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• How to display two series via Google Chart API?

  - by Chris

  I can't get the two series of numbers to scale together. Here is sample code that you can paste into... http://code.google.com/intl/en/apis/chart/docs/chart_playground.html cht=lxy chs=400x300 chd=t:20,30,40|1,4,2|24,34,44|3,7,1 chds=20,40,1,4,24,44,1,7 chxr=0,20,54,2|1,0,7,1 chxt=x,y chxs=0,ff0000,12,0,lt 1,0000ff,10,1,lt chco=FF0000,00FF00 chdl=Apples Oranges chtt=Some+Values chts=0000ff,24 Translated: chd=t:s,e,r,i,e,s,1|s,e,r,i,e,s,2|...ors:series1,series2,...ore:series1,series2,... chds=<series_1_min>,<series_1_max>,... chxr=<axis_index>,<start_val>,<end_val>,<step>|... The three varying parameters in question are: chd=t:20,30,40|1,4,2|24,34,44|3,7,1 chds=20,40,1,4,24,44,1,7 chxr=0,20,54,2|1,0,7,1 Can anyone get this simple example working? The chart supports multiple series but for some reason I can't scale it so that the values are displayed within scale. Any help appreciated, Chris

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• DataGridView display row header cell

  - by Karl

  I'm trying to display a simple DataGridView linked to a DataTable and I want, ultimately, my first column in the DataTable to be the row header cell for the DataGridView. At this point I will settle for having any value in the row header cell. I can display the DataGridView with all my rows and columns, and with column header cells, but no row header cell. I check the value in the row.HeaderCell.Value, and the data I put there is there. I check row.HeaderCell.Displayed and it is false, but this is read only, so I can't make it true. How do I make the row header cell display? Here's a simple sample of what I've tried to get this to work: DataTable table = new DataTable(); for (int i = 0; i<10; i++) { table.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("column-" + i)); } for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { DataRow theRow = table.NewRow(); for (int j = 0; j < 10; j++) theRow[j] = i + "-" + j; table.Rows.Add(theRow); } dataGridView1.DataSource = table; dataGridView1.RowHeadersWidthSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowHeadersWidthSizeMode.AutoSizeToDisplayedHeaders; int rowNumber = 1; foreach (DataGridViewRow row in dataGridView1.Rows) { if (row.IsNewRow) continue; row.HeaderCell.Value = "Row " + rowNumber; rowNumber = rowNumber + 1; } dataGridView1.AutoResizeRowHeadersWidth( DataGridViewRowHeadersWidthSizeMode.AutoSizeToAllHeaders);

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• Core Data migration of to-one relationship to to-many relationship

  - by westsider

  I have a deployed app that samples measurements from sensors (e.g., Temp °C, Pressure kPa). The user can create Experiments and collect samples. Each sample is stored as a Run, such that there is a one-to-many relationship from Experiment to Run. In the interest of performance, Run has a to-one relationship with Data entity (which is where the actual raw data is stored); this allows some Run attributes to be loaded without necessarily loading lots of data. Most of our sensors have multiple measurements, so it would be nice to store all the data that is actually being sampled. But this means that the Run <--- Data relationship needs to become Run <-- Data (to use Xcode's convention). I am faced with trying to migrate data from old Run to-one Data model to new Run to-many Data model. Can this be done using Mapping Models? If so, does anyone have any pointers to examples? If not, does anyone have any pointers to examples of how to do that? Thanks for any pointers or advice.

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• jquery validate: focusCleanup: true and focusInvalid: false don't work as expected

  - by laramichaels

  I am using Joern's jquery validation plugin 1.6. My goal is to have the following behavior: remove the error message for an element once the user focuses it. From what I understand setting 'focusCleanup: true' should take care of this. However (at least on my browser (Firefox 3.5.7 on Linux)), I only get the desired behavior (ie, error message for a field disappearing once you focus it) if I click into the field; it doesn't handle tabbing into the field correctly. Sample code: HTML: <form id='abc' name='abc'> <input type="text" id="t1" name="t1"/> <input type="text" id="t2" name="t2"/> <input type="submit" id="submit" value='submit'/> </form> JS: $("#abc").validate({ focusCleanup: true, focusInvalid: false, rules: {t1: {required: true, email:true}, t2: {required: true,email:true}} }); I am setting 'focusInvalid: false' because the docs say one should avoid combining focusCleanup and focusInvalid; in my experience commenting out that line makes no difference. Am I doing something wrong?

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• How to delete specific node in omnixml delphi

  - by Erwan

  i've read this answer but i don't know how to use that sample in my case. I have an xml file <Archive> <Source> <Name>321</Name> <BatchID>123</BatchID> </Source> <DataList> <Data> <PN>AAAA</PN> <FN>1111</FN> </Data> <Data> <PN>BBBB</PN> <FN>2222</FN> </Data> </DataList> </Archive> How can i delete the Node that has PN=BBBB? I'm so sorry, i think i'm not clear in my question, my bad, My Question is how to delete this section: <Data> <PN>BBBB</PN> <FN>2222</FN> </Data> not only this section <PN>BBBB</PN> The Answer: Thanks to Runner, i modified a little bit of his code DeleteNode := XMLDoc.DocumentElement.SelectSingleNode('/Archive/DataList/Data[PN="BBBB"]'); DeleteNode.ParentNode.RemoveChild(DeleteNode);

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• Regex query: how can I search PDFs for a phrase where words in that phrase appear on more than one l

  - by Alison

  I am trying to set up an index page for the weekly magazine I work on. It is to show readers the names of companies mentioned in that weeks' issue, plus the page numbers they are appear on. I want to search all the PDF files for the week, where one PDF = one magazine page (originally made in Adobe InDesign CS3 and Adobe InCopy CS3). I have set up a list of companies I want to search for and, using PowerGREP and using delimited regular expressions, I am able to find most page numbers where a company is mentioned. However, where a company name contains two or more words, the search I am running will not pick up instances where the name appears over more than one line. For example, when looking for "CB Richard Ellis" and "Cushman & Wakefield", I got no result when the text appeared like this: DTZ beat BNP PRE, CB [line break here] Richard Ellis and Cushman & [line break here] Wakefield to secure the contract. [line end here] Could someone advise me on how to write a regular expression that will ignore white space between words and ignore line endings OR one that will look for the words including all types of white space (ie uneven spaces between words; spaces at the end of lines or line endings; and tabs (I am guessing that this info is imbedded somehow in PDF files). Here is a sample of the set of terms I have asked PowerGREP to search for: \bCB Richard Ellis\b \bCB Richard Ellis Hotels\b \bCentaur Services\b \bChapman Herbert\b \bCharities Property Fund\b \bChetwoods Architects\b \bChurch Commissioners\b \bClive Emson\b \bClothworkers’ Company\b \bColliers CRE\b \bCombined English Stores Group\b \bCommercial Estates Group\b \bConnells\b \bCooke & Powell\b \bCordea Savills\b \bCrown Estate\b \bCushman & Wakefield\b \bCWM Retail Property Advisors\b [Note that there is a delimited hard return between each \b at the end of each phrase and beginnong of the next phrase.] By the way, I am a production journalist and not usually involved in finding IT-type solutions and am finding it difficult to get to grips with the technical language on the PowerGREP site. Thanks for assistance Alison

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• UrlRewriter.net Expression Examples

  - by Tarik

  Hello, I need some web.config examples for each expression types below : $number The last substring matched by group number number. $<name> The last substring matched by group named name matched by (?< name ). ${property} The value of the property when the expression is evaluated. ${transform(value)} The result of calling the transform on the specified value. ${map:value} The result of mapping the specified value using the map. Replaced with empty string if no mapping exists. ${map:value|default} The result of mapping the specified value using the map. Replaced with the default if no mapping exists. Sample: <rewriter> <if url="/tags/(.+)" rewrite="/tagcloud.aspx?tag=$1" /> <!-- same thing as <rewrite url="/tags/(.+)" to="/tagcloud.aspx?tag=$1" /> --> </rewriter> Thank you very much !

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• Is VB Really Case Insensitive?

  - by Otaku

  I'm not trying to start an argument here, but for whatever reason it's typically stated that VB is case insensitive and C languages aren't (and somehow that is a good thing). But here's my question: Where exactly is VB case insensitive? When I type... Dim ss As String Dim SS As String ...into the VS2008 IDE the second one has a warning of "Local variable 'SS' is already declared in the current block". In VBA VBE, it doesn't immediately kick an error, but rather just auto-corrects the case. Am I missing something here with this argument that VB is not case sensitive? (Also, if you know or care to answer, why would that be a bad thing?) EDIT: Why am I even asking this question? I've used VB in many of it's dialects for years now, sometimes as a hobbyist, sometimes for small business-related programs in a workgroup. As of the last 6 months I've been working on a big project, much bigger than I anticipated. Much of the sample source code out there is in C#. I don't have any burning desire to learn C#, but if there are things I'm missing out on that C# offers that VB doesn't (an opposite would be VB.NET offers XML Literals), then I'd like to know more about that feature. So in this case, it's often argued that C languages are case sensitive and that's good and VB is case insensitive and that is bad. I'd like to know A) how exactly is VB case insensitive because every single example in the code editor becomes case sensititive (meaning case gets corrected) whether I want it or not and B) is this compelling enough for me to consider moving to C# if VB.NET case is somehow limiting what I could do with code?

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• Sharp architecture; Accessing Validation Results

  - by nabeelfarid

  I am exploring Sharp Architecture and I would like to know how to access the validation results after calling Entity.IsValid(). I have two scenarios e.g. 1) If the entity.IsValid() return false, I would like to add the errors to ModelState.AddModelError() collection in my controller. E.g. in the Northwind sample we have an EmployeesController.Create() action when we do employee.IsValid(), how can I get access to the errors? public ActionResult Create(Employee employee) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid && employee.IsValid()) { employeeRepository.SaveOrUpdate(employee); } // .... } [I already know that when an Action method is called, modelbinder enforces validation rules(nhibernate validator attributes) as it parses incoming values and tries to assign them to the model object and if it can't parse the incoming values  then it register those as errors in modelstate for each model object property. But what if i have some custom validation. Thats why we do ModelState.IsValid first.] 2) In my test methods I would like to test the nhibernate validation rules as well. I can do entity.IsValid() but that only returns true/ false. I would like to Assert against the actual error not just true/ false. In my previous projects, I normally use a wrapper Service Layer for Repositories, and instead of calling Repositories method directly from controller, controllers call service layer methods which in turn call repository methods. In my Service Layer all my custom validation rules resides and Service Layer methods throws a custom exception with a NameValueCollection of errors which I can easily add to ModelState in my controller. This way I can also easily implement sophisticated business rules in my service layer as well. I kow sharp architecture also provides a Service Layer project. But what I am interested in and my next question is: How I can use NHibernate Vaidators to implement sophisticated custom business rules (not just null,empty, range etc.) and make Entity.IsValid() to verify those rules too ?

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• Trying to connect to QuickBooks via Web Connect in asp.net

  - by ile

  I don't know if any of you have had experience with QuickBooks integration, but I have to try :) I downloaded QuickBooks Free Simple Start, Quickbooks Web Connector and Web Service sample code ... I've read Web Connector manual and followed instructions but, when using authenticate function, I always get error "nvu", meaning that username or password are not valid. Following instructions, I added this QWC file to QBWC: <?xml version="1.0"?> <QBWCXML> <AppName>My application</AppName> <AppID></AppID> <AppURL>http://localhost/QBWC/Service1.asmx</AppURL> <AppDescription>My application web service</AppDescription> <AppSupport>http://localhost/QBWC/Service1.asmx?wsdl</AppSupport> <OwnerID>{87EDAAF8-637E-4203-867F-4BA79C2F8998}</OwnerID> <FileID>{CA1C3EB8-1B61-4747-A743-8D5B438B83AC}</FileID> <UserName>test</UserName> <QBType>QBFS</QBType> <Style>Document</Style> <AuthFlags>0xF</AuthFlags> </QBWCXML> After adding this this file to QBWC, I also added password "1234". After that, I opened my web service: http://localhost/WCWebService/WCWebService.asmx?op=authenticate and in field "strUserName" entered "test", in field "strPassword" entered: "1234". But "nvu" is always returned as a result. If someone is familiar with this I would appreciate for help!

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• NSCollectionView subclass doesn't call drawRect during drag session despite setNeedsDisplay

  - by Alain Vitry

  Greetings, I am puzzled as to how and when drawRect is supposed to be called in a NSCollectionView subclass. I implement drag and drop operation in order to move NSCollectionViewItems within the collection, and would like to draw a visual indication of where the drop would end. The subclass does not call drawRect during the drag session. (It does during scroll) Is this the intended operation ? Any hint on how to implement this behavior properly are welcome. A full xcode project of the following code is available at: http://babouk.ovh.org/dload/MyCollectionView.zip Best regards Code sample: @interface CollectionViewAppDelegate : NSObject <NSApplicationDelegate> { NSWindow *window; NSMutableArray *collectionContent; } /* properties declaration */ /* KVC compliance declarations */ @end @interface MyCollectionView : NSCollectionView @end @interface ItemModel { NSString *name; } @property (copy) NSString *name; @end @implementation MyCollectionView - (void)drawRect:(NSRect)rect { NSLog(@"DrawRect"); } - (void)mouseDragged:(NSEvent *)aEvent { NSPoint localPoint = [self convertPoint:[aEvent locationInWindow] fromView:nil]; [self dragImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"Move.png"] at:localPoint offset:NSZeroSize event:aEvent pasteboard:nil source:self slideBack:NO]; } - (BOOL)prepareForDragOperation:(id < NSDraggingInfo >)sender { return YES; } - (NSDragOperation)draggingEntered:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)sender { return NSDragOperationEvery; } - (NSDragOperation)draggingUpdated:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)sender { [self setNeedsDisplay:YES]; return NSDragOperationEvery; } - (NSDragOperation)draggingSourceOperationMaskForLocal:(BOOL)isLocal { return NSDragOperationEvery; } - (void)mouseDown:(NSEvent *)theEvent { } @end @implementation CollectionViewAppDelegate @synthesize window, collectionContent, collectionView; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { NSMutableArray *data = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; /* Fill in data */ [self setCollectionContent:data]; [data release]; } /* dealloc */ /* KVC implementation */ @end @implementation ItemModel @synthesize name; /* dealloc */ @end

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• Deploying software on compromised machines

  - by Martin

  I've been involved in a discussion about how to build internet voting software for a general election. We've reached a general consensus that there exist plenty of secure methods for two way authentication and communication. However, someone came along and pointed out that in a general election some of the machines being used are almost certainly going to be compromised. To quote: Let me be an evil electoral fraudster. I want to sample peoples votes as they vote and hope I get something scandalous. I hire a bot-net from some really shady dudes who control 1000 compromised machines in the UK just for election day. I capture the voting habits of 1000 voters on election day. I notice 5 of them have voted BNP. I look these users up and check out their machines, I look through their documents on their machine and find out their names and addresses. I find out one of them is the wife of a tory MP. I leak 'wife of tory mp is a fascist!' to some blogger I know. It hits the internet and goes viral, swings an election. That's a serious problem! So, what are the best techniques for running software where user interactions with the software must be kept secret, on a machine which is possibly compromised?

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• Forms authentication, ASP.NET MVC and WCF RESTful service

  - by J F

  One test webserver, with the following applications service.ganymedes.com:8008 - WCF RESTful service, basically the FormsAuth sample from WCF Starter Kit Preview 2 mvc.ganymedes.com:8008 - ASP.NET MVC 2.0 application web.config for service.ganymedes.com: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/login.aspx" timeout="2880" domain="ganymedes.com" name="GANYMEDES_COOKIE" path="/" /> </authentication> web.config for mvc.ganymedes.com: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" timeout="2880" domain="ganymedes.com" name="GANYMEDES_COOKIE" path="/" /> </authentication> Trying my darndest, a GET (or POST for that matter) via jQuery's $.ajax or getJson does not send my cookie (according to Firebug), so I get HTTP 302 returned from the WCF service: Request Headers Host service.ganymedes.com:8008 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.8) Gecko/20100202 Firefox/3.5.8 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Referer http://mvc.ganymedes.com:8008/Test Origin http://mvc.ganymedes.com:8008 It's sent when mucking about on the MVC site though: Request Headers Host mvc.ganymedes.com:8008 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.8) Gecko/20100202 Firefox/3.5.8 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Referer http://mvc.ganymedes.com:8008/Test Cookie GANYMEDES_COOKIE=0106A4A666C8C615FBFA9811E9A6C5219C277D625C04E54122D881A601CD0E00C10AF481CB21FAED544FAF4E9B50C59CDE2385644BBF01DDD4F211FE7EE8FAC2; GANYMEDES_COOKIE=D6569887B7C5B67EFE09079DD59A07A98311D7879817C382D79947AE62B5508008C2B2D2112DCFCE5B8D4C61D45A109E61BBA637FD30315C2D8353E8DDFD4309 I also put the exact same settings in both applications' web.config files (self-generated validationKey and decryptionKey).

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• Problem creating simple "windows script components" on Windows 7.

  - by Bigtoe

  Hi folks, I'm trying to get a Windows Script Component working on and x64 development machine. Works fine on x32 bit. But can't seem to get it running, I have the same problem with both JScript and VBScript. Here's the most simple wsc component possible. All that it does it pop up "Hello" in a message box. If you save the snippit below to a file called test_lib.wsc, you'll then be able to right click and register it. It's now available as a COM Component. <?xml version="1.0"?> <component> <?component error="true" debug="true"?> <registration description="Test Script Library" progid="TestScript.Lib" version="1.00" classid="{314042ea-1c42-4865-956f-08d56d1f00a8}" > </registration> <public> <method name="Hello"> </method> </public> <script language="VBScript"> <![CDATA[ Option Explicit Function Hello() MsgBox("Hello.") End Function ]]> </script> </component> Next create the following sample vb-script and save it to a file called test.vbs dim o set o = createobject("TestScript.Lib") o.hello() When I run the test.vbs with cscript or wscript I always get the following. "C:\test.vbs(3, 1) Microsoft VBScript runtime error: ActiveX component can't create object: 'TestScript.Lib'" This works perfectly fine on a 32 bit XP. Anyone got any ideas about what could be wrong? Thanks a bunch Noel.

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• How to write an asmx web service without using app_code directory?

  - by JL

  Excuse the title, but it's best I just explain the problem. I have 2 projects in my solution A Class Library A Web Application, which consists of a web service (asmx). the web service has code sitting in the app_code folder, with a file [webservicename].cs Inside the webservice code behind class, I have a web method here is a sample example (its simplified): [WebMethod] public EnumTaskExportState ProcessTask() { var tm = new UploadTaskManager(); return tm.ProcessTask(); } Now at design time, in visual studio (2010 or 2008), when I right click on UploadTaskMananger, and then select "Go to definition". I get taken to AppData\Temp[some folder structure]...etc.... and it displays the public class definition. Instead I would like to have complete integration, so that I get taken directly to the actual class in the class library project. My guess is, this is happening because I am using the app_code route, and not a compiled file for the web service class. But I don't know any other way to do this. How can I fix this? Possibly do away with the need for the app_code directory?

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• LoginView inside FormView control is not databinding on PostBack

  - by subkamran

  I have a fairly simple form: <asp:FormView> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:LoginView> <RoleGroups> <asp:RoleGroup roles="Blah"> <ContentTemplate> <!-- Databound Controls using Bind/Eval --> </ContentTemplate> </asp:RoleGroup> </RoleGroups> </asp:LoginView> <!-- Databound Controls --> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:LinqDataSource OnUpdating="MyDataSource_Updating" /> I handle my LinqDataSource OnUpdating event and do some work handling some M:N fields. That all works. However, once the update is finished (and I call e.Cancel = true), the LoginView control does not databind its children... so they are all blank. The FormView's viewstate is still fine, as all the rest of the controls outside of the LoginView appear fine. I even handle the FormView_DataBound event and a Trace shows that the FormView is being databound on postback. Why then is the LoginView not keeping its ViewState/being databound? Here's a sample code snippet showing the flow: protected void MyDataSource_Updating(object s, LinqDataSourceUpdateEventArgs e) { try { Controller.DoSomething(newData); // attempts to databind again here fail // frmView.DataBind(); // MyDataSource.DataBind(); // LoginView.DataBind(); } catch { // blah } finally { e.Cancel = true; } }

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• WPF - Setting usercontrol width using triggers and mouseenter event

  - by BigBadJock

  I have a wrap panel full of usercontrols. When I hover the mouse over a usercontrol I want it to expand to show more details. Some stripped down sample code: <UserControl x:Class="WPFTestBed.UserControl1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <UserControl.Resources> </UserControl.Resources> <UserControl.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Mouse.MouseEnter"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <Setter TargetName="WPFTestBed.UserControl1" Property="Control.Width" Value="200"/> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </UserControl.Triggers> <Grid Height="95" Width="123"> <Button Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="17,30,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75">Button</Button> </Grid> </UserControl> I would appreciate it if someone could point out where I'm going wrong, and set me down the correct path. Ideally, I want the usercontrol to delay for x seconds when there is a mouseover, before expanding and showing the extra details.

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• Can someone please explain this lazy evaluation code?

  - by Tejs

  So, this question was just asked on SO: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2740001/how-to-handle-an-infinite-ienumerable My sample code: public static void Main(string[] args) { foreach (var item in Numbers().Take(10)) Console.WriteLine(item); Console.ReadKey(); } public static IEnumerable<int> Numbers() { int x = 0; while (true) yield return x++; } Can someone please explain why this is lazy evaluated? I've looked up this code in Reflector, and I'm more confused than when I began. Reflector outputs: public static IEnumerable<int> Numbers() { return new <Numbers>d__0(-2); } For the numbers method, and looks to have generated a new type for that expression: [DebuggerHidden] public <Numbers>d__0(int <>1__state) { this.<>1__state = <>1__state; this.<>l__initialThreadId = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; } This makes no sense to me. I would have assumed it was an infinite loop until I put that code together and executed it myself.

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• How to remove space between chart area and plot area?

  - by Gopalakrishnan Subramani

  I am using chartingToolKit:Chart control. I want to remove the white space appear in between the chart and plot area. Attached the WPF sample and image of area to be removed. <Window x:Class="WpfApplication2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" xmlns:chartingToolkit="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls.DataVisualization.Charting;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.DataVisualization.Toolkit"> <Grid> <chartingToolkit:Chart x:Name="chart" Width="500" Height="300" Margin="0, 0, 0, 0" LegendStyle="{StaticResource LegendStyle}" > <chartingToolkit:AreaSeries ItemsSource="{Binding}" DependentValuePath="Value" IndependentValuePath="Key" Background="Red" > </chartingToolkit:AreaSeries> <chartingToolkit:Chart.Axes> <chartingToolkit:LinearAxis Orientation="X" ShowGridLines="False" Visibility="Hidden"> </chartingToolkit:LinearAxis> <chartingToolkit:LinearAxis Orientation="Y" ShowGridLines="False" Visibility="Hidden"/> </chartingToolkit:Chart.Axes> </chartingToolkit:Chart> </Grid> The area marked in red arrow must be removed

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• JSF: How to get the selected item from selectOneMenu if its rendering is dynamic?

  - by Dzmitry Zhaleznichenka

  At my view I have two menus that I want to make dependent, namely, if first menu holds values "render second menu" and "don't render second menu", I want second menu to be rendered only if user selects "render second menu" option in the first menu. After second menu renders at the same page as the first one, user has to select current item from it, fill another fields and submit the form to store values in database. Both the lists of options are static, they are obtained from the database once and stay the same. My problem is I always get null as a value of the selected item from second menu. How to get a proper value? The sample code of view that holds problematic elements is: <h:selectOneMenu id="renderSecond" value="#{Bean.renderSecondValue}" valueChangeListener="#{Bean.updateDependentMenus}" immediate="true" onchange="this.form.submit();" > <f:selectItems value="#{Bean.typesOfRendering}" /> </h:selectOneMenu><br /> <h:selectOneMenu id="iWillReturnYouZeroAnyway" value="#{Bean.currentItem}" rendered="#{Bean.rendered}" > <f:selectItems value="#{Bean.items}" /> </h:selectOneMenu><br /> <h:commandButton action="#{Bean.store}" value="#Store" /> However, if I remove "rendered" attribute from the second menu, everything works properly, except for displaying the menu for all the time that I try to prevent, so I suggest the problem is in behavior of dynamic rendering. The initial value of isRendered is false because the default item in first menu is "don't render second menu". When I change value in first menu and update isRendered with valueChangeListener, the second menu displays but it doesn't initialize currentItem while submitting. Some code from my backing bean is below: public void updateDependentMenus(ValueChangeEvent value) { String newValue = (String) value.getNewValue(); if ("render second menu" == newValue){ isRendered = true; } else { isRendered = false; } } public String store(){ System.out.println(currentItem); return "stored"; }

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• Diff between <head id="Head1" runat="server"> and <asp:ContentPlaceHolder runat="server" ID="HeadCon

  - by justSteve

  Looking for an better understanding of how an mvc project should define javascript and css includes. I'm working with sample code where includes are defined like: <head id="Head1" runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" />Affiliate Checkout</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <meta http-equiv="pragma" content="no-cache"> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"></script> . . . <asp:ContentPlaceHolder runat="server" ID="HeadContent"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </head> I'm reading that to be that _all pages looking at this MasterPage will get jquery and jqueryUI and, additionally, each page will have the opportunity to add head elements thankx to the content placeholder HeadContent tag. The specific problem i'm troubleshooting is an instance where my rendered page is not including the 'prama no-cache' tag - as you see, it's defined in the upper level header section. Other .js and .css elements are making it into the rendered page so it very confusing to see that the no-cache tag isn't. When execute a 'View Generated Source' - the 'charset' is present the 'no-cache' is not.

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• apache: cgi links lead to a "you have chosen to open foo.cgi", although scriptalias is set

  - by Xiong Chiamiov

  Following this guide on CentOS 5.2, just getting nagios set up for the first time. The main page shows up just fine, but when I try to view any of the pages that should be generated by a cgi process, firefox prompts me to save the .cgi instead, so apache's obviously not understanding that it needs to run the cgi and get back some html from it. The odd thing is, though, that, as far as I can tell, apache should be running these files as cgi. nagios.conf: # SAMPLE CONFIG SNIPPETS FOR APACHE WEB SERVER # Last Modified: 11-26-2005 # # This file contains examples of entries that need # to be incorporated into your Apache web server # configuration file. Customize the paths, etc. as # needed to fit your system. ScriptAlias /nagios/cgi-bin/ "/usr/lib/nagios/cgi/" # SSLRequireSSL Options +ExecCGI AddHandler cgi-script .cgi AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all # Order deny,allow # Deny from all # Allow from 127.0.0.1 AuthName "Nagios Access" AuthType Basic AuthUserFile /etc/nagios/htpasswd.users Require valid-user Alias /nagios "/usr/share/nagios/" # SSLRequireSSL DirectoryIndex index.php Options None AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all # Order deny,allow # Deny from all # Allow from 127.0.0.1 AuthName "Nagios Access" AuthType Basic AuthUserFile /etc/nagios/htpasswd.users Require valid-use Either the ScriptAlias directive or ExecCGI option should be triggering this, but neither of them seems to have any effect. This config file is being parsed by apache, because if I move it out of conf.d, /nagios gives a 404. The .cgi files are indeed in the /nagios/cgi-bin/ directory, so I didn't specify the incorrect directory. Searching seemed to only provide people who had difficulty with permissions, which is not the issue here. This seems to me to be a pretty basic thing, but even with the excellent apache documentation, I'm at a bit of a loss (been using cherokee too much lately :) ).

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• Error with ReportViewer in ASP.NET: "The server is not a compatible version" ?

  - by fritz

  I deployed some SSRS reports created in Visual Studio 2008 to localhost:8080/ReportServer. ( Using VS 2008 .NET , Version 9.0.21022.8, SQL Server 2008 and XP Prof.) Calling them in the Webbrowser works fine, but now I'm trying to use them in an ASP.NET app with ReportViewer in VS 2008 and using local ASP.NET Development Server. Excecuting the following Code: ReportViewer1.ProcessingMode = ProcessingMode.Remote; IReportServerCredentials irsc = new CustomReportCredentials("xxx", "xxx", "xxx"); ReportViewer1.ServerReport.ReportServerCredentials = irsc; ReportViewer1.ServerReport.ReportServerUrl = new Uri("http://localhost:8080/ReportServer/ReportService2005.asmx?wsdl"); ReportViewer1.ServerReport.ReportPath = @"/AdventureWorks Sample Reports/Sales Order Detail"; ReportViewer1.ServerReport.Refresh(); results in the following exception: "# The version of the report server web service definition (WSDL) is either not valid or unrecognized. The server is not a compatible version. * System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header 'SOAPAction': http://schemas.microsoft.com/sqlserver/2005/06/30/reporting/reportingservices/LoadReport..." The report file .rdl contains the namespace: xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sqlserver/reporting/2008/01/reportdefinition" and "http://localhost:8080/ReportServer?&rs%3aCommand=ListChildren" in the Webbrowser shows the report directories and "Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services, Version 10.0.1600.22" The file "ReportService2005.wsdl" contains a lot of "soapAction="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sqlserver/2005/06/30/reporting/reportingservices/..." attributes. So it sounds like a 2005 / 2008 incompability ? (but as mentioned: i'm using only 2008 products) Any ideas ?

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• MSMQ first Message.Body in queue is OK, all following Message.Body in queue are empty

  - by Andrew A

  I send a handful of identical (except for Id#, obviously) messages to an MSMQ queue on my local machine. The body of the messages is a serialized XElement object. When I try to process the first message in the queue, I am able to successfully de-serialize the Message.Body object and save it to file. However, when trying to process the next (or any subsequent) message, the Message.Body is absent, and an exception is thrown. I have verified the Message ID's are correct for the message attempting to be processed. The XML being serialized is properly formed. Any ideas? I am basing my code on the Microsoft MSMQ Book order sample found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms180970%28VS.80%29.aspx // Create Envelope XML object XElement envelope = new XElement(env + "Envelope", new XAttribute(XNamespace.Xmlns + "env", env.NamespaceName) <snip> //Send envelope as message body MessageQueue myQueue = new MessageQueue(String.Format(@"FORMATNAME:DIRECT=OS:localhost\private$\mqsample")); myQueue.DefaultPropertiesToSend.Recoverable = true; // Prepare message Message myMessage = new Message(); myMessage.ResponseQueue = new MessageQueue(String.Format(System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture, @"FORMATNAME:DIRECT=TCP:192.168.1.217\private$\mqdemoAck")); myMessage.Body = envelope; // Send the message into the queue. myQueue.Send(myMessage,"message label"); //Retrieve messages from queue LabelIdMapping labelID = (LabelIdMapping)mqlistBox3.SelectedItem; System.Messaging.Message message = mqOrderQueue.ReceiveById(labelID.Id); The Message.Body value I see on the 1st retrieve is as expected: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <string>Some String</string> However, the 2nd and subsequent retrieve operations Message.Body is: "Cannot deserialize the message passed as an argument. Cannot recognize the serialization format." How does this work fine the first time but not after that? I have tried message.Dispose() after retrieving it but it did not help. Thank you very much for any help on this!

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• How to set an EditText on top of a ListView ?

  - by Spredzy

  Hi everyone, I am trying to do an autocomplete version my way (logic, layout, etc...) , so I don't want to use the AutoCompleteTextView. My question is how to set an EditText on top of a ListView in a class inheriting from a ListAcvitivy. I tried two kinds of layout, none of them worked. First one : <EditText android:id="@+id/autocomplete_server" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginLeft="5dp" android:completionThreshold="1" android:singleLine="true"/> <ListView android:id="@id/android:list" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="#000000" android:layout_weight="1" android:drawSelectorOnTop="false"/> <TextView android:id="@id/android:empty" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="#FF0000" android:text="No data"/> This one only shows me the EditText but does not display the list Second one : <LinearLayout android:id="@id/android:list" android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:padding="5dp"> <EditText android:id="@+id/autocomplete_server" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginLeft="5dp" android:completionThreshold="1" android:singleLine="true"/> <ListView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="#000000" android:layout_weight="1" android:drawSelectorOnTop="false"/> </LinearLayout> This sample gives me a : java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start activity ComponentInfo{com.eip.core/com.eip.core.Search}: java.lang.ClassCastException: android.widget.LinearLayout Does anyone have any idea bout how to implement an EditText on top of a listView ?

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