryResultType. Where does the resulting dictionary object get received so that I can assign it's keys to the view controller? The code seems to only return an array. 2) If I include the line containing NSDictionaryResultType, I get no returns. 3) I realize that I could do this in a loop, but I'm hoping this will work. Thanks! NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"People" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity:entity]; [request setResultType:NSDictionaryResultType]; // This line causes no no results. [request setReturnsDistinctResults:YES]; [request setPropertiesToFetch :[NSArray arrayWithObject:@"alphabetIndex"]]; NSError *error; NSArray *objects = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error];

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  • EF 4.0 Code only assocation from abstract to derived

    - by Jeroen
    Using EF 4.0 Code only i want to make an assocation between an abstract and normal class. I have class 'Item', 'ContentBase' and 'Test'. 'ContentBase' is abstract and 'Test' derives from it. 'ContentBase' has a property 'Item' that links to an instance of 'Item'. So that 'Test.Item' or any class that derives from 'ContentBase' has an 'Item' navigation property. In my DB every record for Test has a matching record for Item. public class Item { public int Id { get; set;} } public abstract class ContentBase { public int ContentId { get; set;} public int Id { get; set;} public Item Item { get; set;} } public class Test : ContentBase { public string Name { get; set;} } now some init code public void SomeInitFunction() { var itemConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Item>(); itemConfig.HasKey(p => p.Id); itemConfig.Property(p => p.Id).IsIdentity(); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(itemConfig); var testConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Test>(); testConfig.HasKey(p => p.ContentId); testConfig.Property(p => p.ContentId).IsIdentity(); // the problem testConfig.Relationship(p => p.Item).HasConstraint((p, q) => p.Id == q.Id); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(testConfig); } This gives an error: A key is registered for the derived type 'Test'. Keys must be registered for the root type 'ContentBase'. anyway i try i get an error. What am i a doing wrong?

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  • keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

    - by Old McStopher
    UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

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  • What should the name of this class be?

    - by Tim Murphy
    Naming classes is sometimes hard. What do you think name of the class should be? I originally created the class to use as a cache but can see its may have other uses. Example code to use the class. Dim cache = New NamePendingDictionary(Of String, Sample) Dim value = cache("a", Function() New Sample()) And here is the class that needs a name. ''' <summary> ''' Enhancement of <see cref="System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary"/>. See the Item property ''' for more details. ''' </summary> ''' <typeparam name="TKey">The type of the keys in the dictionary.</typeparam> ''' <typeparam name="TValue">The type of the values in the dictionary.</typeparam> Public Class NamePendingDictionary(Of TKey, TValue) Inherits Dictionary(Of TKey, TValue) Delegate Function DefaultValue() As TValue ''' <summary> ''' Gets or sets the value associated with the specified key. If the specified key does not exist ''' then <paramref name="createDefaultValue"/> is invoked and added to the dictionary. The created ''' value is then returned. ''' </summary> ''' <param name="key">The key of the value to get.</param> ''' <param name="createDefaultValue"> ''' The delegate to invoke if <paramref name="key"/> does not exist in the dictionary. ''' </param> ''' <exception cref="T:System.ArgumentNullException"><paramref name="key" /> is null.</exception> Default Public Overloads ReadOnly Property Item(ByVal key As TKey, ByVal createDefaultValue As DefaultValue) As TValue Get Dim value As TValue If createDefaultValue Is Nothing Then Throw New ArgumentNullException("createValue") End If If Not Me.TryGetValue(key, value) Then value = createDefaultValue.Invoke() Me.Add(key, value) End If Return value End Get End Property End Class

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  • Checking multiple conditions in Ruby (within Rails, which may not matter)

    - by Ev
    Hello rubyists and railers, I have a method which checks over a params hash to make sure that it contains certain keys, and to make sure that certain values are set within a certain range. This is for an action that responds to a POST query by an iPhone app. Anyway, this method is checking for about 10 different conditions - any of which will result in an HTTP error being returned (I'm still considering this, but possibly a 400: bad request error). My current syntax is basically this (paraphrased): def invalid_submission_params?(params) [check one] or [check two] or [check three] or [check four] etc etc end Where each of the check statements returns true if that particular parameter check results in an invalid parameter set. I call it as a before filter with params[:submission] as the argument. This seems a little ugly (all the strung together or statements). Is there a better way? I have tried using case but can't see a way to make it more elegant. Or, perhaps, is there a rails method that lets me check the incoming params hash for certain conditions before handing control off to my action method?

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  • Database localization

    - by Don
    Hi, I have a number of database tables that contain name and description columns which need to be localized. My initial attempt at designing a DB schema that would support this was something like: product ------- id name description local_product ------- id product_id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale However, this solution requires a new local_ table for every table that contains name and description columns that require localization. In an attempt to avoid this overhead I redesigned the schema so that only a single localization table is needed product ------- id localization_id localization ------- id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale Here's an example of the data which would be stored in this schema when there are 2 tables (product and country) requiring localization: country id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 5 product id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 2 localization id, local_name, local_description, locale_id ------------------------------------------------------ 2, apple, a delicious fruit, 2 2, pomme, un fruit délicieux, 3 2, apfel, ein köstliches Obst, 4 5, ireland, a small country, 2 5, irlande, un petite pay, 3 locale id, locale -------------- 2, en 3, fr 4, de Notice that the compound primary key of the localization table is (id, locale_id), but the foreign key in the product table only refers to the first element of this compound PK. This seems like 'a bad thing' from the POV of normalization. Is there any way I can fix this problem, or alternatively, is there a completely different schema that supports localization without creating a separate table for each localizable table? Update: A number of respondents have proposed a solution that requires creating a separate table for each localizable table. However, this is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. The schema I've proposed above almost solves the problem to my satisfaction, but I'm unhappy about the fact that the localization_id foreign keys only refer to part of the corresponding primary key in the localization table. Thanks, Don

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  • WPF Usercontrol with textboxes

    - by benPearce
    I have a WPF user control with a number of textboxes, this is hosted on a WPF window. The textboxes are not currently bound but I cannot type into any of them. I have put a breakpoint in the KeyDown event of one of the textboxes and it hits it fine and I can see the key I pressed. The textboxes are declared as <TextBox Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="4" x:Name="PostcodeSearch" Style="{StaticResource SearchTextBox}" KeyDown="PostcodeSearch_KeyDown"/> The style is implemented as <Style x:Key="SearchTextBox" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Setter Property="Control.Margin" Value="2"/> <Setter Property="Height" Value="20"/> <Setter Property="Width" Value="140"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Left"/> </Style> I am hoping I have overlooked something obvious. EDIT: I only added the KeyDown and KeyUp events just to prove that the keys presses were getting through. I do not have any custom functionality.

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