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  • Creating subtree from tree which is represented in xml - python

    - by Jay
    Hi I have an XML (in the form of tree), I require to create sub-tree out of it. For ex: <a> <b> <c>Hello</c> <d> <e>Hi</e> </a> Subtree would be <root> <a> <b> <c>Hello</c> </b> </a> <a> <d> <e>Hi</e> </d> </a> </root> What is the best XML library in python to do it? Any algorithm that already does this would also be helpful. Note: the XML doc won't be that big, it will easily fit in memory.

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  • Dangers when deploying Flash/Flex UI test automation hooks to production?

    - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham
    I am interested in doing automated testing against a Flex based UI. I have found out that my best options for UI automation (due to being C# controllable, good licensing conditions, etc) all seem to require that I compile test hooks into my application. Because of this, I am thinking of recommending that these hooks be compiled into our build. I have found a few places on the net that recommend not deploying bits with this instrumentation enabled, and I'd like to know why. Is it a performance drain, or a security risk? If it is a security risk, can you explain how the attack surface is increased? I am not a Flash or Flex developer, though I have some experience with threat modeling. For reference, here's the tools I'm specifically considering: QTP Selenium-Flex API I am having problems finding all the warnings/suggestions I found last night, but here's an example that I can find: http://www.riatest.com/products/getting-started.html Warning! Automation enabled applications expose all properties of all GUI components. This makes them vulnerable to malicious use. Never make automation enabled application publicly available. Always restrict access to such applications and to RIATest Loader to trusted users only. Related question (how to do conditional compilation to insert/remove those hooks): Conditionally including Flex libraries (SWCs) in mxmlc/compc ant tasks

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • Need to reload current_cart to get the test passed

    - by leomayleomay
    I'm testing my online store app with RSpec, here's what I'm doing: # spec/controllers/line_items_controller_spec.rb require 'spec_helper' describe LineItemsController do describe "POST 'create'" do before do @current_cart = Factory(:cart) controller.stub!(:current_cart).and_return(@current_cart) end it 'should merge two same line_items into one' do @product = Factory(:product, :name => "Tee") post 'create', {:product_id => @product.id} post 'create', {:product_id => @product.id} assert LineItem.count.should == 1 assert LineItem.first.quantity.should == 2 end end end # app/controllers/line_items_controller.rb class LineItemsController < ApplicationController def create current_cart.line_items.each do |line_item| if line_item.product_id == params[:product_id] line_item.quantity += 1 if line_item.save render :text => "success" else render :text => "failed" end return end end @line_item = current_cart.line_items.new(:product_id => params[:product_id]) if @line_item.save render :text => "success" else render :text => "failed" end end end The problem right now is it never added up two line_items having the same product into one, because the second time I entered into the line_items_controller#create, the current_cart.line_items is [], I have run current_cart.reload to get the test passed, any idea what's going wrong?

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  • Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

    - by Kyle
    I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

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  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

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  • Forms authentication: disable redirect to the login page

    - by codeka
    I have an application that uses ASP.NET Forms Authentication. For the most part, it's working great, but I'm trying to add support for a simple API via an .ashx file. I want the ashx file to have optional authentication (i.e. if you don't supply an Authentication header, then it just works anonymously). But, depending on what you do, I want to require authentication under certain conditions. I thought it would be a simple matter of responding with status code 401 if the required authentication was not supplied, but it seems like the Forms Authentcation module is intercepting that and responding with a redirect to the login page instead. What I mean is, if my ProcessRequest method looks like this: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { Response.StatusCode = 401; Response.StatusDescription = "Authentication required"; } Then instead of getting a 401 error code on the client, like I expect, I'm actually getting a 302 redirect to the login page. For nornal HTTP traffic, I can see how that would be useful, but for my API page, I want the 401 to go through unmodified so that the client-side caller can respond to it programmatically instead. Is there any way to do that?

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  • Why should I care about RVM's Gemset feature when I use Bundler?

    - by t6d
    I just don't get it. I thought, Bundler was developed to resolve version conflicts between gems. So that I just have to require "bundler/setup" and everything is fine, knowing that Bundler will load the correct versions of all my gems and their dependencies. Now, RVM is great for managing multiple Rubies, I know, but why should I care about the Gemset feature? Do I miss something here? Can it make my development even easier? Maybe, some of you can give me some hints on the perfect RVM + Bundler workflow for both, development and production. I also don't know when RVM starts switching to another Ruby. I know that I can have an .rvmrc file in my project, but do I have to cd to this directory so that the switch happens? Furthermore, I usually use Passenger for development since, thanks to the Passenger.prefpane, integration in Mac OS is great. Can I still do that with RVM or is there a better way to do it? Does Passenger recognize .rvmrc files and switch to the correct Gemset?

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  • How can I refactor this to work without breaking the pattern horribly?

    - by SnOrfus
    I've got a base class object that is used for filtering. It's a template method object that looks something like this. public class Filter { public void Process(User u, GeoRegion r, int countNeeded) { List<account> selected = this.Select(u, r, countNeeded); // 1 List<account> filtered = this.Filter(selected, u, r, countNeeded); // 2 if (filtered.Count > 0) { /* do businessy stuff */ } // 3 if (filtered.Count < countNeeded) this.SendToSuccessor(u, r, countNeeded - filtered) // 4 } } Select(...), Filter(...) are protected abstract methods and implemented by the derived classes. Select(...) finds objects in the based on x criteria, Filter(...) filters those selected further. If the remaining filtered collection has more than 1 object in it, we do some business stuff with it (unimportant to the problem here). SendToSuccessor(...) is called if there weren't enough objects found after filtering (it's a composite where the next class in succession will also be derived from Filter but have different filtering criteria) All has been ok, but now I'm building another set of filters, which I was going to subclass from this. The filters I'm building however would require different params and I don't want to just implement those methods and not use the params or just add to the param list the ones I need and have them not used in the existing filters. They still perform the same logical process though. I also don't want to complicated the consumer code for this (which looks like this) Filter f = new Filter1(); Filter f2 = new Filter2(); Filter f3 = new Filter3(); f.Sucessor = f2; f2.Sucessor = f3; /* and so on adding filters as successors to previous ones */ foreach (User u in users) { foreach (GeoRegion r in regions) { f.Process(u, r, ##); } } How should I go about it?

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  • How to authenticate multiple entry points in a facebook app?

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I am using an IFrame application with XFBML and the new Javascript API. I'd like to have a facebook application with multiple entry points. These will most likely represent different links coming from a fan page tab. I can do this quite easily if the pages don't require authentication - for instance I can create several pages under the app and if a new user comes I can send them to any page: http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/offers http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/game http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/products The problem is that if I need to have authentication then once the user is authenticated they get redirected to my default post-authorization url. Is there a way for a user that comes to /game to stay on /game after they are authenticated without redirecting. I thought I could do it with the AJAX login form - but I cannot find out how to do that in a Facebook IFrame application. I think the example using requirelogin only works for FBML. <a href="http://apps.facebook.com/mysmiley" requirelogin=1> Welcome to my app</a>. Is there a way to accomplish this with Facebook APIs - or will I have to do some kind of clever cookie handling?

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  • Monotouch or Titanium for rapid application development on IPhone?

    - by Ronnie
    As a .Net developer I always dreamed for the possibility to develop with my existing skills (c#) applications for the Iphone. Both programs require a Mac and the Iphone Sdk installed. Appcelerator Titanium was the first app I tried and it is based on exposing some Iphone native api to javascript so that they can be called using that language. Monotouch starts at $399 for beeing able to deploy on the Iphone and not on the Iphone simulator while Titanium is free. Monotouch (Monodevelop) has an Ide that is currently missing in Titanium (but you can use any editor like Textmate, Aptana...) I think both program generate at the end a native precompiled app (also if I am not sure about the size of the final app on the Iphone as I think the .Net framework calls are prelilnked at compilation time in Monotouch). I am also not sure about the full coverage of all the Iphone api and features. Titanium has also the advantage to enable Android app development but as a c# developer I still find Monotouch experience more like the Visual Studio one. Which one would you choose and what are your experiences on Monotouch and Titanium?

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  • To OpenID or not to OpenID? Is it worth it?

    - by Eloff
    Does OpenID improve the user experience? Edit Not to detract from the other comments, but I got one really good reply below that outlined 3 advantages of OpenID in a rational bottom line kind of way. I've also heard some whisperings in other comments that you can get access to some details on the user through OpenID (name? email? what?) and that using that it might even be able to simplify the registration process by not needing to gather as much information. Things that definitely need to be gathered in a checkout process: Full name Email (I'm pretty sure I'll have to ask for these myself) Billing address Shipping address Credit card info There may be a few other things that are interesting from a marketing point of view, but I wouldn't ask the user to manually enter anything not absolutely required during the checkout process. So what's possible in this regard? /Edit (You may have noticed stackoverflow uses OpenID) It seems to me it is easier and faster for the user to simply enter a username and password in a signup form they have to go through anyway. I mean you don't avoid entering a username and password either with OpenID. But you avoid the confusion of choosing a OpenID provider, and the trip out to and back from and external site. With Microsoft making Live ID an OpenID provider (More Info), bringing on several hundred million additional accounts to those provided by Google, Yahoo, and others, this question is more important than ever. I have to require new customers to sign up during the checkout process, and it is absolutely critical that the experience be as easy and smooth as possible, every little bit harder it becomes translates into lost sales. No geek factor outweighs cold hard cash at the end of the day :) OpenID seems like a nice idea, but the implementation is of questionable value. What are the advantages of OpenID and is it really worth it in my scenario described above?

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  • How best to deal with warning c4305 when type could change?

    - by identitycrisisuk
    I'm using both Ogre and NxOgre, which both have a Real typedef that is either float or double depending on a compiler flag. This has resulted in most of our compiler warnings now being: warning C4305: 'argument' : truncation from 'double' to 'Ogre::Real' When initialising variables with 0.1 for example. Normally I would use 0.1f but then if you change the compiler flag to double precision then you would get the reverse warning. I guess it's probably best to pick one and stick with it but I'd like to write these in a way that would work for either configuration if possible. One fix would be to use #pragma warning (disable : 4305) in files where it occurs, I don't know if there are any other more complex problems that can be hidden by not having this warning. I understand I would push and pop these in header files too so that they don't end up spreading across code. Another is to create some macro based on the accuracy compiler flag like: #if OGRE_DOUBLE_PRECISION #define INIT_REAL(x) (x) #else #define INIT_REAL(x) static_cast<float>( x ) #endif which would require changing all the variable initialisation done so far but at least it would be future proof. Any preferences or something I haven't thought of?

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  • Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

    - by CoreyT
    I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

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  • php mailer attachments

    - by Matthew
    I have been using this script to send emails to certain staff but because of changes to my system i have to now send attachements with the email and i have tried multipul peices of code to accomplish this but have been unsuccessful... I still recive the email but without the attachement which is quite pointless in this case i have placed the script i am using bellow i have removed the real addresses i was using and smtp server require("PHPMailer/class.phpmailer.php"); $mail = new PHPMailer(); $mail->IsSMTP(); // set mailer to use SMTP $mail->Host = "SMTP.SErver.com"; $mail->From = "[email protected]"; $mail->FromName = "HCSC"; $mail->AddAddress("[email protected]", "Example"); $mail->AddReplyTo("[email protected]", "Hcsc"); $mail->WordWrap = 50; $mail->IsHTML(false); $mail->Subject = "AuthSMTP Test"; $mail->Body = "AuthSMTP Test Message!"; $mail->AddAttachment("matt.txt"); //this is basicly what i am trying to attach as a test but will be using excel spreadsheets in the production if(!$mail->Send()) { echo "Message could not be sent. <p>"; echo "Mailer Error: " . $mail->ErrorInfo; exit; } echo "Message has been sent"; i have also tried a few other emtods of attaching the file but none seem to work any help is greatly appricated

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  • What are the elegant ways to do MixIns in Python?

    - by Slava Vishnyakov
    I need to find an elegant way to do 2 kinds of MixIns. First: class A(object): def method1(self): do_something() Now, a MixInClass should make method1 do this: do_other() - A.method1() - do_smth_else() - i.e. basically "wrap" the older function. I'm pretty sure there must exist a good solution to this. Second: class B(object): def method1(self): do_something() do_more() In this case, I want MixInClass2 to be able to inject itself between do_something() and do_more(), i.e.: do_something() - MixIn.method1 - do_more(). I understand that probably this would require modifying class B - that's ok, just looking for simplest ways to achieve this. These are pretty trivial problems and I actually solved them, but my solution is tainted. Fisrt one by using self._old_method1 = self.method1(); self.method1() = self._new_method1(); and writing _new_method1() that calls to _old_method1(). Problem: multiple MixIns will all rename to _old_method1 and it is inelegant. Second MixIn one was solved by creating a dummy method call_mixin(self): pass and injecting it between calls and defining self.call_mixin(). Again inelegant and will break on multiple MixIns.. Any ideas?

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  • Trouble mocking on cucumber + rails

    - by Lucas d. Prim
    I'm having a lot of trouble trying to define a mock for a rails models on cucumber. It seems like the method is creating a bunch of message expectations and i keep getting errors like these: Given I have only a product named "Sushi de Pato" # features/step_definitions/product_ steps.rb:19 unexpected invocation: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.__mock_proxy() unsatisfied expectations: - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.errors(any_pa rameters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.id(any_parame ters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.to_param(any_ parameters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.new_record?(a ny_parameters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.destroyed?(an y_parameters) satisfied expectations: - allowed any number of times, not yet invoked: #<Mock:errors>.count(any_parameters) (Mocha::ExpectationError) I haven't yet implemented the ProductCategory class and I just want it to return an ID and a 'name' attribute. This is my step definition: Given /^I have only a product named "([^\"]*)"$/ do |name| @product = Product.create!(:name => name, :description => 'Foo', :price => 100, :points => 100, :category => mock_model(ProductCategory)) end And this is my env.rb file: $: << File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__),"..") require 'spec\spec_helper I am using RSPec 1.3.0, cucumber 0.6.3 and webrat 0.7.0 I've tried to use stubs as well but got some other errors instead...

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  • Which fieldtype is best for storing PRICE values?

    - by BerggreenDK
    Hi there I am wondering whats the best "price field" in MSSQL for a shoplike structure? Looking at this overview: http://www.teratrax.com/sql_guide/data_types/sql_server_data_types.html We have datatypes called money, smallmoney, then we have decimal/numeric and lastly float and real Name, memory/disk-usage and value ranges: Money: 8 bytes (values: -922,337,203,685,477.5808 to +922,337,203,685,477.5807) Smallmoney: 4 bytes (values: -214,748.3648 to +214,748.3647) Decimal: 9 [default, min. 5] bytes (values: -10^38 +1 to 10^38 -1 ) Float: 8 bytes (values: -1.79E+308 to 1.79E+308 ) Real: 4 bytes (values: -3.40E+38 to 3.40E+38 ) My question is: is it really wise to store pricevalues in those types? what about eg. INT? Int: 4 bytes (values: -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647) Lets say a shop uses dollars, they have cents, but I dont see prices being $49.2142342 so the use of a lot of decimals showing cents seems waste of SQL bandwidth. Secondly, most shops wouldn't show any prices near 200.000.000 (not in normal webshops at least... unless someone is trying to sell me a famous tower in Paris) So why not go for an int? An int is fast, its only 4 bytes and you can easily make decimals, by saving values in cents instead of dollars and then divide when you present the values. The other approach would be to use smallmoney which is 4 bytes too, but this will require the math part of the CPU to do the calc, where as Int is integer power... on the downside you will need to divide every single outcome. Are there any "currency" related problems with regionalsettings when using smallmoney/money fields? what will these transfer too in C#/.NET ? Any pros/cons? Go for integer prices or smallmoney or some other? Whats does your experience tell?

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  • Have to click twice to submit the form

    - by phil
    Intended function: require user to select an option from the drop down menu. After user clicks submit button, validate if an option is selected. Display error message and not submit the form if user fails to select. Otherwise submit the form. Problem: After select an option, button has to be clicked twice to submit the form. I have no clue at all.. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <style> p{display: none;} </style> </head> <script> $(function(){ // language as an array var language=['Arabic','Cantonese','Chinese','English','French','German','Greek','Hebrew','Hindi','Italian','Japanese','Korean','Malay','Polish','Portuguese','Russian','Spanish','Thai','Turkish','Urdu','Vietnamese']; $('#muyu').append('<option value=0>Select</option>'); //loop through array for (i in language) //js unique statement for iterate array { $('#muyu').append($('<option>',{id:'muyu'+i,val:language[i], html:language[i]})) } $('form').submit(function(){ alert('I am being called!'); // check if submit event is triggered if ( $('#muyu').val()==0 ) {$('#muyu_error').show(); } else {$('#muyu_error').hide(); return true;} return false; }) }) </script> <form method="post" action="match.php"> I am fluent in <select name='muyu' id='muyu'></select> <p id='muyu_error'>Tell us your native language</p> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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  • Why can't I start the Windows Update control panel with WinExec?

    - by Bill
    In Executing Control Panel Items, MSDN says this: Windows Vista Canonical Names In Windows Vista and later, the preferred method of launching a Control Panel item from a command line is to use the Control Panel item's canonical name. According to the Microsoft website this should work: The following example shows how an application can start the Control Panel item Windows Update with WinExec. WinExec("%systemroot%\system32\control.exe /name Microsoft.WindowsUpdate", SW_NORMAL); For Delphi 2010 I tried: var CaptionString: string; Applet: string; Result: integer; ParamString: string; CaptionString := ListviewApplets1.Items.Item[ ListviewApplets1.ItemIndex ].Caption; if CaptionString = 'Folder Options' then { 6DFD7C5C-2451-11d3-A299-00C04F8EF6AF } Applet := 'Microsoft.FolderOptions' else if CaptionString = 'Fonts' then {93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD} Applet := 'Microsoft.Fonts' else if CaptionString = 'Windows Update' then { 93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD } Applet := 'Microsoft.WindowsUpdate' else if CaptionString = 'Game Controllers' then { 259EF4B1-E6C9-4176-B574-481532C9BCE8 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GameControllers' else if CaptionString = 'Get Programs' then { 15eae92e-f17a-4431-9f28-805e482dafd4 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GetPrograms' //... ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; WinExec( ParamString, SW_NORMAL); <= This does not execute and when I trapped the error it returned ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND. I tried a ExecAndWait( ParamString ) method and it works perfectly with the same ParamString used with WinExec: ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; ExecAndWait( ParamString ); <= This executes and Runs perfectly The ExecAndWait method I used calls Windows.CreateProcess: if Windows.CreateProcess( nil, PChar( CommandLine ), nil, nil, False, 0, nil, nil, StartupInfo, ProcessInfo ) then begin try Does WinExec require a different ParamString, or am I doing this wrong with WinExec? I did not post the full ExecAndWait method but I can if someone wants to see it.

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  • Is it possible for two VS2008 C# class library projects to share a single namespace?

    - by jeah
    I am trying to share a common namespace between two projects in a single solution. The projects are "Blueprint" and "Repositories". Blueprint contains Interfaces for the entire application and serves as a reference for the application structure. In the Blueprint project, I have an interface with the following declaration: namespace Application.Repositories{ public interface IRepository{ IEntity Get(Guid id); } } In the Repositories project I have a class the following class: namespace Application.Repositories{ public class STDRepository: IRepository { STD Get(Guid id){ return new SkankyExGirlfriendDataContext() .FirstOrDefault<STD>(x=>x.DiseaseId == id); } } } However, this does not work. The Repositories project has a reference to the Blueprint project. I receive a VS error: "The type or namespace name 'IRepository' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) - Normally, this is easy to fix but adding a using statement doesn't make sense since they have the same namespace. I tried it anyway and it didn't work. The reference has been added, and without the line of code referencing that interface, both projects compile successfully. I am lost here. I have searched all over and have found nothing, so I am assuming that there is something fundamentally wrong with what I'm doing ... but I don't know what it is. So, I would appreciate some explanation or guidance as to how to fix this problem. I hope you guys can help. Note: The reason I want to do it this way and keep the interfaces under the same namespace is because I want a solid project to keep all the interfaces in, in order to have a reference for the full architecture of the application. I have considered work arounds, such as putting all of the interfaces in the Blueprint.Application namespace instead of the application namespace. However, that would require me to write the using statement on virtually every page in the application...and my fingers get tired. Thanks again guys...

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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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  • getting data from dynamic schema

    - by coure2011
    I am using mongoose/nodejs to get data as json from mongodb. For using mongoose I need to define schema first like this var mongoose = require('mongoose'); var Schema = mongoose.Schema; var GPSDataSchema = new Schema({ createdAt: { type: Date, default: Date.now } ,speed: {type: String, trim: true} ,battery: { type: String, trim: true } }); var GPSData = mongoose.model('GPSData', GPSDataSchema); mongoose.connect('mongodb://localhost/gpsdatabase'); var db = mongoose.connection; db.on('open', function() { console.log('DB Started'); }); then in code I can get data from db like GPSData.find({"createdAt" : { $gte : dateStr, $lte: nextDate }}, function(err, data) { res.writeHead(200, { "Content-Type": "application/json", "Access-Control-Allow-Origin": "*" }); var body = JSON.stringify(data); res.end(body); }); How to define scheme for a complex data like this, you can see that subSection can go to any deeper level. [ { 'title': 'Some Title', 'subSection': [{ 'title': 'Inner1', 'subSection': [ {'titile': 'test', 'url': 'ab/cd'} ] }] }, .. ]

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  • Updating section in ConfigParser (or an alternative)

    - by lyrae
    I am making a plugin for another program and so I am trying to make thing as lightweight as possible. What i need to do is be able to update the name of a section in the ConfigParser's config file. [project name] author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 I then have text fields where user can edit project's name, author, email and year. I don't think changing [project name] is possible, so I have thought of two solutions: 1 -Have my config file like this: [0] projectname: foobar author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 that way i can change project's name just like another option. But the problem is, i would need the section # to be auto incremented. And to do this i would have to get every section, sort of, and figure out what the next number should be. The other option would be to delete the entire section and its value, and re-add it with the updated values which would require a little more work as well, such as passing a variable that holds the old section name through functions, etc, but i wouldn't mind if it's faster. Which of the two is best? or is there another way? I am willing to go with the fastest/lightweight solution possible, doesn't matter if it requires more work or not.

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  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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