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Embed javascript in markdown

- by Paul Tarjan

I'm using the Maruku markdown processor. I'd like this *blah* blah "blah" in [markdown](blah) <script src="code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script> ...do stuff... </script> but it complains when I render it with a multitude of errors. The first one being ___________________________________________________________________________ | Maruku tells you: +--------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Could you please format this better? | I see that "<script type='text/javascript'>" is left after the raw HTML. | At line 31 | raw_html |<script src='http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js' /><script type='text/javascript'>| | text --> |//<![CDATA[| and then the rest seems like the parser is going nuts. Then it renders the javascript into a div on the page. I've tried making it a CDATA block and extra spacing between the jquery and my script. Help?

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Python client / server question

- by AustinM

I'm working on a bit of a project in python. I have a client and a server. The server listens for connections and once a connection is received it waits for input from the client. The idea is that the client can connect to the server and execute system commands such as ls and cat. This is my server code: import sys, os, socket host = '' port = 50105 s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) s.bind((host, port)) print("Server started on port: ", port) s.listen(5) print("Server listening\n") conn, addr = s.accept() print 'New connection from ', addr while (1): rc = conn.recv(5) pipe = os.popen(rc) rl = pipe.readlines() file = conn.makefile('w', 0) file.writelines(rl[:-1]) file.close() conn.close() And this is my client code: import sys, socket s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) host = 'localhost' port = input('Port: ') s.connect((host, port)) cmd = raw_input('$ ') s.send(cmd) file = s.makefile('r', 0) sys.stdout.writelines(file.readlines()) When I start the server I get the right output, saying the server is listening. But when I connect with my client and type a command the server exits with this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "server.py", line 21, in <module> rc = conn.recv(2) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/socket.py", line 165, in _dummy raise error(EBADF, 'Bad file descriptor') socket.error: [Errno 9] Bad file descriptor On the client side, I get the output of ls but the server gets screwed up.

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Return value of a JQuery autocomplete using an array of objects as its source

- by user2920430

In a JQuery autocomplete which uses an array of objects as its source, can I display the label in the INPUT and later access the value? The default behavior is that the value is displayed in the INPUT after selection. In this case the values represent indexes to unique keys in rows in a table. <!doctype html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>autocomplete demo</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/themes/smoothness/jquery-ui.css"> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.9.1.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> </head> <body> <label for="autocomplete">Select a programming language: </label> <input id="autocomplete"> <script> $( "#autocomplete" ).autocomplete({ source: [ { label:"c++", value:1 }, { label: "java", value:2 }, { label: "javascript", value:3 } ] }); </script> </body> </html>

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Jquery (non-gem) plugin won't work in my rails 3.2 app

- by jfdimark

I'm trying to equalize columns in my rails 3.2 app, and while there may be a better way to do it then my current attempt, after hours of trying to make it work I'd like to see if anyone can point out specifically why this jQuery plugin (which isn't a gem) is not working. I'm not getting any errors in the developer console, so it's hard to pin point. Here's the relevant code: The index view, where I've followed the plugin's instructions: div id="column-group"> <div class="equalize span5 offset1 UserProfile"> <% if user_signed_in? %> <h3>Hello <%= current_user.name %>!</h3> </div> <div class="equalize span5 MemberDisplay"> My application.js file, where I've also included the specific js code, so it would definitely be picked up by the application: //= require jquery //= require jquery_ujs //= require bootstrap //= require equalize_column_heights //= require_tree . $(document).ready(function() { $("#column-group").equalize_column_heights("equalize"); }); The jQuery plugin code, which is saved in my vendor/assets/javascripts folder: (function ($) { $.fn.equalize_column_heights = function (equalize_class) { var tallest_column=0; parent_id = "column-group" + $(this).attr("id") + " ." + equalize_class; $(parent_id).each(function(index, value) { if (tallest_column < $(this).height()){ tallest_column = $(this).height(); } }); $(parent_id).each(function(index, value) { $(this).css({'min-height': tallest_column}); }); } }(jQuery)); I've read all the rails guides documentation on the asset pipeline and all the relevant jQuery-rails3 questions on SO, but after several hours, I just can't seem to figure this one out. If anyone can point to other tutorials on how to get non-gem jQuery plugins to work in a Rails 3.2 app then I'd be glad to take a look!

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Shared Git repo syncing to svn causing git svn rebase to pollute repo with a log of no-op merge prob

- by John K

This wasn't so bad at the beginning, but now I have hundreds of no-op merge problems (solved by git rebase --skip). I have setup a shared git repo for my group because it is easier to deal with. But the company uses SVN so I have to keep SVN in sync with GIT. Worked like a dream at first, but after weeks of doing this GIT is giving me a lot of the following errors. Applying: * making all config actions work Using index info to reconstruct a base tree... Falling back to patching base and 3-way merge... Auto-merging app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb Auto-merging public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js Failed to merge in the changes. Patch failed at 0046 * making all config actions work My workflow: git co master git pull origin git svn rebase ... deal with no-op merge problems ... git svn dcommit git pull origin git push origin The problem is that what is in SVN is the correct so I use git rebase --skip, but I have to do that hundreds of times before I can dcommit. How do I clear these merge problems permanently?

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select list modified on-the-fly doesn't fire onChange() for new first element.

- by staremperor

In the code below, I'm using jquery 1.4.1 to modify the options in a select list when the user clicks on the list (replacing the single Old item with three New items). Selecting either New 2 or New 3 correctly fires the change() method (and show the alert), but selecting "New 1" does not. What am I missing? Thanks. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#dropdown").mousedown(function() { $(this).empty(); $(this).append($("<option></option>").attr("value",100).text("New 1")); $(this).append($("<option></option>").attr("value",200).text("New 2")); $(this).append($("<option></option>").attr("value",300).text("New 3")); }); $("#dropdown").change(function() { alert($(this).val()); }); }); </script> <body> <select id="dropdown"><option value="1">Old 1</option></select>

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How do I access a <form> that is not the master page <form>?

- by VBCSharp

Winforms developer converting to web developer. I know the part about the Master Page having the tag, what is not clear is if I can or can not have another in one of my content pages. I have been seeing both answers doing searches. I see yes you can if only one has runat=server. The thing is I have a that contains several radio buttons on a web page that has a master page. I have a .js file that has a function if I send the name into it, it will loop thru the controls in the form to see which one is selected and return the desired date horizon(MTD, QTD, YTD, etc.). When I run this on a non master page web page it works fine. However, when I run on a web page that has a master page I can't seem to get to the element. I tried getElementByID, I tried looping through the page elements, etc. Maybe I am going about this incorrectly and I hope someone can straighten me out. Here is the code from my .js file that may help explain what I am trying to do a little better. var frmDateRanges = document.getElementById(formFieldName); var chosen; var len = frmDateRanges.DateRanges.length; for(i=0;i<len;i++) { if(frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].checked) { chosen = frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].value; } } where formFieldName is an arguement that is passed into the function and DateRanges is the name value given to the radio buttons. In the button I call this function I have: onclick ="FunctionCall('frmDateRanges')" FunctionCall is just for description purposes, 'frmDateRanges' is the name and id given to the form action="" Thanks for the help as I am stumped at this point. If there is a better way to do this please let me know that as well.

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Can it be important to call remove() on an EJB 3 stateless session bean? Perhaps on weblogic?

- by Michael Borgwardt

I'm in the process of migrating an EJB 2 application to EJB 3 (and what a satisfying task it is to delete all those deployment descriptors!). It used to run on Weblogic and now runs on Glassfish. The task is going very smoothly, but one thing makes me wary: The current code takes great care to ensure that EJBObject.remove() is called on the bean when it's done its job, and other developers have (unfortunately very vague) memories of "bad things" happening when that was not done. However, with EJB3, the implementation class does not implement EJBObject, so there is no remove() method to be called. And my understanding is that there isn't really any point at all in calling it on stateless session beans, since they are, well, stateless. Could these "bad things" have been weblogic-specific? If not, what else? Should I avoid the full EJB3 lightweightness and keep a remote interface that extends EJBObject? Or just write it off as cargo-cult programming and delete all those try/finally clauses? I'm leaning towards the latter, but now feeling very comfortable with it.

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Setting a cookie based on the name of the link that is clicked.

- by Ozaki

TLDR When clicking on a link I want to assign a cookie with a name of instrument and a value of the text on the link clicked. Using Jquery.1.4.2.min.js, Jquery.cookie.1.0.js I am trying to create a cookie when a link is clicked (will always link to "page.html"). name of instrument value of the TEXT So far I am trying to use: Link1: <a href="page.html">link1</a> Link2: <a href="page.html">link2</a> Script: $('a[href=page.html]').click(function() { var name = 'instrument'; var value = $(this).text(); $.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 }); }); When I click the link it just loads the link and no cookie is set. Debugging with firebug, firecookie, firequery. No cookie for instrument or anything along the lines is found. Onload I'll hit the "<a href="page.html">projects</a>" but not the "$.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 });" at all.

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Does the Java Memory Model (JSR-133) imply that entering a monitor flushes the CPU data cache(s)?

- by Durandal

There is something that bugs me with the Java memory model (if i even understand everything correctly). If there are two threads A and B, there are no guarantees that B will ever see a value written by A, unless both A and B synchronize on the same monitor. For any system architecture that guarantees cache coherency between threads, there is no problem. But if the architecture does not support cache coherency in hardware, this essentially means that whenever a thread enters a monitor, all memory changes made before must be commited to main memory, and the cache must be invalidated. And it needs to be the entire data cache, not just a few lines, since the monitor has no information which variables in memory it guards. But that would surely impact performance of any application that needs to synchronize frequently (especially things like job queues with short running jobs). So can Java work reasonably well on architectures without hardware cache-coherency? If not, why doesn't the memory model make stronger guarantees about visibility? Wouldn't it be more efficient if the language would require information what is guarded by a monitor? As i see it the memory model gives us the worst of both worlds, the absolute need to synchronize, even if cache coherency is guaranteed in hardware, and on the other hand bad performance on incoherent architectures (full cache flushes). So shouldn't it be more strict (require information what is guarded by a monitor) or more lose and restrict potential platforms to cache-coherent architectures? As it is now, it doesn't make too much sense to me. Can somebody clear up why this specific memory model was choosen? EDIT: My use of strict and lose was a bad choice in retrospect. I used "strict" for the case where less guarantees are made and "lose" for the opposite. To avoid confusion, its probably better to speak in terms of stronger or weaker guarantees.

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Understanding Basic Prototyping & Updating Key/Value pairs

- by JordanD

First time poster, long time lurker. I'm trying to learn some more advanced features of .js, and have two ojectives based on the pasted code below: I would like to add methods to a parent class in a specific way (by invoking prototype). I intend to update the declared key/value pairs each time I make an associated method call. execMTAction as seen in TheSuper will execute each function call, regardless. This is by design. Here is the code: function TheSuper(){ this.options = {componentType: "UITabBar", componentName: "Visual Browser", componentMethod: "select", componentValue: null}; execMTAction(this.options.componentType, this.options.componentName, this.options.componentMethod, this.options.componentValue); }; TheSuper.prototype.tapUITextView = function(val1, val2){ this.options = {componentType: "UITextView", componentName: val1, componentMethod: "entertext", componentValue: val2}; }; I would like to execute something like this (very simple): theSuper.executeMTAction(); theSuper.tapUITextView("a", "b"); Unfortunately I am unable to overwrite the "this.options" in the parent, and the .tapUITextView method throws an error saying it cannot find executeMTAction. All I want to do, like I said, is to update the parameters in the parent, then have executeMTAction run each time I make any method call. That's it. Any thoughts? I understand this is basic but I'm coming from a long-time procedural career and .js seems to have this weird confluence of oo/procedural that I'm having a bit of difficulty with. Thanks for any input!

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modified closure warning in ReSharper

- by Sarah Vessels

I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

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Javascript ( jQuery ) Error: SyntaxError: missing ) after argument list

- by Obmerk Kronen

I have the simplest function : jQuery(document).ajaxSuccess(function(e, xhr, settings) { var widget_id_base = '099_cf_samurai_widget'; if(settings.data.search('action=save-widget') != -1 && settings.data.search('id_base=' + widget_id_base) != -1) { // alert(\'yay!'\); my_function_chosen_099(); } }); function my_function_chosen_099(){ jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(); } which works just fine , but When I add the width Parameter like so : function my_function_chosen_k99(){ jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:'95%'); } it gives me an error of: Error: SyntaxError: missing ) after argument list Source File: http://localhost/my-path/js/o99.chosen.init.js?ver=k99 Line: 20, Column: 41 Source Code: jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:"95%"); .............................................| I have tried escaping: jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:\"95%"\); and even double jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:\\"95%"\\); and in my desperation, even jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen( width:"95%" ); I checked and rechecked the closing of brackets , and also tried with single quotes ' - but nothing . There appear to be a lot of similar questions here , but all I saw was escaping problems, ANd I have tried all that I know .. What is wrong here ?? I assume it is not a simple syntax error - or is it ? ( one which I can not find .. )

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"pseudo-atomic" operations in C++

- by dan

So I'm aware that nothing is atomic in C++. But I'm trying to figure out if there are any "pseudo-atomic" assumptions I can make. The reason is that I want to avoid using mutexes in some simple situations where I only need very weak guarantees. 1) Suppose I have globally defined volatile bool b, which initially I set true. Then I launch a thread which executes a loop while(b) doSomething(); Meanwhile, in another thread, I execute b=true. Can I assume that the first thread will continue to execute? In other words, if b starts out as true, and the first thread checks the value of b at the same time as the second thread assigns b=true, can I assume that the first thread will read the value of b as true? Or is it possible that at some intermediate point of the assignment b=true, the value of b might be read as false? 2) Now suppose that b is initially false. Then the first thread executes bool b1=b; bool b2=b; if(b1 && !b2) bad(); while the second thread executes b=true. Can I assume that bad() never gets called? 3) What about an int or other builtin types: suppose I have volatile int i, which is initially (say) 7, and then I assign i=7. Can I assume that, at any time during this operation, from any thread, the value of i will be equal to 7? 4) I have volatile int i=7, and then I execute i++ from some thread, and all other threads only read the value of i. Can I assume that i never has any value, in any thread, except for either 7 or 8? 5) I have volatile int i, from one thread I execute i=7, and from another I execute i=8. Afterwards, is i guaranteed to be either 7 or 8 (or whatever two values I have chosen to assign)?

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Is a web-server (e.g servlets) a good solution for an IM server?

- by John

I'm looking at a new app, broadly speaking an IM application with a strong client-server model - all communications go through a server so they can be logged centrally. The server will be Java in some form, clients could at this point be anything from a .NET Desktop app to Flex/Silverlight, to a simple web-interface using JS/AJAX. I had anticipated doing the server using standard J2EE so I get a thread-safe, multi-user server for 'free'... to make things simple let's say using Servlets (but in practice SpringMVC would be likely). This all seemed very neat but I'm concerned if the stateless nature of Servlets is the best approach. If my memory of servlets (been a year or two) is right, each time a client sent a HTTP request, typically a new message entered by the user, the servlet could not assume it had the user/chat in memory and might have to get it from the DB... regardless it has to look it up. Then it either has to use some PUSH system to inform other members of the chat, or cache that there are new messages, for other clients who poll the server using AJAX or similar - and when they poll it again has to lookup the chat, including new messages, and send the new data. I'm wondering if a better system would be the server is running core Java, and implements a socket-based communication with clients. This allows much more immediate data transfer and is more flexible if say the IM client included some game you could play. But then you're writing a custom server and sockets don't sound very friendly to a browser-based client on current browsers. Am I missing some big piece of the puzzle here, it kind of feels like I am? Perhaps a better way to ask the question would simply be "if the client was browser-based using HTML/JS and had to run on IE7+,FF2+ (i.e no HTML5), how would you implement the server?" edit: if you are going to suggest using XMPP, I have been trying to get my head around this in another question, so please consider if that's a more appropriate place to discuss this specifically.

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cURL/PHP Request Executes 50% of the Time

- by makavelli

After searching all over, I can't understand why cURL requests issued to a remote SSL-enabled host are successful only 50% or so of the time in my case. Here's the situation: I have a sequence of cURL requests, all of them issued to a HTTPS remote host, within a single PHP script that I run using the PHP CLI. Occasionally when I run the script the requests execute successfully, but for some reason most of the times I run it I get the following error from cURL: * About to connect() to www.virginia.edu port 443 (#0) * Trying 128.143.22.36... * connected * Connected to www.virginia.edu (128.143.22.36) port 443 (#0) * successfully set certificate verify locations: * CAfile: none CApath: /etc/ssl/certs * error:140943FC:SSL routines:SSL3_READ_BYTES:sslv3 alert bad record mac * Closing connection #0 If I try again a few times I get the same result, but then after a few tries the requests will go through successfully. Running the script after that again results in an error, and the pattern continues. Researching the error 'alert bad record mac' didn't give me anything helpful, and I hesitate to blame it on an SSL issue since the script still runs occasionally. I'm on Ubuntu Server 10.04, with php5 and php5-curl installed, as well as the latest version of openssl. In terms of cURL specific options, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER is set to false, and both CURLOPT_TIMEOUT and CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT are set to 4 seconds. Further illustrating this problem is the fact that the same exact situation occurs on my Mac OS X dev machine - the requests only go through ~50% of the time.

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c++ code cons/pros

- by VirusEcks

below i have a code that runs in most of my simple programs .. . i want to know if it's good/bad ... and cons/pros . . win32 header file: win32.h #include <windows.h> #include <process.h> #include <stdarg.h> main header file: inc.h #include "win32.h" #ifndef INCS #define INCS #define DD #else #define DD extern #endif #ifndef VARS #define titlen L"my program" #endif DD wchar_t gtitle[512]; DD wchar_t gclass[512]; DD wchar_t gdir[32767]; #include "resources.h" #include "commonfunctions.h" then all files have something like this commonfunctions.h DD inline bool icmp( const char *String1, const char *String2 ) { if ( _stricmp( String1, String2 ) == 0 ) { return true; } return false; } DD inline bool scmp( const char *String1, const char *String2 ) { if ( strcmp( String1, String2 ) == 0 ) { return true; } return false; } all global variables have DD infront of them and all functions have DD too . is there a bad side of this ? . i came up with this idea and it wasn't problematic at all in small programs . but before i apply it in a large project will it be problematic ?. thanks in advance.

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How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

- by Day

In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

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Jquery Block on my document .ready function not working

- by kumar

Hello Friens, I have this code, I added JS Script file to my Master page. <script src="/Scripts/Jquery.blockUI.js" type="text/javascript"></script> This Below code I have in my master page.on document.ready <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.blockUI({ message: $('#question'), css: { width: '275px'} }); }); </script> <div id="question" style="display:none; cursor: default"> <h2 class="padding"><br />An unexpected system error has occurred while processing your request.<br /></h2> <h3>We apologize for this inconvenience.<br /> Please report this error to your system administrator with the following information:<br /><br /> Session id is:</h3> <input type="button" id="OK" value="OK" /> </asp:Content> On my Document.ready Function my BlockUi is not working? can any body tell me why its not working? thanks

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jquery simplemodal close wont work in firefox

- by junkqwe

I am using jquery.simplemodal 1.3.5 (i tried older versions) the close button doesnt close the modal in firefox (i tried IE and it work fine) this is the test page i am using: <html> <head> <title>Untitled Page</title> <style> #simplemodal-overlay { background-color:#000; cursor:wait; } #simplemodal-container a.modalCloseImg { background: url(../images/modal_close.png) no-repeat; width:25px; height:29px; display:inline; z-index:3200; position:absolute; top:15px; right:18px; cursor:pointer; } .modala { width: 372px; height: 206px; background: url(../images/modal.png) no-repeat; } </style> </head> <body> test page <script language="javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" src="/include/jquery.simplemodal-1.3.5.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $("body").click(function() { $.modal("<div class=\"modala\"><h1>SimpleModal</h1></div>", {overlayClose: true} ); }); </script> </body> </html> what can be the problem? is it a known problem with simplemodal and FF?

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jQuery not working as expected on HTTPS Internet explorer

- by jat

When I try to run my code on any other webbrowsers apart from the Internet explorer it works fine. But when I try to run the code on Internet explorer I do get an alert box saying HERE along with an Ok button. but the problem is when I click on that OK button I do not get anything. Ideally I should be getting another alert box. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(event) { alert("here"); $.post('process.php', {name:'test1',email:'test.com'}, function(data) { $('#results').html(data); alert(data); }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form name="myform" id="myform" action="" method="POST"> <label for="name" id="name_label">Name</label> <input type="text" name="name" id="name" size="30" value=""/> <br> <label for="email" id="email_label">Email</label> <input type="text" name="email" id="email" size="30" value=""/> <br> <input type="button" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit"> </form> <div id="results"><div> </body> </html> Any help on this is very much appreciated. Edit: I found out that Internet Explorer which has HTTP works perfectly fine but not on Internet Explorer which uses HTTPS.

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javascript unable to locate a form using the ID tag

- by ihake

Here's my problem: I'm trying to set up a simple mobile contact form with a captcha built in. The page I'm working on can be found here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/contact.php I'm using the following php contact form: http://www.html-form-guide.com/contact-form/php-email-contact-form.html I want to first say that I'm not the only one to run into this problem. After googling the issue, I've found multiple people struggling with this, but no-one seems to have an answer. Now for the problem... As you can see if you visit the page, each time the page is accessed, an error appears that says "Error: couldnot get Form object contact_form". I cannot--for the life of me--figure out why the javascript can't find the form I pass it. I call the function that generates this error at the top of the page: var frmvalidator = new Validator("contact_form"); The form I'm referencing is as follows in the HTML code: <div data-role="page" data-theme="e" id="contact_form" name="contact_form" data-position="inline"> ... And the function that is called that generates the error can be found in an external .js file here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/scripts/gen_validatorv31.js Is there something that I am simply not seeing? Why can't the javascript locate the form? Thanks so much to anyone that helps with this.

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A question of style/readability regarding the C# "using" statement

- by Charles

I'd like to know your opinion on a matter of coding style that I'm on the fence about. I realize there probably isn't a definitive answer, but I'd like to see if there is a strong preference in one direction or the other. I'm going through a solution adding using statements in quite a few places. Often I will come across something like so: { log = new log(); log.SomeProperty = something; // several of these log.Connection = new OracleConnection("..."); log.InsertData(); // this is where log.Connection will be used ... // do other stuff with log, but connection won't be used again } where log.Connection is an OracleConnection, which implements IDisposable. The neatnik in me wants to change it to: { log = new log(); using (OracleConnection connection = new OracleConnection("...")) { log.SomeProperty = something; log.Connection = conn; log.InsertData(); ... } } But the lover of brevity and getting-the-job-done-slightly-faster wants to do: { log = new log(); log.SomeProperty = something; using (log.Connection = new OracleConnection("...")) log.InsertData(); ... } For some reason I feel a bit dirty doing this. Do you consider this bad or not? If you think this is bad, why? If it's good, why?

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Passing HTML form data in the URL on local machine (file://)

- by atzz

Hi, I'm building a small HTML/JS application for primary use on local machine (i.e. everything is accessed via file:// protocol, though maybe in the future it will be hosted on a server within intranet). I'm trying to make a form with method="get" and action="target.html", in the hope that the browser will put form data in the URL (like, file://<path>/target.html?param1=aaa&param2=bbb). However, it's not happening (target.html opens fine, but no parameters is passed). What am I doing wrong? Is it possible to use forms over file:// at all? I can always build the url manually (via JS), but being lazy I'd prefer the browser do it for me. ;) Here is my sample form: <form name='config' action="test_form.html" method="get" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded"> <input type="text" name="param1"> <input type="text" name="param2"> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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Developers: How does BitLocker affect performance?

- by Chris

I'm an ASP.NET / C# developer. I use VS2010 all the time. I am thinking of enabling BitLocker on my laptop to protect the contents, but I am concerned about performance degradation. Developers who use IDEs like Visual Studio are working on lots and lots of files at once. More than the usual office worker, I would think. So I was curious if there are other developers out there who develop with BitLocker enabled. How has the performance been? Is it noticeable? If so, is it bad? My laptop is a 2.53GHz Core 2 Duo with 4GB RAM and an Intel X25-M G2 SSD. It's pretty snappy but I want it to stay that way. If I hear some bad stories about BitLocker, I'll keep doing what I am doing now, which is keeping stuff RAR'ed with a password when I am not actively working on it, and then SDeleting it when I am done (but it's such a pain).

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