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  • How to reload a tableView i.e call the viewDidLoad method if a condition is met

    - by Kquane Ingram
    The problem is this i need a way to basically erase all the entry data a user placed into my arrays if a condition is met. Im new to Objective-C and iOS programming, but i believed the solution might be in calling the viewDidLoad method, thus it would virtually refresh the applications with the values of the array reset to default. If there is any other logical way of doing this i would appreciate the help. In short i need to refresh the arrays as they were when the application first launched and the user did not select anything. This is the part where i need it to refresh. if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i]==nil) { break; // if this condition is met the program must begin anew. Edit* I need to recall the - (void)viewDidLoad method here is more of the code. -(IBAction)button:(id)sender{ int i = 0; int sum = 0; int gradeEarned; int creditHours = 3; for ( i=0;i<8 ; i++) { if ([[points objectAtIndex:i] tag]==GradeA.intValue) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeA]; } if ([[points objectAtIndex:i]tag]==GradeB.intValue) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeB]; } if ([[points objectAtIndex:i]tag]==GradeC.intValue){ [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeC]; } if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i]==nil) { break; // if this condition is met the program must restart. } } while ( i<[gradeRecieved count]) { if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i] == GradeA ) { [finArray replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeA]; i++; continue; } if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i] == GradeB ) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeB]; i++; continue; } if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i] == GradeC ) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeC]; i++; continue; } }

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  • Automaticaly update ActiveRecord object

    - by Aleksandr Koss
    I have same models: class Father < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :children end class Child < ActiveRecord::Base  belongs_to :father end Then do something like that: $ script/console test Loading test environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> @f1 = Father.create :test => "Father" => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2 = Father.find :first => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f1 == @f2 => true >> @f1.children => [] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f1.children.create :test => "Child1" => #<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15"> >> @f1.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f2.reload => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] As you see rails cache @f2 object. To get actual data we should call reload. There is a way to automatically reload @f2 after children update without calling method "reload"?

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  • C++ operator lookup rules / Koenig lookup

    - by John Bartholomew
    While writing a test suite, I needed to provide an implementation of operator<<(std::ostream&... for Boost unit test to use. This worked: namespace theseus { namespace core { std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } }} This didn't: std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const theseus::core::PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } Apparently, the second wasn't included in the candidate matches when g++ tried to resolve the use of the operator. Why (what rule causes this)? The code calling operator<< is deep within the Boost unit test framework, but here's the test code: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE(core_image) BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_output) { using namespace theseus::core; BOOST_TEST_MESSAGE(PixelRGB(5,5,5)); // only compiles with operator<< definition inside theseus::core std::cout << PixelRGB(5,5,5) << "\n"; // works with either definition BOOST_CHECK(true); // prevent no-assertion error } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE_END() For reference, I'm using g++ 4.4 (though for the moment I'm assuming this behaviour is standards-conformant).

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  • Is there a fundamental difference between malloc and HeapAlloc (aside from the portability)?

    - by Lambert
    Hi, I'm having code that, for various reasons, I'm trying to port from the C runtime to one that uses the Windows Heap API. I've encountered a problem: If I redirect the malloc/calloc/realloc/free calls to HeapAlloc/HeapReAlloc/HeapFree (with GetProcessHeap for the handle), the memory seems to be allocated correctly (no bad pointer returned, and no exceptions thrown), but the library I'm porting says "failed to allocate memory" for some reason. I've tried this both with the Microsoft CRT (which uses the Heap API underneath) and with another company's run-time library (which uses the Global Memory API underneath); the malloc for both of those works well with the library, but for some reason, using the Heap API directly doesn't work. I've checked that the allocations aren't too big (= 0x7FFF8 bytes), and they're not. The only problem I can think of is memory alignment; is that the case? Or other than that, is there a fundamental difference between the Heap API and the CRT memory API that I'm not aware of? If so, what is it? And if not, then why does the static Microsoft CRT (included with Visual Studio) take some extra steps in malloc/calloc before calling HeapAlloc? I'm suspecting there's a difference but I can't think of what it might be. Thank you!

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • Enumerating computers in NT4 domain using WNetEnumResourceW (C++) or DirectoryEntry (C#)

    - by Kevin Davis
    I'm trying to enumerate computers in NT4 domains (not Active Directory) and support Unicode NetBIOS names. According to MSDN, WNetEnumResourceW is the Unicode counterpart of WNetEnumResource which to me would imply that using this would do the trick. However, I have not been able to get Unicode NetBIOS names properly using WNetEnumResourceW. I've also tried the C# rough equivalent DirectoryEntry using the WinNT: provider with no luck on Unicode names either. If I use DirectoryEntry on Active Directory (using the LDAP: provider) I do get Unicode names back. I noticed that during some debugging my code using DirectoryEntry and the WinNT: provider, the exceptions I saw were of type System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException which tends to make me believe that this is just calling WNetEnumResourceW via COM. This web page implies that for some Net APIs the MS documentation is incomplete and possibly inaccurate which further confuses things. Additionally I've found that using the C# method which certainly results in cleaner, more understandable code also yields incomplete results in enumerating computers in domains\workgroups. Does anyone have any insight on this? Is it possible that computer acting as the WINS server is mangling the name? How would I determine this? Thanks

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  • Dynamically invoke web service at runtime

    - by Ulrik Rasmussen
    So, our application needs support for dynamically calling web services which are unknown at compile time. The user should therefore be able to specify a URL to a WSDL, and specify some data bindings for the request and reply parameters. When Googling for answers, it seems like the way to do this is by actually compiling a web service proxy class at runtime, loading it, and invoking the methods using reflection. I think this seems like a rather clunky approach, given that I don't really need a strongly typed set of classes when I'm going to cast my data dynamically anyway. Dynamically compiling code for doing something that simple also just seems like The Wrong Way To Do It. Restricting ourself to the SOAP protocol, is there any library for C# that implements this protocol for dynamic use? I can imagine that it would be possible to generate runtime key/value data structures from the WSDL, which could be used to specify the request messages, as well as reading the replies. The library should then be able to send well-formed SOAP messages to the server, and parse the replies, without the programmer having to generate the XML manually (at least not the headers and other plumbing). I can't seem to find any library that actually does this. Is what I want to do really that esoteric, or have I just searched the wrong places? Thanks, Ulrik

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  • problems with async jquery and loops

    - by Seth Vargo
    I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

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  • Problem with jquery #find on partial postback

    - by anonymous
    I have a third party component. It is a calendar control. I have a clientside event on it which fires javascript to show a popup menu. I do everything client side so I can use MVC. dd function MouseDown(oDayView, oEvent, element) { try { e = oEvent.event; var rightClick = (e.button == 2); if (rightClick) { var menu = $find("2_menuSharedCalPopUp"); menu.showAt(200, 200, e); } } catch (err) { alert("MouseDown() err: " + err.description); } } The javascript fires perfectly withe $find intially. I have another clientside method which updates the calendar via a partial postback. Once I have done this all subsequent MouseDowns( rightclicks) which use the $find statment error with 'null'. All similar problems people have out there seem to be around calling javascript after a postback - with solutions being re-registering an event using PageRequestManager or registering a clientside function on the server - et cetera. However, the event is firing, and the javascript working - it's the reference in the DOM that seems an issue. Any ideas?

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  • Detecting an online poker cheat

    - by Tom Gullen
    It recently emerged on a large poker site that some players were possibly able to see all opponents cards as they played through exploiting a security vulnerability that was discovered. A naïve cheater would win at an incredibly fast rate, and these cheats are caught very quickly usually, and if not caught quickly they are easy to detect through a quick scan through their hand histories. The more difficult problem occurs when the cheater exhibits intelligence, bluffing in spots they are bound to be called in, calling river bets with the worst hands, the basic premise is that they lose pots on purpose to disguise their ability to see other players cards, and they win at a reasonably realistic rate. Given: A data set of millions of verified and complete information hand histories Theoretical unlimited computer power Assume the game No Limit Hold'em, although suggestions on Omaha or limit poker may be beneficial How could we reasonably accurately classify these cheaters? The original 2+2 thread appeals for ideas, and I thought that the SO community might have some useful suggestions. It's an interesting problem also because it is current, and has real application in bettering the world if someone finds a creative solution, as there is a good chance genuine players will have funds refunded to them when identified cheaters are discovered.

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  • Twitter API Rate Limit - Overcoming on an unauthenticated JSON Get with Objective C?

    - by Cian
    I see the rate limit is 150/hr per IP. This'd be fine, but my application is on a mobile phone network (with shared IP addresses). I'd like to query twitter trends, e.g. GET /trends/1/json. This doesn't require authorization, however what if the user first authorized with my application using OAuth, then hit the JSON API? The request is built as follows: - (void) queryTrends:(NSString *) WOEID { NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://api.twitter.com/1/trends/%@.json", WOEID]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self startImmediately:YES]; if (theConnection) { // Create the NSMutableData to hold the received data. theData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed in Query Trends"); } //NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; } I have no idea how I'd build this request as an authenticated one however, and haven't seen any examples to this effect online. I've read through the twitter OAuth documentation, but I'm still puzzled as to how it should work. I've experimented with OAuth using Ben Gottlieb's prebuild library, and calling this in my first viewDidLoad: OAuthViewController *oAuthVC = [[OAuthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"OAuthTwitterDemoViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; // [self setViewController:aViewController]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:oAuthVC animated:YES]; This should store all the keys required in the app's preferences, I just need to know how to build the GET request after authorizing! Maybe this just isn't possible? Maybe I'll have to proxy the requests through a server side application? Any insight would be appreciated!

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  • Unsort: remembering a permutation and undoing it.

    - by dreeves
    Suppose I have a function f that takes a vector v and returns a new vector with the elements transformed in some way. It does that by calling function g that assumes the vector is sorted. So I want f to be defined like so: f[v_] := Module[{s, r}, s = Sort[v]; (* remember the permutation applied in order to sort v *) r = g[s]; Unsort[r] (* apply the inverse of that permutation *) ] What's the best way to do the "Unsort"? Or could we get really fancy and have this somehow work: answer = Unsort[g[Sort[v]]]; ADDED: Let's make this concrete with a toy example. Suppose we want a function f that takes a vector and transforms it by adding to each element the next smallest element, if any. That's easy to write if we assume the vector is sorted, so let's write a helper function g that makes that assumption: g[v_] := v + Prepend[Most@v, 0] Now for the function we really want, f, that works whether or not v is sorted: f[v_] := (* remember the order; sort it; call g on it; put it back in the original order; return it *)

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  • datareader.close is called in if - else branching. How to validate datareader is actually closed usi

    - by tanmay
    Hi, I have written couple of custom rules in for fxcop 1.36. I have written a code to find weather opened datareader is closed or not. But it does not check which datareader object is calling the close() method so I can't be sure if all opened datareader objs are closed!! 2nd: if I am using data reader in IF else like if 1=2 dr = cmd.executeReader(); else dr = cmd2.execureReader(); end if in this case it will search for 2 datareader objects to be closed.. I am putting my code for more clarity. public override ProblemCollection Check(Member member) { Method method = member as Method; int countCatch =0; int countErrLog = 0; Instruction objInstr = null; if (method != null) { for (int i = 0; i < method.Instructions.Count; i++) { objInstr = method.Instructions[i]; if (objInstr.Value != null) { if (objInstr.Value.ToString().Contains("System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader")) { countCatch += 1; } if (countCatch>0) { if (objInstr.Value.ToString().Contains("System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.Close")) { countErrLog += 1; } } } } } if (countErrLog!=countCatch) { Resolution resolu = GetResolution(new string[] { method.ToString() }); Problems.Add(new Problem(resolu)); } return Problems; Thanks and regards, Tanmay.

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  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

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  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • NullPointerException with Servlet

    - by RonaDona
    I am calling a Servlet using its URL address. This is the URL I am typing http://localhost:7001/ryan/olympics?action=selectCatalog&id=1 This is the Servlet's URL for sure; if I change the address I get page not found This is the code for the Servlet. public class Servlet extends javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet implements javax.servlet.Servlet { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; public Servlet() { super(); } public void init(ServletConfig config) throws ServletException { System.out.println("*** initializing controller servlet."); super.init(config); } protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { String action = request.getParameter("action"); if (action.equals("selectCatalog")) { String categoryId = request.getParameter("id"); ProductModelDAO dao4 = new ProductModelDAOImpl("jpac"); if (categoryId != null && !categoryId.trim().equals("")) { CategoryDAO dao1 = new CategoryDAOImpl("jpac"); try { Category category = dao1.getCategoryName(categoryId); request.setAttribute("category", category); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } try { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") List<Product> products = dao4 .getProductsByCategory(categoryId); request.setAttribute("products", products); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } url = "SelectCatalog.jsp"; RequestDispatcher requestDispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(url); requestDispatcher.forward(request, response); I get the NullPointerException pointing to the RequestDispatcher's line. Any help?

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  • Socket.Recieve Failing When Multithreaded

    - by Qua
    The following piece of code runs fine when parallelized to 4-5 threads, but starts to fail as the number of threads increase somewhere beyond 10 concurrentthreads int totalRecieved = 0; int recieved; StringBuilder contentSB = new StringBuilder(4000); while ((recieved = socket.Receive(buffer, SocketFlags.None)) > 0) { contentSB.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer, 0, recieved)); totalRecieved += recieved; } The Recieve method returns with zero bytes read, and if I continue calling the recieve method then I eventually get a 'An established connection was aborted by the software in your host machine'-exception. So I'm assuming that the host actually sent data and then closed the connection, but for some reason I never recieved it. I'm curious as to why this problem arises when there are a lot of threads. I'm thinking it must have something to do with the fact that each thread doesn't get as much execution time and therefore there are some idle time for the threads which causes this error. Just can't figure out why idle time would cause the socket not to recieve any data.

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  • Graceful DOS Command Error-Handling

    - by Captain Obvious
    PHP 5.2.13 on Windows 2003 I am using the DOS Start /B command to launch a background application using the PHP popen() function: popen("start /B {$_SERVER['HOMEPATH']}/{$app}.exe > {$_SERVER['HOMEPATH']}/bg_output.log 2>&1 & echo $!", 'r'); The popen() function launches a cmd.exe process that runs the specified command; however, if the command fails (e.g. the {$app}.exe doesn't exist or is locked in the above example), the cmd.exe process never returns, and PHP hangs indefinitely as a result. Calling the failing DOS command directly using the Command Prompt results in an Error prompt that requires clicking the OK button. I assume this error confirmation requirement is what's preventing the cmd.exe process from returning to PHP both from the Command Prompt (using both CGI and CLI) and the web (using Apache 2.0 handler w/Apache 2.2). Is there a way to write the DOS command or configure the server or cmd.exe app itself to return the DOS error to the originating call rather than waiting for confirmation?

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  • Python: Convert format string to regular expression

    - by miracle2k
    The users of my app can configure the layout of certain files via a format string. For example, the config value the user specifies might be: layout = '%(group)s/foo-%(locale)s/file.txt' I now need to find all such files that already exist. This seems easy enough using the glob module: glob_pattern = layout % {'group': '*', 'locale': '*'} glob.glob(glob_pattern) However, now comes the hard part: Given the list of glob results, I need to get all those filename-parts that matched a given placeholder, for example all the different "locale" values. I thought I would generate a regular expression for the format string that I could then match against the list of glob results (or then possibly skipping glob and doing all the matching myself). But I can't find a nice way to create the regex with both the proper group captures, and escaping the rest of the input. For example, this might give me a regex that matches the locales: regex = layout % {'group': '.*', 'locale': (.*)} But to be sure the regex is valid, I need to pass it through re.escape(), which then also escapes the regex syntax I have just inserted. Calling re.escape() first ruins the format string. I know there's fnmatch.translate(), which would even give me a regex - but not one that returns the proper groups. Is there a good way to do this, without a hack like replacing the placeholders with a regex-safe unique value etc.? Is there possibly some way (a third party library perhaps?) that allows dissecting a format string in a more flexible way, for example splitting the string at the placeholder locations?

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  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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  • Saving tree-structures in Databases

    - by Nina Null
    Hello everyone. I use Hibernate/Spring and a MySQL Database for my data management. Currently I display a tree-structure in a JTable. A tree can have several branches, in turn a branch can have several branches (up to nine levels) again, or having leaves. Lately I have performanceproblemes, as soon as I want to create new branches on deeper levels. At this time a branch has a foreign key to its parent. The domainobject has access to its parent by calling getParent(), which returns the parent-branch. The deeper the level, the longer it takes to create a new branch. Microbenchmark results for creating a new branch are like: Level 1: 32 ms. Level 3: 80 ms. Level 9: 232 ms. Obviously the level (which means the number of parents) is responsible for this. So I wanted to ask, if there are any appendages to work around this kind of problem. I don’t understand why Hibernate needs to know about the whole object tree (all parents until the root) while creating a new branch. But as far as I know this can be the only reason for the delay while creating a new branch, because a branch doesn’t have any other relations to any other objects. I would be very thankful for any workarounds or suggestions. greets, jambusa

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  • Is there any way to filter certain things in pages served by IIS?

    - by Ruslan
    Hello, This is my first time posting here so please keep that in mind... I'll try to be short and get right to defining the problem. We have an ASP.NET 2 application (eCommerce package) running on IIS (Windows Server 2003). The main site's page(s) are using plain HTTP (no SSL), but the whole checkout process and the shopping cart page is using SSL (HTTPS). Now, the problem is that the site's header is located in a template file, and inside it it has a plain HTML 'img' tag calling an image with the "http://" portion hard-coded into it... This header appears on absolutely every page (including the https pages), and due to its insecure image tag, a warning box pops up in IE on every stage of the checkout process... Now, the problem: The live application cannot be touched in any way (no changes can be made to the template (so simply changing "http://" to "//" is not an option), IIS cannot be restarted, and the website/app pool cannot be restarted). Is there any way in the world (maybe plugin for IIS or a setting somewhere) that I can filter the pages right before they are served to replace the '<img src="http://example.com/image.jpg">' with '<img src="//example.com/image.jpg">' in the final HTML? Possibly via a regular expression or something? Thanks to everybody in advance.

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  • How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

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  • Jquery cant get facebox working inside ajax call

    - by John
    From my main page I call an ajax file via jquery, in that ajax file is some additional jquery code. Original link looks like this: <a href="/page1.php" class="guest-action notify-function"><img src="/icon1.png"></a> Then the code: $(document).ready(function(){ $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); $('.guest-action').click( function() { $.get( $(this).attr('href'), function(responseText) { $.jGrowl(responseText); }); return false; }); $('.notify-function').click( function() { $(this).find('img').attr('src','/icon2.png'); $(this).attr('href','/page2.php'); $(this).removeClass('guest-action').removeClass('notify-function').attr('rel','facebox'); }); }); So basically after notify-function is clicked I am changing the icon and the url of the link, I then am removing the classes so that the click wont be ran again and add rel="facebox" to the link so that the facebox window will pop up if they try to click the new icon2.png that shows up. The problem is after I click the initial icon everything works just fine except when I try to click the new icon2.png it still executes the jgrowl code from the guest-action. But when I view the source it shows this: <a href="/page2.php" rel="facebox" class=""><img src="/icon2.png"></a> So it seemed that should work right? What am I doing wrong? I tried adding the facebox code to the main page that is calling the ajax file as well and still same issue.

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