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  • Rails preventing duplicates in polymorphic has_many :through associations

    - by seaneshbaugh
    Is there an easy or at least elegant way to prevent duplicate entries in polymorphic has_many through associations? I've got two models, stories and links that can be tagged. I'm making a conscious decision to not use a plugin here. I want to actually understand everything that's going on and not be dependent on someone else's code that I don't fully grasp. To see what my question is getting at, if I run the following in the console (assuming the story and tag objects exist in the database already) s = Story.find_by_id(1) t = Tag.find_by_id(1) s.tags << t s.tags << t My taggings join table will have two entries added to it, each with the same exact data (tag_id = 1, taggable_id = 1, taggable_type = "Story"). That just doesn't seem very proper to me. So in an attempt to prevent this from happening I added the following to my Tagging model: before_validation :validate_uniqueness def validate_uniqueness taggings = Tagging.find(:all, :conditions => { :tag_id => self.tag_id, :taggable_id => self.taggable_id, :taggable_type => self.taggable_type }) if !taggings.empty? return false end return true end And it works almost as intended, but if I attempt to add a duplicate tag to a story or link I get an ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed exception. It seems that when you add an association to a list it calls the save! (rather than save sans !) method which raises exceptions if something goes wrong rather than just returning false. That isn't quite what I want to happen. I suppose I can surround any attempts to add new tags with a try/catch but that goes against the idea that you shouldn't expect your exceptions and this is something I fully expect to happen. Is there a better way of doing this that won't raise exceptions when all I want to do is just silently not save the object to the database because a duplicate exists?

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  • maven-release-plugin: Perform fails with 'working directory "...workspace\target\checkout\workspace"

    - by Ed
    Hi, I have maven project that fails when release:perform is called, though release;prepare works as expected. I have found the bug report (below) which certainly seems to resemble the issue I have but not entirely sure I understand the problem: MRELEASE516 The last few lines of output I get: [INFO] Executing: cmd.exe /X /C "p4 -d E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout -p 10.20.0.38:1666 client -d myProjectWorkspace-MavenSCM-E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout" [INFO] Executing goals 'deploy'... [WARNING] Base directory is a file. Using base directory as POM location. [WARNING] Maven will be executed in interactive mode, but no input stream has been configured for this MavenInvoker instance. [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Error executing Maven. Working directory "E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout\workspace" does not exist! From reading the bug report the possible cause of the error is related to my modules' structure, I've tried to outline it below: /workspace | |+ pom.xml (root pom whose parent is the build pom, | calling release:perform on this pom) | [Modules: moduleA and moduleB] | |- moduleA |+ pom.xml (parent is also build pom) |+ build/pom.xml (the build pom - no custom parent) |- moduleB |+ pom.xml (parent is build pom) It seems that the root pom should be in some common directory inside 'workspace' from the error but tried that and doesn't work, nor make sense as to why I need it. What does the warning Base directory is a file want me to do instead?! It then figures that the base directory is workspace which then means the working directory is not found...any ideas? Thanks in advance.

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  • MySQL Query Error

    - by Nano HE
    I am debug my php forum. Before the error,I modified the DB table name from cdb_sessions to imc_forum_sessions successfully. I tried my best to debug with NetBeans but can't find the reason. Could you please have a look at my post below. Thank you. // It will run to else during debug if($sid) { if($discuz_uid) { $query = $db->query("SELECT s.sid, s.styleid, s.groupid='6' AS ipbanned, s.pageviews AS spageviews, s.lastolupdate, s.seccode, $membertablefields FROM {$tablepre}sessions s, {$tablepre}members m WHERE m.uid=s.uid AND s.sid='$sid' AND CONCAT_WS('.',s.ip1,s.ip2,s.ip3,s.ip4)='$onlineip' AND m.uid='$discuz_uid' AND m.password='$discuz_pw' AND m.secques='$discuz_secques'"); } else { $query = $db->query("SELECT sid, uid AS sessionuid, groupid, groupid='6' AS ipbanned, pageviews AS spageviews, styleid, lastolupdate, seccode FROM {$tablepre}sessions WHERE sid='$sid' AND CONCAT_WS('.',ip1,ip2,ip3,ip4)='$onlineip'"); } } MySQL data table exported as below CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `imc_forum_sessions` ( `sid` char(6) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `ip1` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `ip2` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `ip3` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `ip4` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `uid` mediumint(8) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `username` char(15) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `groupid` smallint(6) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `styleid` smallint(6) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `invisible` tinyint(1) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `action` tinyint(1) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `lastactivity` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `lastolupdate` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `pageviews` smallint(6) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `seccode` mediumint(6) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `fid` smallint(6) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `tid` mediumint(8) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `bloguid` mediumint(8) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', UNIQUE KEY `sid` (`sid`), KEY `uid` (`uid`), KEY `bloguid` (`bloguid`) ) ENGINE=MEMORY DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 MAX_ROWS=5000; -- -- Dumping data for table `imc_forum_sessions` -- INSERT INTO `imc_forum_sessions` (`sid`, `ip1`, `ip2`, `ip3`, `ip4`, `uid`, `username`, `groupid`, `styleid`, `invisible`, `action`, `lastactivity`, `lastolupdate`, `pageviews`, `seccode`, `fid`, `tid`, `bloguid`) VALUES ('NYC4r7', 127, 0, 0, 1, 0, '', 6, 5, 0, 3, 1271372018, 0, 0, 939015, 51, 303, 0); And the IE error showed, Time: 2010-4-16 7:12am Script: /forum/index.php SQL: SELECT sid, uid AS sessionuid, groupid, groupid='6' AS ipbanned, pageviews AS spageviews, styleid, lastolupdate, seccode FROM [Table]sessions WHERE sid='NYC4r7' AND CONCAT_WS('.',ip1,ip2,ip3,ip4)='127.0.0.1' Error: Table 'dbbbs.[Table]sessions' doesn't exist Errno.: 1146 Similar error report has beed dispatched to administrator before.

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  • Google Web Toolkit Asynchronous Call from a Service Implementation

    - by Thor Thurn
    I'm writing a simple Google Web Toolkit service which acts as a proxy, which will basically exist to allow the client to make a POST to a different server. The client essentially uses this service to request an HTTP call. The service has only one asynchronous method call, called ajax(), which should just forward the server response. My code for implementing the call looks like this: class ProxyServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements ProxyService { @Override public Response ajax(String data) { RequestBuilder rb = /*make a request builder*/ RequestCallback rc = new RequestCallback() { @Override public void onResponseReceived(Response response) { /* Forward this response back to the client as the return value of the ajax method... somehow... */ } }; rb.sendRequest(data, requestCallback); return /* The response above... except I can't */; } } You can see the basic form of my problem, of course. The ajax() method is used asynchronously, but GWT decides to be smart and hide that from the dumb old developer, so they can just write normal Java code without callbacks. GWT services basically just do magic instead of accepting a callback parameter. The trouble arises, then, because GWT is hiding the callback object from me. I'm trying to make my own asynchronous call from the service implementation, but I can't, because GWT services assume that you behave synchronously in service implementations. How can I work around this and make an asynchronous call from my service method implementation?

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  • Dynamically Resizing an Iframe

    - by regex
    Hello All, I can see that this question has been asked several times, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work for the site I am building, so I am reopening the thread. I am attempting to size an iframe based on the height of it's content. Both the page that contains the iframe and it's source page exist on the same domain. I have tried the proposed solutions in each of the following threads: Resize iframe height according to content height in it Resizing an iframe based on content I believe that the solutions above are not working because of when the reference to body.clientHeight is made, the browser has not actually determined the height of the document. Here is the code I am using: var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBlue"); ifmBlue.onload = resizeIframe; function resizeIframe() { var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBluePill"); var ifmDiv = ifmBlue.contentDocument.getElementById("main"); var height = ifmDiv.clientHeight; ifmBlue.style.height = (ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.scrollHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.offsetHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.parentNode.clientHeight || height || 500) + 5 + 'px'; } If I debug the script using fire debug, the client height of the iframe.contentDocument's main div is 0. Additionally, body.offsetHieght, & body.scrollHeight are 0. However, after the script is finished running, if I inspect the DOM of the HTML iframe element (using fire debug) I can see that the body's clientHeight is 456 and the inner div's clientHeight is 742. This leads me to believe that these values are not yet set when iframe.onload is fired. So, per one of the threads above, I moved the code into the body.onload event handler of the iframe's source page. This solution also did not work. Any help you can provide is much appreciated. Thanks, CJ

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  • Validation for Alert dialog

    - by Hossam
    Hi Everyone, Im working in a game and when the player finished the level , Im asking the Player to enter his name on EditText in Alert Dialog : AlertDialog.Builder builder = new Builder(this); LayoutInflater inflater = getLayoutInflater(); // Inflate and set the layout for the dialog // Pass null as the parent view because its going in the dialog layout builder.setView(inflater.inflate(R.layout.dialog_name, null)) // Add action buttons .setPositiveButton(R.string.alertName, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { playerText = (EditText) ((AlertDialog)dialog).findViewById(R.id.username); if(playerText.getText() != null && playerText.getText().length() != 0) Helper.currentPlayer.setName(playerText.getText().toString()); //calculate the score // save in data base PlayerDataSource playerDS = new PlayerDataSource(getApplicationContext()); playerDS.open(); Helper.currentPlayer = playerDS.createPlayer(Helper.currentPlayer.getName(), Helper.currentPlayer.getScore(), Helper.currentPlayer.levels, Helper.currentPlayer.times, LanguageHelper.div); playerDS.close(); saveStmc(); mainScene.setChildScene(choicesMenu, false, true, true); } }) .setTitle("Please Enter Your name") .setNegativeButton(R.string.cancel, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { } }); alert = builder.create(); When the Player enters his name and press OK (Positive button) I will check in database if the name exists or not, if the name is exist : show Toast and not dismiss the alert to write another name. How to do that?

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  • Cannot upload media via Wordpress uploader

    - by Justin Johnson
    This has to do with media uploading in Wordpress. Every time WP creates a folder for new uploads (it organizes uploads by year and month: yyyy/mm), it creates it with the "apache:apache' user and group, with full access to all (777 or drwxrwxrwx). However, after that, WP cannot create a folder within that folder (e.g.: mkdir 2011 succeeds, but mkdir 2011/01 fails). Also, uploads cannot be moved into these newly created folders even though the permissions are 777 (rwxrwxrwx). Once a month, I have to chown the newly created folders to be the same as user:group as the rest of the files. Once I do that, uploading works fine (which doesn't make sense to me The really frustrating part is that this problem doesn't exist in other WP installs on other domains on the same server. * I wasn't sure if this should be here or on serverfault. Edit: The containing directory /.../httpdocs/blog/wp-content/uploads has the correct ownership drwxrwxrwx 5 myuser psaserv 4096 Jun 3 18:38 uploads This is a Plesk/CentOS environment hosted by Media Temple (dv). I've written the following test script to simulate the problem <pre><?php $d = "d" . mt_rand(100, 500); var_dump( get_current_user(), $d, mkdir($d), chmod($d, 0777), mkdir("$d/$d"), chmod("$d/$d", 0777), fileowner($d), getmyuid() ); The script always creates the first directory mkdir($d) successfully. On domain A, where the WP problem is, it cannot create the nested directory mkdir("$d/$d"). However, on domain B, both directories are successfully created. I am running each script at /var/www/vhosts/domainA/httpdocs/tmp/t.php and /var/www/vhosts/domainB/httpdocs/tmp/t.php respectively I checked the permissions on tmp, httpdocs, and domain[AB] and they are the same for each path. The only thing that differs is the user.

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  • Posting forms to a 404 + HttpHandler in IIS7: why has all POST data gone missing?

    - by Rahul
    OK, this might sound a bit confusing and complicated, so bear with me. We've written a framework that allows us to define friendly URLs. If you surf to any arbitrary URL, IIS tries to display a 404 error (or, in some cases, 403;14 or 405). However, IIS is set up so that anything directed to those specific errors is sent to an .aspx file. This allows us to implement an HttpHandler to handle the request and do stuff, which involves finding the an associated template and then executing whatever's associated with it. Now, this all works in IIS 5 and 6 and, to an extent, on IIS7 - but for one catch, which happens when you post a form. See, when you post a form to a non-existent URL, IIS says "ah, but that url doesn't exist" and throws a 405 "method not allowed" error. Since we're telling IIS to redirect those errors to our .aspx page and therefore handling it with our HttpHandler, this normally isn't a problem. But as of IIS7, all POST information has gone missing after being redirected to the 405. And so you can no longer do the most trivial of things involving forms. To solve this we've tried using a HttpModule, which preserves POST data but appears to not have an initialized Session at the right time (when it's needed). We also tried using a HttpModule for all requests, not just the missing requests that hit 404/403;14/405, but that means stuff like images, css, js etc are being handled by .NET code, which is terribly inefficient. Which brings me to the actual question: has anyone ever encountered this, and does anyone have any advice or know what to do to get things working again? So far someone has suggested using Microsoft's own URL Rewriting module. Would this help solve our problem? Thanks.

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  • Changing the system time zone succeeds once and then no longer changes

    - by Adam Driscoll
    I'm using the WinAPI to set the time zone on a Windows XP SP3 box. I'm reading the time zone information from the HKLM\Software\Microsoft\WindowsNT\Time Zones\<time zone name> key and then setting the time zone to the specified time zone. I enumerate the keys under the Time Zones key, grab the TZI value and stuff it into a TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct to be passed to SetTimeZoneInformation. All seems to work on the first pass. The time zone changes, no error is returned. The second time I perform this operation (same user, new session, on login before userinit) the call succeeds but the system does not reflect the time zone change. Neither the clock nor time stamps on files are updated to the new time zone. When I navigate to: HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Control\TimeZoneInformation my new time zone information is present. A couple strange things are happening when I'm setting my time zone: Also when I parse the TZI binary value from the registry to store in my TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct I'm noticing the struct has the DaylightDate.wDay and StandardDate.wDay field always set to 0 I tried to call GetTimeZoneInformation right after I call SetTimeZoneInformation but the call fails with a 1300 error (Not all privileges or groups referenced are assigned to the caller. ) I'm also making sure to send a WM_BROADCAST message so Explorer knows whats going on. Think it's the parsing of the byte array to the TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct? Or am I missing some thing else important? EDIT: Found a document stating why this is happening: here. Privilege was introduced in Vista...thanks MSDN docs... Per the Microsoft documentation I'm enabling the SE_TIME_ZONE_NAME privilege for the current processes token. But when I attempt to call LookupPriviledgeValue for SE_TIME_ZONE_NAME I get a 1313 error (A specified privilege does not exist. ).

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  • How to find unique values in jagged array

    - by David Liddle
    I would like to know how I can count the number of unique values in a jagged array. My domain object contains a string property that has space delimitered values. class MyObject { string MyProperty; //e.g = "v1 v2 v3" } Given a list of MyObject's how can I determine the number of unique values? The following linq code returns an array of jagged array values. A solution would be to store a temporary single array of items, looped through each jagged array and if values do not exist, to add them. Then a simple count would return the unique number of values. However, was wondering if there was a nicer solution. db.MyObjects.Where(t => !String.IsNullOrEmpty(t.MyProperty)) .Select(t => t.Categories.Split(new char[] { ' ' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries)) .ToArray() Below is a more readable example: array[0] = { "v1", "v2", "v3" } array[1] = { "v1" } array[2] = { "v4", "v2" } array[3] = { "v1", "v5" } From all values the unique items are v1, v2, v3, v4, v5. The total number of unique items is 5. Is there a solution, possibly using linq, that returns either only the unique values or returns the number of unique values?

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  • Maven Mojo & SCM Plugin: Check for a valid working directory

    - by Patrick Bergner
    Hi there. I'm using maven-scm-plugin from within a Mojo and am trying to figure out how to determine if a directory D is a valid working directory of an SCM URL U (i.e. a checkout of U to D already happened). The context is that I want to do a checkout of U if D is a working set or do an update if it isn't. The plan is to check out U to D if D does not exist, update D if D is a valid working directory of U, display an error if D exists and is not a valid working directory of U. What I tried is to call ScmManager.status(), ScmManager.list() and ScmManager.changelog() and try to guess something from their results. But that didn't work. The results from status and changelog always return something positive (isSuccess() = true, getChangedFiles() = valid List, no exceptions to catch), whereas list throws an exception in any case. ScmRepository and ScmFileSet don't seem to provide suitable methods as well. An option would be to always do an update if D exists but then I cannot tell if it is a working directory of U or any SCM working directory at all. The ideal solution would be independent of the actual SCM system and a specific ScmVersion. Thanks for your help! Patrick

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  • Conditional macro expansion

    - by Dave DeLong
    Heads up: This is a weird question. I've got some really useful macros that I like to use to simplify some logging. For example I can do Log(@"My message with arguments: %@, %@, %@", @"arg1", @"arg2", @"arg3"), and that will get expanded into a more complex method invocation that includes things like self, _cmd, __FILE__, __LINE__, etc, so that I can easily track where things are getting logged. This works great. Now I'd like to expand my macros to not only work with Objective-C methods, but general C functions. The problem is the self and _cmd portions that are in the macro expansion. These two parameters don't exist in C functions. Ideally, I'd like to be able to use this same set of macros within C functions, but I'm running into problems. When I use (for example) my Log() macro, I get compiler warnings about self and _cmd being undeclared (which makes total sense). My first thought was to do something like the following (in my macro): if (thisFunctionIsACFunction) { DoLogging(nil, nil, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); } else { DoLogging(self, _cmd, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); } This still produces compiler warnings, since the entire if() statement is substituted in place of the macro, resulting in errors with the self and _cmd keywords (even though they will never be executed during function execution). My next thought was to do something like this (in my macro): if (thisFunctionIsACFunction) { #define SELF nil #define CMD nil } else { #define SELF self #define CMD _cmd } DoLogging(SELF, CMD, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); That doesn't work, unfortunately. I get "error: '#' is not followed by a macro parameter" on my first #define. My other thought was to create a second set of macros, specifically for use in C functions. This reeks of a bad code smell, and I really don't want to do this. Is there some way I can use the same set of macros from within both Objective-C methods and C functions, and only reference self and _cmd if the macro is in an Objective-C method?

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  • Simulate mouse movement in Ubuntu

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Problem Am looking to automatically move the mouse cursor and simulate mouse button clicks from the command-line using an external script. Am not looking to: Record mouse movement and playback (e.g., xnee, xmacro) Instantly move the mouse from one location to another (e.g., xdotool, Python's warp_pointer) Ideal Solution What I'd like to do is the following: Edit a simple script file (e.g., mouse-script.txt). Add a list of coordinates, movement speeds, delays, and button clicks. For example: (x, y, rate) = (500, 500, 50) sleep = 5 click = left Run the script: xsim < mouse-script.txt. Question How do you automate mouse movement so that it transitions from its current location to another spot on the screen, at a specific velocity? For example: xdotool mousemove 500 500 --rate 50 The --rate 50 doesn't exist with xdotool. I could write a script that uses xdotool to get the current mouse coordinates then move it a pixel at a time to the destination with a suitable sleep interval; what automated testing tool already does this? Thank you.

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  • nHibernate Mapping file

    - by bharat
    <property name="NetworkRunId" column="Network_Run_Id" /> <property name="StudyKey" column="Study_Key" insert="false" update="false" /> <property name="AnnualizationFactor" column="Annualization_Factor" /> <property name="CreateDate" column="Create_Date" /> <property name="ModifyDate" column="Modify_Date" /> <many-to-one name="StudyInfo" class="Study" lazy="false" cascade="save-update"> <column name="Study_Key" /> </many-to-one> <many-to-one name="MemberInfo" class="BusinessDataEntities.Domain.NetworkAdministration.VHAMemberCompany, BusinessDataEntities" lazy="false"> <column name="Member_ID" /> </many-to-one> <many-to-one name="NetworkRunStudyXrefInfo" class="BusinessDataEntities.Domain.NetworkAdministration.NetworkRunStudyXref, BusinessDataEntities" lazy="false"> <column name="Network_Run_Id" /> </many-to-one> <join table="[HCO_Spend_Network_Run_Study]"> <key column="HCO_Spend_Id" /> <property name="NetworkRunId" column="Network_Run_Id" insert="false" update="false"/> </join> issue with the Network run id not exist in the first table but i have a join that is having the Network_Run_Id as property how do i fix this

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  • How do I fix this installation problem with multicore Solr on Ubuntu 10.04?

    - by coleifer
    Following instructions from the two sites below, I've installed Tomcat 6 and Solr 1.4. http://gist.github.com/204638 https://wiki.fourkitchens.com/display/TECH/Solr+1.4+on+Ubuntu+9.10+and+CentOS+5 I have successfully got it up and running on a server running 9.04 with multicore support, but on the 10.04 I can't seem to get it to work. I am able to reach localhost:xxxx/solr/ on the 10.04 box and see a single link to the Solr Admin, but following the link takes me to a 404 page with the following output: /solr/admin/ HTTP Status 404 - missing core name in path The requested resource (missing core name in path) is not available I am also unable to access /solr/site1/ as I would except - it similarly returns a 404. <!-- from /var/solr/solr.xml, site dirs exist --> <cores adminPath="/admin/cores"> <core name="site1" instanceDir="site1" /> <core name="site2" instanceDir="site2" /> </cores> <!-- from /etc/tomcat6/Catalina/localhost/solr.xml --> <Context docBase="/var/solr/solr.war" debug="0" privileged="true" allowLinking="true" crossContext="true"> <Environment name="solr/home" type="java.lang.String" value="/var/solr" override="true" /> </Context>

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  • Localization: How to allow the user to define custom resources without compiling?

    - by gehho
    In our application, we have a collection of data items, each with a DisplayedName property. This property should be localized, i.e. it should be displayed in the language selected by the user. Therefore, another property, DisplayedNameResourceKey, specifies which resource should be returned by the DisplayedName property. In simplified code this means something like this: public string DisplayedName { get { return MyResources.ResourceManager.GetObject(this.DisplayedNameResourceKey); } } public string DisplayedNameResourceKey { get; set; } Now, the problem is: The user should be able to edit these items including the DisplayedName, or more precisely the DisplayedNameResourceKey. And not only this, but the user should also be able to somehow define new resources which he can then reference. That is, he can either choose from a predefined set of resources (some commonly used names), or define a custom resource which then needs to be localized by the user as well. However, the user cannot add custom resources to MyResources at runtime and without compiling. Therefore, another approach is needed. It does not have to be an extremely user-friendly way (e.g. UI is not required) because this will typically be done by our service engineers. I was thinking about using a txt or csv file containing pairs of resource keys and the corresponding translations. A separate file would exist for every language at a predefined location. But I am not really satisfied with that idea because it involves a lot of work to resolve the resources. Does anyone know a good approach for such a situation?

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  • ArrayAdapter and android:textFilterEnabled

    - by TiGer
    Hi there, I have created a layout which includes a ListView... The data shown within this ListView isn't too complicated, it's mostly an Array which is passed when the extended Activity is started... The rows themselves exist out of an icon and a text, thus an ImageView and a TextView... To fill up the ListView I use an ArrayAdapter simply because an Array is passed containing all the text-items that should be shown.. Now I'd like to actually be able to filter those, thus I found the android:textFilterEnabled paramater to add on the ListView xml declaration... Now a search field is shown nicely but when I enter some letters it won't filter but it will simply delete the whole list... I found out that that's because the textfilter has no idea what it should filter... So now my question is : I know I need to tell the textfilter what it should filter, I also still have my array filled with the text that should get filtered so how do i couple those two ??? I have seen examples extending a CursorAdapter, but again, I don't have a Cursor, I don't want to do calls to a DB I want to re-utilize my Array with data and obviously the ArrayAdapter itself so that the data will be represented decently on screen (i.e with my ImageView and TextView layout)... Thanks in advance for any help/pointers/tips/code...

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  • efficiently determining if a polynomial has a root in the interval [0,T]

    - by user168715
    I have polynomials of nontrivial degree (4+) and need to robustly and efficiently determine whether or not they have a root in the interval [0,T]. The precise location or number of roots don't concern me, I just need to know if there is at least one. Right now I'm using interval arithmetic as a quick check to see if I can prove that no roots can exist. If I can't, I'm using Jenkins-Traub to solve for all of the polynomial roots. This is obviously inefficient since it's checking for all real roots and finding their exact positions, information I don't end up needing. Is there a standard algorithm I should be using? If not, are there any other efficient checks I could do before doing a full Jenkins-Traub solve for all roots? For example, one optimization I could do is to check if my polynomial f(t) has the same sign at 0 and T. If not, there is obviously a root in the interval. If so, I can solve for the roots of f'(t) and evaluate f at all roots of f' in the interval [0,T]. f(t) has no root in that interval if and only if all of these evaluations have the same sign as f(0) and f(T). This reduces the degree of the polynomial I have to root-find by one. Not a huge optimization, but perhaps better than nothing.

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  • Problem with fork exec kill when redirecting output in perl

    - by Edu
    I created a script in perl to run programs with a timeout. If the program being executed takes longer then the timeout than the script kills this program and returns the message "TIMEOUT". The script worked quite well until I decided to redirect the output of the executed program. When the stdout and stderr are being redirected, the program executed by the script is not being killed because it has a pid different than the one I got from fork. It seems perl executes a shell that executes my program in the case of redirection. I would like to have the output redirection but still be able to kill the program in the case of a timeout. Any ideas on how I could do that? A simplified code of my script is: #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use POSIX ":sys_wait_h"; my $timeout = 5; my $cmd = "very_long_program 1>&2 > out.txt"; my $pid = fork(); if( $pid == 0 ) { exec($cmd) or print STDERR "Couldn't exec '$cmd': $!"; exit(2); } my $time = 0; my $kid = waitpid($pid, WNOHANG); while ( $kid == 0 ) { sleep(1); $time ++; $kid = waitpid($pid, WNOHANG); print "Waited $time sec, result $kid\n"; if ($timeout > 0 && $time > $timeout) { print "TIMEOUT!\n"; #Kill process kill 9, $pid; exit(3); } } if ( $kid == -1) { print "Process did not exist\n"; exit(4); } print "Process exited with return code $?\n"; exit($?); Thanks for any help.

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  • Convert Form to UserControl

    - by Joe
    I have a 3rd party code library that I'm using; part of this library is a winforms application for editing the configuration files used by this library. I would like to embed their configuration editor app into my application. I have the source code to their library and the configuration editor is (as far as I can tell) a straight forward Winforms app using standard controls. I'm trying to convert the app's main form into a UserControl so that I can host it inside my application which is WPF (WPF's WindowsFormsHost won't host a Form object, I get an exception). I changed the form object to inherit from UserControl instead of Form and fixed all the compiler errors (there weren't many, just property initializations that don't exist on UserControls) but what's happening is my newly converted control is just blank. When I run my test app I don't see any of the controls that make up the original form, just a blank page. Any ideas? I really don't want to have to re-implement their app from scratch, that would suck. Edit: I forgot to mention I'm testing this in a WinForms application, not WPF, to just get the control working before trying to use it from WPF.

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  • How can I get the mapi system stub dll to pass extended mapi calls to my dll?

    - by Bogatyr
    For various reasons (questioning the reasons is not helpful to me), I'd like to implement my own extended mapi dll for windows xp. I have a skeleton dll now, just a few entrypoints exist for testing, but the system mapi stub (c:\windows\system32\mapi32.dll, I've checked that it's identical to mapistub.dll) will not pass through calls to my dll, while it happily passes the same calls through to MS Outlook's msmapi32.dll, (MAPIInitialize, MAPILoginEx are two such calls). There's some secret handshake between the stub and the extended mapi dll wherein the stub checks that "yup, it's an extended mapi dll": maybe it's the presence of some additional entrypoints I haven't implemented yet, maybe it's the return value from some function, I don't know. I've tried tracing a sample app I wrote that calls MAPIInitialize with STraceNT and ProcessMonitor but that didn't show anything obvious. Tracing has shown that indeed the stub loads my dll, but then finds the secret sauce is missing apparently, and returns an error code instead of calling my dll's function. What more could be needed for calling MAPIInitialize than the presence of MAPIInitialize in my dll's exports table? GetProcAddress says it's there. What I'd like to know is how to minimally extend my skeleton extended mapi dll so that the stub mapi dll will pass through extended mapi calls to my dll. What's the secret sauce? I'd rather not spend a painful week in msvc reverse engineering the stub behavior.

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  • html includes in a JSP using IIS/WebLogic

    - by Striker
    I have my IIS 6 server setup to process server side includes, we're also using the WebLogic ISAPI plugin for IIS. I have a simple html file that I'm trying to include in the JSP using the following include: <!-- #include file="/pleaseWait/pleaseWait.html" --> When I use the above line in a JSP I get an error message saying: "pleaseWait is not defined". From an HTML file on the web server it works fine. The include works in the HTML whether I use file or virtual. I can't use the jsp @ include because that's resolved at build time and the HTML file does not exist in the Java project. It's static content so it's on the IIS server. In the past we've change the extension to .jsp and included the images and static content in the .war file....the problem with that is we now have 10 different versions of this code in our apps and not all of them look or function the same. This is an attempt to standardize and centralize the code for this feature across our apps. Any ideas or suggestions?

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  • Simple Enterprise Library console application refuses to compile

    - by Vadim
    I just downloaded and installed Microsoft Enterprise Library 5.0. I fired up VS 2010 to play with EL 5 and created a very simple console application. However, it would not compile. I got the following error: The type or namespace name 'Data' does not exist in the namespace 'Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary' (are you missing an assembly reference?) I added Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Common, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, and Microsoft.Practices.Unity references to my project. Here's the simple code that refuses to compile. using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Common.Configuration.Unity; using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data; using Microsoft.Practices.Unity; namespace EntLib { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.AddNewExtension<EnterpriseLibraryCoreExtension>(); var defaultDatabase = container.Resolve<Database>(); } } } The error above complains about line #2 : using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data; Someone probably will point out to a stupid mistake by me, but at the moment I fail to see it. I tried to remove and add again Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data to refences but it didn't help.

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  • httpHandler - subfolder issue

    - by Patto
    Hi, I am trying to redirect my old typepad blog to my new blog (permanent 301 redirect) that runs with wordpress. The new blog will also be on a new server. the old Blog had the following structure: http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html The new Blog looks like this: http://www.domain.com/Blog/year/month/what-ever-article.html I am using an http handler that I found online and tried to work with it: public class MyHttpModule :IHttpModule { public MyHttpModule() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } #region IHttpModule Members public void Dispose() { } public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(context_BeginRequest); } void context_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string oldURL = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString(); string newURL = String.Empty; //oldURL = if (oldURL.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("articles") >= 0 || System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("weblog") >= 0) { newURL = oldURL.Replace("subdomain.domain.com/weblog", "www.domain.com/Blog/index.php"); if (newURL.ToLower().Contains("subdomain")) { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } } else { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.StatusCode = 301; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Location", newURL); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } #endregion } To use this code, I put the handler into the web.config <httpModules> <add name="MyHttpModule" type="MyHttpModule, App_Code"/> </httpModules> The issue that I have is that when I want to redirect from the http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html, I get an error that the folder would not exist. Is there any way to change my script or add an catch all to the web.config that forwards the URL to my script? When I use "http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html" in oldURL string, then the redirect works just fine... so I must have some IIS or web.config settings wrong. Thanks in advance, Patrick

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  • protecting grails melody with grails filter

    - by batmannavneet
    I have an application where I am using spring security along with grails melody. I am planning to run grails melody in production environment, but don't want visitors to have access to it. How should I achieve that ? I tried creating a filter in grails (just showing the sample of what I am trying, not the actual code)- def filters = { allURIs(uri:'/**') { before = { //... if(request.forwardURI.indexOf("admin") != -1 || request.forwardURI.indexOf("monitoring") != -1) { response.sendError 404 return false } } } } But this doesnt work as the request for "monitoring" doesnt hit this filter. I dont even want the user to know that such a URL exists, so I want to check in the filter that if "monitoring" is the URL, I show the 404 error page. Thats also the reason why I dont want to protect this URL with spring security as it will show "access denied" page. Basically I want the URL to exist but they should be invisible to users. I want the access to be open to only certain IP addresses for these special URLs. On another note, Is it possible to write a grails filter that "acts" before the spring security filter is hit ? I want to be able to do some filtering before I forward requests to spring security. Writing a grails filter like above doesnt help. Spring security filter gets hit first if I access a protected resource and this filter doesn't get called. Thanks

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