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  • PHP with Javascript: Email confirmation script not working

    - by Josh K
    Hey Heres what i got: echo "<script type=\"text/javascript\"> function finishForm() { var answer = confirm('Are you sure these are the teams you want to enter with?'); if (answer) { if(document.getElementByID(emailconfirm).value == ".$_SESSION[Email].") { form.action=\"esubmit.php\"; form.submit(); } else { alert('E-mail address do not match'); return false; } } } function restartForm() { var answer = confirm('Are you sure you want to start over?'); if (answer) { form.action=\"e1.php\"; form.submit(); } } </script>"; I have a regular button calling this function. emailconfirm is a text input. I want to confirm that they have chosen the right teams, then check if the email in the session and the email confirmation text match. If they do match Then i want to submit the form. If they dont match, I want to alert the user they dont match, and just return to page so user can check emails and then resubmit. This script is in my header. EDIT: Haha sorry i submitted one before and it didnt go through, forgot to add my problem!! When you click the button it comes up with the confirmation, clicking either yes or no doesnt do anything. The alert doesnt pop up if they dont match and if they do match it doesnt submit. Also it might be good to note I had it without the email confirmation if statement and it worked fine (going to the submit page)

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  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

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  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

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  • How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

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  • javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

    - by agnieszka
    I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

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  • Why is JavaMail Transport.send() a static method?

    - by skiphoppy
    I'm revising code I did not write that uses JavaMail, and having a little trouble understanding why the JavaMail API is designed the way it is. I have the feeling that if I understood, I could be doing a better job. We call: transport = session.getTransport("smtp"); transport.connect(hostName, port, user, password); So why is Eclipse warning me that this: transport.send(message, message.getAllRecipients()); is a call to a static method? Why am I getting a Transport object and providing settings that are specific to it if I can't use that object to send the message? How does the Transport class even know what server and other settings to use to send the message? It's working fine, which is hard to believe. What if I had instantiated Transport objects for two different servers; how would it know which one to use? In the course of writing this question, I've discovered that I should really be calling: transport.sendMessage(message, message.getAllRecipients()); So what is the purpose of the static Transport.send() method? Is this just poor design, or is there a reason it is this way?

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  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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  • Twitter API Rate Limit - Overcoming on an unauthenticated JSON Get with Objective C?

    - by Cian
    I see the rate limit is 150/hr per IP. This'd be fine, but my application is on a mobile phone network (with shared IP addresses). I'd like to query twitter trends, e.g. GET /trends/1/json. This doesn't require authorization, however what if the user first authorized with my application using OAuth, then hit the JSON API? The request is built as follows: - (void) queryTrends:(NSString *) WOEID { NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://api.twitter.com/1/trends/%@.json", WOEID]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self startImmediately:YES]; if (theConnection) { // Create the NSMutableData to hold the received data. theData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed in Query Trends"); } //NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; } I have no idea how I'd build this request as an authenticated one however, and haven't seen any examples to this effect online. I've read through the twitter OAuth documentation, but I'm still puzzled as to how it should work. I've experimented with OAuth using Ben Gottlieb's prebuild library, and calling this in my first viewDidLoad: OAuthViewController *oAuthVC = [[OAuthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"OAuthTwitterDemoViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; // [self setViewController:aViewController]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:oAuthVC animated:YES]; This should store all the keys required in the app's preferences, I just need to know how to build the GET request after authorizing! Maybe this just isn't possible? Maybe I'll have to proxy the requests through a server side application? Any insight would be appreciated!

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  • Socket.Recieve Failing When Multithreaded

    - by Qua
    The following piece of code runs fine when parallelized to 4-5 threads, but starts to fail as the number of threads increase somewhere beyond 10 concurrentthreads int totalRecieved = 0; int recieved; StringBuilder contentSB = new StringBuilder(4000); while ((recieved = socket.Receive(buffer, SocketFlags.None)) > 0) { contentSB.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer, 0, recieved)); totalRecieved += recieved; } The Recieve method returns with zero bytes read, and if I continue calling the recieve method then I eventually get a 'An established connection was aborted by the software in your host machine'-exception. So I'm assuming that the host actually sent data and then closed the connection, but for some reason I never recieved it. I'm curious as to why this problem arises when there are a lot of threads. I'm thinking it must have something to do with the fact that each thread doesn't get as much execution time and therefore there are some idle time for the threads which causes this error. Just can't figure out why idle time would cause the socket not to recieve any data.

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  • How do I update a NSTableView when its data source has changed?

    - by Jergason
    I am working along with Cocoa Programming For Mac OS X (a great book). One of the exercises the book gives is to build a simple to-do program. The UI has a table view, a text field to type in a new item and an "Add" button to add the new item to the table. On the back end I have a controller that is the data source and delegate for my NSTableView. The controller also implements an IBAction method called by the "Add" button. It contains a NSMutableArray to hold the to do list items. When the button is clicked, the action method fires correctly and the new string gets added to the mutable array. However, my data source methods are not being called correctly. Here they be: - (NSInteger)numberOfRowsInTableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView { NSLog(@"Calling numberOfRowsInTableView: %d", [todoList count]); return [todoList count]; } - (id)tableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView objectValueForTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)aTableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { NSLog(@"Returning %@ to be displayed", [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]); return [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]; } Here is the rub. -numberOfRowsInTableView only gets called when the app first starts, not every time I add something new to the array. -objectValueForTableColumn never gets called at all. I assume this is because Cocoa is smart enough to not call this method when there is nothing to draw. Is there some method I need to call to let the table view know that its data source has changed, and it should redraw itself?

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  • How do I add code automatically to a derived function in C++

    - by Ian
    I have code that's meant to manage operations on both a networked client and a server, since there is significant overlap between the two. However, there are a few functions here and there that are meant to be exclusively called by the client or server, and accidentally calling a client function on the server (or vice versa) is a significant source of bugs. To reduce these sorts of programming errors, I'm trying to tag functions so that they'll raise a ruckus if they're misused. My current solution is a simple macro at the start of each function that calls an assert if the client or server accesses members they shouldn't. However, this runs into problems when there are multiple derived instances of classes, in that I have to tag the implementation as client or server side in EVERY child class. What I'd like to be able to do is put a tag in the virtual member's signature in the base class, so that I only have to tag it once and not run into errors by forgetting to do it repeatedly. I've considered putting a check in a base class implementation and then referring to it with something like base::functionName, but that runs into the same issue as far as needing to manually add the function call to every implementation. Ideally, I'd be able to have parent versions of the function called automatically like default constructors do. Does anybody know how to achieve something like this in C++? Is there an alternate approach I should be considering? Thanks!

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  • Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

    - by Ed Harper
    I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

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  • Route WCF ServiceHost to another computer

    - by I2nfo
    GoodDay, I'm not a guru when it comes to WCF, but i do know the basics. My question is, how do i create a ServiceHost on machine X, while the code is on machine Y? if i build and run this code on my dev machine(localhost) : servicehost = new ServiceHost(typeof(MyService1)); servicehost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IMyService1), new NetTcpBinding(),"net.tcp://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1"); //This is normally set to localhost. What implementation must be done on the datacenter server, so that if i had to point to http://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1 , it will route the service operation to my dev machine (localhost). However, the datacenter should not be accessible via the internet. It is a possible infrastructure that we researching to see if we can create a service bus type architecture so that all our customers can invoke other customer services running on their respective machines just by calling our datacenter url. We have looked at Windows Azure, but we have our own datacenter infrasture that we wish to leverage off. Come think of it, we kind of building our own Azure, on a very very basic scale. How does one go creating this? Thanks in Advance

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  • problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

    - by callie16
    Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

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  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

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  • Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

    - by slack3r
    In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

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  • Help a CRUD programmer think about an "approval workflow"

    - by gerdemb
    I've been working on a web application that is basically a CRUD application (Create, Read, Update, Delete). Recently, I've started working on what I'm calling an "approval workflow". Basically, a request is generated for a material and then sent for approval to a manager. Depending on what is requested, different people need to approve the request or perhaps send it back to the requester for modification. The approvers need to keep track of what to approve what has been approved and the requesters need to see the status of their requests. As a "CRUD" developer, I'm having a hard-time wrapping my head around how to design this. What database tables should I have? How do I keep track of the state of the request? How should I notify users of actions that have happened to their requests? Is their a design pattern that could help me with this? Should I be drawing state-machines in my code? I think this is a generic programing question, but if it makes any difference I'm using Django with MySQL.

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  • Is there any way to filter certain things in pages served by IIS?

    - by Ruslan
    Hello, This is my first time posting here so please keep that in mind... I'll try to be short and get right to defining the problem. We have an ASP.NET 2 application (eCommerce package) running on IIS (Windows Server 2003). The main site's page(s) are using plain HTTP (no SSL), but the whole checkout process and the shopping cart page is using SSL (HTTPS). Now, the problem is that the site's header is located in a template file, and inside it it has a plain HTML 'img' tag calling an image with the "http://" portion hard-coded into it... This header appears on absolutely every page (including the https pages), and due to its insecure image tag, a warning box pops up in IE on every stage of the checkout process... Now, the problem: The live application cannot be touched in any way (no changes can be made to the template (so simply changing "http://" to "//" is not an option), IIS cannot be restarted, and the website/app pool cannot be restarted). Is there any way in the world (maybe plugin for IIS or a setting somewhere) that I can filter the pages right before they are served to replace the '<img src="http://example.com/image.jpg">' with '<img src="//example.com/image.jpg">' in the final HTML? Possibly via a regular expression or something? Thanks to everybody in advance.

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  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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  • JVM GC demote object to eden space?

    - by Kevin
    I'm guessing this isn't possible...but here goes. My understanding is that eden space is cheaper to collect than old gen space, especially when you start getting into very large heaps. Large heaps tend to come up with long running applications (server apps) and server apps a lot of the time want to use some kind of caches. Caches with some kind of eviction (LRU) tend to defeat some assumptions that GC makes (temporary objects die quickly). So cache evictions end up filling up old gen faster than you'd like and you end up with a more costly old gen collection. Now, it seems like this sort of thing could be avoided if java provided a way to mark a reference as about to die (delete keyword)? The difference between this and c++ is that the use is optional. And calling delete does not actually delete the object, but rather is a hint to the GC that it should demote the object back to Eden space (where it will be more easily collected). I'm guessing this feature doesn't exist, but, why not (is there a reason it's a bad idea)?

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  • How can I receive mouse events when a wrapped control has set capture?

    - by Greg
    My WndProc isn't seeing mouse-up notifications when I click with a modifier key (shift or control) pressed. I see them without the modifier key, and I see mouse-down notifications with the modifier keys. I'm trying to track user actions in a component I didn't write, so I'm using the Windows Forms NativeWindow wrapper (wrapping the component) to get Windows messages from the WndProc() method. I've tried tracking the notifications I do get, and I the only clue I see is WM_CAPTURECHANGED. I've tried calling SetCapture when I receive the WM_LBUTTONDOWN message, but it doesn't help. Without modifier (skipping paint, timer and NCHITTEST messages): WM_PARENTNOTIFY WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONDOWN WM_SETCURSOR WM_MOUSEMOVE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONUP With modifier (skipping paint, timer and NCHITTEST messages): WM_KEYDOWN WM_PARENTNOTIFY WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONDOWN WM_SETCURSOR (repeats) WM_KEYDOWN (repeats) WM_KEYUP If I hold the mouse button down for a long time, I can usually get a WM_LBUTTONUP notification, but it should be possible to make it more responsive.. Edit: I've tried control-clicking outside of the component of interest and moving the cursor into it before releasing the mouse button, and then I do get a WM_LBUTTONUP notification, so it looks like the component is capturing the mouse on mouse-down. Is there any way to receive that notification when another window has captured the mouse? Thanks.

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  • How can I find out if the MainActivity is being paused from my Java class?

    - by quinestor
    I am using motion sensor detection in my application. My design is this: a class gets the sensor services references from the main activity and then it implements SensorEventListener. That is, the MainActivity does not listen for sensor event changes: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // ... code mSensorManager = (SensorManager) getSystemService(Context.SENSOR_SERVICE); mAccelerometer = mSensorManager.getDefaultSensor(Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER); // The following is my java class, it does not extends any android fragment/activty mShakeUtil = new ShakeUtil(mSensorManager,mAccelerometer,this); // ..more code.. } I can't redesign ShakeUtil so it is a fragment nor activity, unfortunately. Now to illustrate the problem consider: MainActivity is on its way to be destroyed/paused. I.e screen rotation ShakeUtil's onSensorChanged(SensorEvent event) gets called in the process.. One of the things that happen inside onSensorChanged is a dialog interaction, which gives the error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Can not perform this action after onSaveInstanceState When the previous happens between MainActivity's onSaveInstanceState and onPause. I know this can be prevented if I successfully detect that MainActivity is being pause in ShakeUtil. How can I detect that MainActivity is being paused or onSaveInstanceState was called from ShakeUtil? Alternatively, how can I avoid this issue without making Shakeutil extend activity? So far I have tried with flag variables but that isn't good enough, I guess these are not atomic operations. I tried using Activity's isChangingConfigurations(), but I get an undocummented "NoSuchMethodFound" error.. I am unregistering the sensors by calling ShakeUtil when onPause in main ACtivity

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  • Help me clean up this crazy lambda with the out keyword

    - by Sarah Vessels
    My code looks ugly, and I know there's got to be a better way of doing what I'm doing: private delegate string doStuff( PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt ); private bool tryEncryptPassword( doStuff encryptPassword, out string errorMessage ) { ...get some variables... string encryptedPassword = encryptPassword(encrypter, publicKey, privateKey, out salt); ... } This stuff so far doesn't bother me. It's how I'm calling tryEncryptPassword that looks so ugly, and has duplication because I call it from two methods: public bool method1(out string errorMessage) { string rawPassword = "foo"; return tryEncryptPassword( (PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt) => encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( // Overload 1 rawPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ), out errorMessage ); } public bool method2(SecureString unencryptedPassword, out string errorMessage) { return tryEncryptPassword( (PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt) => encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( // Overload 2 unencryptedPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ), out errorMessage ); } Two parts to the ugliness: I have to explicitly list all the parameter types in the lambda expression because of the single out parameter. The two overloads of EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff take all the same parameters except for the first parameter, which can either be a string or a SecureString. So method1 and method2 are pretty much identical, they just call different overloads of EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff. Any suggestions? Edit: if I apply Jeff's suggestions, I do the following call in method1: return tryEncryptPassword( (encrypter, publicKey, privateKey) => { var result = new EncryptionResult(); string salt; result.EncryptedValue = encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( rawPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ); result.Salt = salt; return result; }, out errorMessage ); Much the same call is made in method2, just with a different first value to EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff. This is an improvement, but it still seems like a lot of duplicated code.

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  • cancelPreviousPerformRequestWithTarget is not canceling my previously delayed thread started with pe

    - by jmurphy
    Hello, I've launched a delayed thread using performSelector but the user still has the ability to hit the back button on the current view causing dealloc to be called. When this happens my thread still seems to be called which causes my app to crash because the properties that thread is trying to write to have been released. To solve this I am trying to call cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget to cancel the previous request but it doesn't seem to be working. Below are some code snippets. - (void) viewDidLoad { [self performSelector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) withObject:nil afterDelay:6]; } (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) object:nil]; } Am I doing something incorrect here? The method myStopUpdatingLocation is defined in the same class that I'm calling the perform requests. A little more background. The function that I'm trying to implement is to find a users location, search google for some locations around that location and display several annotations on the map. On viewDidLoad I start updating the location with CLLocationManager. I've build in a timeout after 6 seconds if I don't get my desired accuracy within the timeout and I'm using a performSelector to do this. What can happen is the user clicks the back button in the view and this thread will still execute even though all my properties have been released causing a crash. Thanks in advance! James

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  • Concurrent Programming:Should I write a sequential program first, then add thread safety?

    - by evthim
    I'm working on a project where we have to create a number of threads(actual number will be inputted in by testers (TA's)). I'm having trouble not only with the programming but also with the design, I can't wrap my head around all of the threads that will be invoked and where I might cause errors. The project is due soon so I don't want to waste time on this if it'll actually set me back, but I was wondering if I should write the program like only one thread will be running and everything should be sequential and then later go back and try to add the thread safety parts of the code? Would that take twice the original amount of time? Project Description: Note:I'm going to be as vague as possible so I don't violate any honor codes, sorry :( your program should accept n number of objectA threads, m number of objectB threads, and r number of objectC objectB threads interact with code in objectA. objectA threads interact with code in objectB and objectC objectB and objectC don't directly interact, but do so indirectly through objectA -ex: objectB needs something from objectA. objectA gets the result for that something by calling objectC my confusion stems mostly from the fact that all of this interactions will be done by m+n threads and there are various restrictions throughout the descriptions, like objectB can request something from objectA, and objectA has to wait for objectC to finish that something before returning it to objectB. Also each objectA thread can only work on one instruction from objectB at a time, etc. etc. I just want to know if I write the code so that there is only 1 objectA, 1 objectB and 1 object C, can I go back and easily modify it so that those 1's can be changed to m, n and r? Sorry again, if my description is a little bit confusing.

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