Search Results

Search found 7959 results on 319 pages for 'broken logic'.

Page 231/319 | < Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >

  • Server-side SSH jump hosts

    - by Dan Sosedoff
    Trying to figure out server side SSH jump hosts logic. Current network schema: [Client] <--> [Server A: hostname: a.com] <--> [Server B] [Client] <--> [Server A: hostname: b.com] <--> [Server C] Server A responds to both DNS records. Possible flow: Client opens a ssh connection with ssh [email protected]. Server A accepts it and should automatically jump user onto Server B with ssh user2@server_b.com. Client opens a ssh connection with ssh [email protected]. Server A accepts it and should automatically just user onto Server C with ssh user2@server_c.com. In other words, client should be able to connect to the target without performing any local configuration, assuming that we have a stock ssh config. The problem with ssh jumps is that user has to define hosts in local ~/.ssh/config file, which is not acceptable in my case. It needs to be a default sshd behavior. Im aware that you can define a custom command ~/.ssh/authorized_keys on server, but i dont think there is a way to properly detect source hostname where user tries to connect. It is possible at all ?

    Read the article

  • when to upgrade server to include more cores, versus more processors, versus additional server?

    - by gkdsp
    The server hosting market is separated into single, double, qual, etc., processors, where each processor has several cores, or CPUs. My company will offer a Linux-based web application that relies on an Apache web server and a middle tier for business logic. The middle tier is used to crunch math, and return result to a client. Many clients may access the application simultaneously. The company will start with one processor having 4 cores. I'm trying to understand how the app uses the cores and then how to scale the application as business grows, in terms of servers/processors/cores. For example, I'd assume initially one core would be used for Apache, and the other 3 used to process client's requests for math crunching... Question 1: does that mean, with the 3 cores available, I can handle 3 separate client requests simultaneously (e.g. 1 for each of 3 cores)? I mean, except for the shared RAM, is this effectively like having 3 individual machines (from pt of view or processing client requests simulaneously)? Or, only one client's request may be processed at any one time, but that client's request is divided up into up to 3 cores depending on the type of process running that does the math crunching and whether or not it can take advantage of multi threading (so the # of cores impacts how fast any one client request completes)? I'm confused about what the cores mean to the application here. Question 2: As the business grows and more client requests need to be processed, should the server be upgraded to (A) a new machine with more cores, (B) a new machine with two processors, 4 cores each, or (C) keep the original server and add another server with a single processor? Which route provides the most efficient way to scale the application, in terms of processing more client requests per time interval? Is the choice, for example, limited by RAM (when you need more RAM than box can handle it's time to add another server), or something else? Question 3: Is the total number of client requests processed simultaneously equal to the number of cores times the number of servers (minus the one core for Apache)?

    Read the article

  • Mail-Merge on Steroids: Can Word 2003 do this?

    - by richardtallent
    I have a huge report to put together, made up of over 1,000 smaller, nearly-identical reports. Each report includes: General 1:1 information (basic mail-merge stuff) Lots of text, some of which may need to be disabled or have alternate text based on a boolean field. A few embedded images, preferably loaded via HTTP URL, but if they have to be on the a file system thing I can do that. (Filenames will be provided as a field in the data source.) Fortunately, all images are roughly the same size/shape. Several 1:m tables with a few fields apiece. The kicker is the master/child tables. I've seen examples for Word 2000 for doing this by left-joining the master and child table and using some IF/THEN logic to know whether to jump to the next master record. But in my case, I have several of these subtables, so that approach won't really work. So, can Word 2003 handle arbitrary master/child tables? If so, how? If not, I considered InfoPath, but I haven't used it before, and it seems to be made for data entry, not long formatted reports. I'm a software developer, so I could always hack something together with a massive VBA macro, or generating the report in HTML on the web server (where the data is coming from anyway). But I'm hoping Word will work without such gymnastics, since it will give the ultimate users of the report template better control over formatting and making minor changes.

    Read the article

  • Why does Google Analytics use two domains?

    - by AKeller
    I'm building a distributed widget that is comparable to Google Analytics. Users will add a <script> tag to their site that references my widget's JavaScript file. The Google Analytics tracking code looks like this: var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-XXXXXXXX-X']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); (function () { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(ga, s); })(); Can anyone explain the reasoning behind separate HTTP and HTTPS hostnames? My instinct is to just secure the www address and then use the protocol-less syntax, like //www.google-analytics.com/ga.js. But I'm sure the Google Analytics architects put a lot of thought into this approach. I'd love to understand their logic before I follow/ignore their model.

    Read the article

  • SNMP query - operation not permitted

    - by jperovic
    I am working on API that reads a lot of data via SNMP (routes, interfaces, QoS policies, etc...). Lately, I have experienced a random error stating: Operation not permitted Now, I use SNMP4J as core library and cannot really pinpoint the source of error. Some Stackoverflow questions have suggested OS being unable to open sufficient number of file handles but increasing that parameter did not help much. The strange thing is that error occurs only when iptables is up and running. Could it be that firewall is blocking some traffic? I have tried writing JUnit test that mimicked application's logic but no errors were fired... Any help would be appreciated! Thanks! IPTABLES *nat :PREROUTING ACCEPT [2:96] :POSTROUTING ACCEPT [68:4218] :OUTPUT ACCEPT [68:4218] # route redirect za SNMP Trap i syslog -A PREROUTING -i eth0 -p udp -m udp --dport 514 -j REDIRECT --to-ports 33514 -A PREROUTING -i eth0 -p udp -m udp --dport 162 -j REDIRECT --to-ports 33162 COMMIT *filter :INPUT ACCEPT [0:0] :FORWARD ACCEPT [0:0] :OUTPUT ACCEPT [0:0] -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -p icmp -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT ..... # SNMP -A INPUT -p udp -m state --state NEW -m udp --dport 161 -j ACCEPT # SNMP trap -A INPUT -p udp -m state --state NEW -m udp --dport 162 -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -p udp -m state --state NEW -m udp --dport 33162 -j ACCEPT ..... -A INPUT -j REJECT --reject-with icmp-host-prohibited -A FORWARD -j REJECT --reject-with icmp-host-prohibited COMMIT

    Read the article

  • auth user and exec a node app only with apache?

    - by Blame
    I couldn't find an answer on the web and I'm trying for days now so I hope that someone with more experience with apache can help me out. Iam writing an web editor and the user should be able to edit a file that is on the server in a directory the user has access to. The problem Iam facing is that I need to authenticate against the system users (shadow/passwd). So the user should be able to login whith a system account and then the node app which does all the logic should be started with the users rights. I hope to get this working without any additional script and only with Apache. I found out two things: I can use mod_auth_pam to authenticate the user There is a mod called suEXEC which can exec the node app with a specified user The problem is that I have to hard code which user is used by suEXEC but I want to decide when the user logs in. Is there any way to authenticate a user against the shadow/passwd and then exec a prog with the users rights? I dont want to run the node app as root and the user should only be able to access his own files. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks, Kodak

    Read the article

  • Moving from 1 Linux Partition to Many over USB Mount

    - by Mistiry
    We have devices which use Compact Flash for storage. They work OK, but we recently got industrial-grade CF cards to start using. One of the major problems we get is corruption on the flash card. As it is now, these flash cards run Debian with everything in a single partition. We want to have multiple partitions on the new industrial CF cards to help avoid some of the corruption problems. I booted up the device, and attached a USB CF reader. I then used fdisk to partition the CF card in the USB reader. How can I move the data to these partitions so that it works? I have a partition for each of these directories: /lib /var /root /boot /tmp /home /etc / swap space I imagine I can't just use rsync - do I need to attach a second CF reader with a copy of the CF card, so that it's not active and in-use - and then copy from the first reader to the second? How will the system know where to find its files? I know I'd have to change fstab, but that resides in /etc, which will be on a separate partition...how will it find the fstab file if it can't find /etc? And what about grub? I'm at a loss, perhaps its just because I'm under the weather, or I'm just missing a piece of logic here... Any help is greatly appreciated, this is somewhat urgent as our existing stock is nearing its end and we don't want to purchase anything but these industrial cards, but need to get it working with partitions.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to use VirtualBox without using it's resource registry?

    - by Catskul
    Summary VirtualBox seems to want everything to be "registered" which makes it much more annoying to work with on the command line. I'm attempting to create an automated script which will create, move, start, stop, and destroy virtual machines and virtual disks. Requiring registration will complicate the task for the following reasons. leaves state information around that can cause unpredicted edgecases causing scripts to fail. creates potential name space collisions for multiple process creating VMs with the same name moving/copying resources on the same machine is more complicated because references in the registry need to be updated copying resources (disk + vm combination) to another machine require reconfiguration once they reach their target machine, and require the transfer of extra meta data to do the reconfiguration. If something unexpectedly fails, and an unregister thus fails to happen, left over configuration information can cause problems in subsequent runs. Use Case My specific use case is for a continuous integration server which creates and destroys VMs and Disk images potentially with the same name, and would require more logic to deal with the registry's statefulness. Imaginary Example It seems that I should just be able to for example (using some imaginary and/or incorrect commands): mkdir foobar customdiskimg_script ./foo/foo.vdi vboxmanage createvm --name "foo" --ostype Linux --basefolder ./foo/foo.xml vboxmanage storagectl ./foo/foo.xml --name foo --add ide vboxmanage storageattach --storagectl foo --medium ./foo/foo.vdi ./foo/foo.xml vboxmanage startvm ./foo/foo.xml TLDR Is there a way to use virtualbox without "registering" harddisks and VMs?

    Read the article

  • How do I setup routing for two companies with different Internet connections on the same LAN?

    - by Clint Miller
    Here's the setup: Two companies (A & B) share office space and a LAN. A 2nd ISP is brought in and company A wants its own Internet connection (ISP A) and company B wants its own Internet connection (ISP B). VLANs are deployed internally to separate the two companies' networks (company A: VLAN 1, company B: VLAN 2, shared VOIP: VLAN 3). With separate VLANs it's simple enough to use separate DHCP servers (or separate scopes on the same server) to assign the default gateway to each company's gateway for their Internet connection. Static routes can be created on each gateway to point traffic destined for the other company's VLAN or the voice VLAN so that all nodes are reachable as expected. However, I think this is a form of asymmetrical routing, right? (The path from node A1 to node B1 is not the same as the path back from node B1 to node A1). Can I set up policy-based routing to correct this? In that case, can I assign the same default gateway to every device on all VLANs and create a routing policy on a L3 switch to look at the source address and forward traffic to the appropriate next hop? In that case, I want the routing logic to go like this: If the destination address is known, forward the traffic (traffic destined for a different VLAN). If the destination address is unknown, forward the traffic to ISP A's gateway if the source address is on VLAN A; or forward the traffic to ISP B's gateway if the source address is VLAN B. Am I thinking about this problem in the correct way? Is there another way to solve this problem that I am overlooking?

    Read the article

  • exchange server 2010 with multiple domains

    - by air
    i have one exchange server 2010, which is working fine with one domain. my exchange is working as follows pop3 collector collect emails from one master catchall account and then deliver to exchange server, this working perfect. now what i want to add another domain to same exchange, i have added new domain as trusted domain & email policy and this new domain email account works fine with internal emails. now what i have done, i again forward new email account to same catchall account. but if i send email from any other external email address email is bounce, i can see email receive by pop3 collector but bounce by exchange server. to make you more clear let me explain logic on which i am working. i have 2 domains 1. domain1.com ([email protected]) 2. domain2.com ([email protected] -->[email protected]) now on my machine with exchange server i have pop3 collector which collect all emails from [email protected] and forward to exchange 2010 server. all emails to domain1.com is working perfect but when i send email to [email protected] this email redirect to [email protected] perfectly but when exchanger server receive this email, it bounce. i have also study the url link text and follow the whole process but no success. i also check that my DNS/MX is working fine as the bounce message is going from my exchange server. EDIT the only problem is with accepted domain, as email come to exchange server then bounce back. i just try this today i create one user called test, then i goto his properties -- email there was only one email account [email protected] i try to send email to [email protected] from internet (email bounce) then again i go to test user properties -- email and Add one email [email protected] again u try to send email to t*[email protected]* from internet (email received) i think the only problem is with accepted domain but in hub transport , it shows accepted is there any way to check does domain is properly accepted or not in exchange 2010 server. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Expand a volume residing on one X-RAID disk installed on a Netgear ReadyNas Duo v2

    - by Sid
    I've got a Netgear ReadyNas Duo v2 (2 disk slots). System is configured with X-RAID which does not provide flexibility but automatically expands based on a sort of RAID-5 logic. I had 2 500 GB hard disk installed, redundant, so I had 500 GB of volume size. I wanted to upgrade the whole system to 3 GB * 2 hard disk maintaining both the data already on the NAS and the data on one of the two 3 TB hard disks. So I did this: Unplugged one disk from the ReadyNas. Now the readynas has 1*500 GB non redundant. Plugged one empty 3 TB hard disk. Now the readynas has 1*500 GB + 1*3 TB, redundant. I waited for the resync. I then unplugged the 500 GB hard disk, so that I have only the 3 TB hard disk with the previous data. Now what I want is to copy the data on my other 3 TB hard disk in the NAS, so that I can plug this other disk in the NAS and use it for redundancy. The problem is that: the NAS has the (single) 3 TB hard disk in X-RAID, but the volume does not expand to 3 TB, it remains fixed to 500 GB. Is there a way to tell the ReadyNas to force expanding the volume to the whole disk without plugging in another hard disk of the same size?

    Read the article

  • Odd one: IE6 showing the "view source" command enabled when I was expecting it to be disabled.

    - by caerphilly
    Hi, OK, I admit this problem is odd. I'm just trying to understand why IE is behaving the way it is. I realise that logic may not apply here :) I have Internet Explorer 6 (Sp1) running on Windows 2000. The IE option "Do not store encrypted pages to disk" is checked (enabled). The temporary internet files folder is empty. TEMP and TMP environment variables are set to valid folders. I'm connected to a web server over SSL. The web server is serving a page over SSL with the HTTP cache-control header set to "no-cache, no-store". I was expecting the "view source" command to be greyed out in this circumstance (as it is on another machine). But it works. When I "view source", I get an entry in the Temporary Internet Files folder with an "internet address" property of "view-source:https://myserver/...." and the content of the page. I wasn't expecting that. I can't understand why one machine is different to another in this regard. Obviously there is some environment/setup difference, but I can't track it down. Anyone have any bright ideas?

    Read the article

  • Hosting options for data-enabled web application

    - by Hertfordian
    I am independently developing an asp.net business application with a MySQL database. I currently have a Windows web hosting account which includes MySQL and MS SQL as installed supported options. I am not yet finally committed to using MySQL and I want to keep my options open to evaluate MS SQL and possibly other options such as PostGreSQL later when more of the business logic is in place - my data access layer will handle the database connectivity. The web hosting setup I have now is fine for development purposes, but if in future I want to use, say, PostGreSQL Server, and a level of usage of, say, 10,000 hits per day concentrated in business hours, I'm assuming I'll need a dedicated server. But in that case, should I just install PostGreSQL on the dedicated server, or is best practice to have a separate database server - perhaps locked down so that it can only be accessed through the web server? And supposing it was only 2000 hits a day - how would that change things? I'd appreciate it if anyone could point me in the direction of a useful guide to these sorts of issues. Naturally if I start paying for separate servers, I would like to know exactly why I'm doing it and what the performance issues and thresholds are.

    Read the article

  • Integrating external computer into a domain - some recommendations please

    - by TomTom
    Given: * A multi loation company. Every office has local routers that connect to a central VPN capable rouer in a data center. All fine so far. We now need to move a computer off site into a hosting center across the globe, to get it closer to some supplier computers we work for. it will run limited logic but latency is important, and our latency so far is too large. This computer will be in a data center and does no require incoming connections except for adminsitrative purposes, although it needs outgoing connetions. I have no real chance to put one of my VPN routers there, sadly - otherwise I would have no problem. Usage of RRAs is not recommended (we had various probblems there over time). I could deal with it. The computer MUSt integrate into the corporate structure via VPN and join the domain and be fully "tracked" (controlled for performance). What is the best suggestion? So far it looks like my best bets woudl be to log in via RRAS and deal with whatever issues arise there plus uise the local firewall the limit incoming connections to this computer to what is needed (which runs down to an emergency RDP connection allowance). Anyone a better idea?

    Read the article

  • MSBuild (.NET 4.0) access problems

    - by JMP
    I'm using Cruise Control .NET as my build server (Windows 2008 Server). Yesterday I upgraded my ASP.NET MVC project from VS 2008/.NET 3.5 to VS 2010/.NET 4.0. The only change I made to my ccnet.config's MSBuild task was the location of MSBuild.exe. Ever since I made that change, the build has been broken with the error: MSB4019 - The imported project "C:\Program Files (x86)\MSBuild\Microsoft\VisualStudio\v10.0\WebApplications\Microsoft.WebApplication.targets" was not found. Confirm that the path in the declaration is correct, and that the file exists on disk. This file does, in fact, exist in the location specified (I solved a problem similar to this when setting up the build server for VS2008/.NET 3.5 by copying the files from my dev environment to my build environment). So I RDP'ed into the build machine and opened a command prompt, used MSBUILD to attempt to build my project. MSBUILD returns the error: MSB3021 - Unable to copy file "obj\debug....dll". Access to the path 'bin....dll' is denied. Since I'm running MSBUILD from the command prompt, logged in with an account that has administrative privileges, I'm assuming that MSBUILD is running with the same privileges that I have. Next, I tried to copy the file that MSBUILD was attempting to copy. In this case, I get the UAC dialog that makes me click the [Continue] button to complete the copy. I'd like to avoid installing Visual Studio 2010 on my build machine, can anyone suggest other fixes I might try?

    Read the article

  • Could not load file or assembly FSharp.Core, Version=4.0.0.0

    - by Ken
    I'm trying to deploy a web application which uses F# 4.0 on Windows Server 2008. It works on my computer where VS2010 is installed but it doesn't work on the server. Everytime you open the page you'll get this error message: Could not load file or assembly 'FSharp.Core, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I've installed .NET 4 using the web platform installer. F# PowerPack is installed too. I found this page: http://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/details/507202/error-in-working-with-f It suggests you to reinstall F#, but the link to download F# seems to be broken. And it might not be the same problem I have. I've also tried to install Microsoft F# 2.0.0.0 since it's the only F# redistribution I could find. But it doesn't help at all. Has anyone get something like this to work? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Mocking HttpContext in .NET MVC2 using Moq

    - by Richard
    Hi, This was working in MVC 1, but has broken in MVC 2. I'm mocking the HttpContext so I can test routes. The code was originally taken from Steven Sanderson's book. I've tried mocking some extra properties as suggested in this comment but it hasn't fixed it. What am I missing? This is the start of my test code. routeData is null when this code completes. // Arange RouteCollection routeConfig = new RouteCollection(); MvcApplication.RegisterRoutes(routeConfig); var mockHttpContext = makeMockHttpContext(url); // Act RouteData routeData = routeConfig.GetRouteData(mockHttpContext.Object); This method creates my mock HttpContext: private static Mock<HttpContextBase> makeMockHttpContext(String url) { var mockHttpContext = new Mock<System.Web.HttpContextBase>(); // Mock the request var mockRequest = new Mock<HttpRequestBase>(); mockHttpContext.Setup(t => t.Request).Returns(mockRequest.Object); mockRequest.Setup(t => t.AppRelativeCurrentExecutionFilePath).Returns(url); // Tried adding these to fix in MVC2 (didn't work) mockRequest.Setup(r => r.HttpMethod).Returns("GET"); mockRequest.Setup(r => r.Headers).Returns(new NameValueCollection()); mockRequest.Setup(r => r.Form).Returns(new NameValueCollection()); mockRequest.Setup(r => r.QueryString).Returns(new NameValueCollection()); mockRequest.Setup(r => r.Files).Returns(new Mock<HttpFileCollectionBase>().Object); // Mock the response var mockResponse = new Mock<HttpResponseBase>(); mockHttpContext.Setup(t => t.Response).Returns(mockResponse.Object); mockResponse.Setup(t => t.ApplyAppPathModifier(It.IsAny<String>())).Returns<String>(t => t); return mockHttpContext; }

    Read the article

  • Socket error 10052 on UDP socket

    - by Jesper
    We have a .NET 2.0 desktop application which sends and receives network packets over UDP. Several users have reported an occasional socket error 10052 which happens when the code calls socket.BeginReceiveFrom on a the UDP socket. What does this mean? The official MS documentation for socket error 10052 says - quote: "WSAENETRESET (10052) Network dropped connection on reset . The connection has been broken due to keep-alive activity detecting a failure while the operation was in progress. It can also be returned by setsockopt if an attempt is made to set SO_KEEPALIVE on a connection that has already failed." This just doesn't make much sense for a UDP socket since UDP is a connectionless protocol. I know that another close error code 10054 in connection with UDP sockets means that an ICMP message "Port Unreachable" was received, and I am wondering if 10052 might map to another ICMP message? I have googled this for months, read network books, etc. but can't find anything. Please help - what does socket error 10052 on a UDP socket mean? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Synchronizing Asynchronous request handlers in Silverlight environment

    - by Eric Lifka
    For our senior design project my group is making a Silverlight application that utilizes graph theory concepts and stores the data in a database on the back end. We have a situation where we add a link between two nodes in the graph and upon doing so we run analysis to re-categorize our clusters of nodes. The problem is that this re-categorization is quite complex and involves multiple queries and updates to the database so if multiple instances of it run at once it quickly garbles data and breaks (by trying to re-insert already used primary keys). Essentially it's not thread safe, and we're trying to make it safe, and that's where we're failing and need help :). The create link function looks like this: private Semaphore dblock = new Semaphore(1, 1); // This function is on our service reference and gets called // by the client code. public int addNeed(int nodeOne, int nodeTwo) { dblock.WaitOne(); submitNewNeed(createNewNeed(nodeOne, nodeTwo)); verifyClusters(nodeOne, nodeTwo); dblock.Release(); return 0; } private void verifyClusters(int nodeOne, int nodeTwo) { // Run analysis of nodeOne and nodeTwo in graph } All copies of addNeed should wait for the first one that comes in to finish before another can execute. But instead they all seem to be running and conflicting with each other in the verifyClusters method. One solution would be to force our front end calls to be made synchronously. And in fact, when we do that everything works fine, so the code logic isn't broken. But when it's launched our application will be deployed within a business setting and used by internal IT staff (or at least that's the plan) so we'll have the same problem. We can't force all clients to submit data at different times, so we really need to get it synchronized on the back end. Thanks for any help you can give, I'd be glad to supply any additional information that you could need!

    Read the article

  • C# Convert Excel Range to Dataset or Datatable, etc.

    - by htbrady
    I have an Excel spreadsheet that will sit out on a network share drive. It needs to be accessed by my Winforms C# 3.0 application (many users could be using the app and hitting this spreadsheet at the same time). There is a lot of data on one worksheet. This data is broken out into areas that I have named as ranges. I need to be able to access these ranges individually, return each range as a dataset, and then bind it to a grid. I have found examples that use OLE and have got these to work. However, I have seen some warnings about using this method, plus at work we have been using Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel as the standard thus far. I don't really want to stray from this unless I have to. Our users will be using Office 2003 on up as far as I know. I can get the range I need with the following code: MyDataRange = (Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Range)MyWorkSheet.get_Range("MyExcelRange", Type.Missing); The OLE way was nice as it would take my first row and turn those into columns. My ranges (12 total) are for the most part different from each other in number of columns. Didn't know if this info would affect any recommendations. Is there any way to use Interop and get the returned range back into a dataset? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • EWS 2010: Public Folder Problem using .NET

    - by Daniel
    I've recently coded a .NET Console app using C#. It's purpose was to read the emails within a specific folder, parse them for specific values and save them to a database. Our email system, at the time I originally coded this, was Exchange 2003. However, I was made aware we would soon be upgrading to Exchange 2010: ergo, I built the code to work in both environments. Following the migration to 2010, however, the app has broken. The app uses the EWS API for 2010 functionality. When it attempts to use the ExchangeService's FindFolders method to find the publicfoldersroot, it throws an exception. Here's the code: ExchangeService service = new ExchangeService(); FindFoldersResults findRootFldrs; service.UseDefaultCredentials = true; service.AutodiscoverUrl("[email protected]", delegate(string x) { return true; }); FolderView fview = new FolderView(100); fview.Traversal = FolderTraversal.Deep; if (findRootFldrsSub == null) { //Set to root to test local folders -- findRootFldrs = service.FindFolders(WellKnownFolderName.PublicFoldersRoot, fview); } The exception: "The mailbox that was requested doesn't support the specified RequestServerVersion" I've attempted: -Setting the exchangeservice to 2007 (throws an exception: "An internal server error occurred. The operation failed.") -Giving myself the highest level of permission to the Public Folder (no effect) -Manually setting my credentials (no effect) I can view the public folders in outlook; the publicfoldersroot property is available in the intellisense; the code works on local folders (I can parse my inbox). My current thinking is that it's a setting on the recent setup of Exchange 2010: unfortunately that isn't really my field.

    Read the article

  • C# Sockets Buffer Overflow No Error

    - by Michael Covelli
    I have one thread that is receiving data over a socket like this: while (sock.Connected) { // Receive Data (Block if no data) recvn = sock.Receive(recvb, 0, rlen, SocketFlags.None, out serr); if (recvn <= 0 || sock == null || !sock.Connected) { OnError("Error In Receive, recvn <= 0 || sock == null || !sock.Connected"); return; } else if (serr != SocketError.Success) { OnError("Error In Receive, serr = " + serr); return; } // Copy Data Into Tokenizer tknz.Read(recvb, recvn); // Parse Data while (tknz.MoveToNext()) { try { ParseMessageAndRaiseEvents(tknz.Buffer(), tknz.Length); } catch (System.Exception ex) { string BadMessage = ByteArrayToStringClean(tknz.Buffer(), tknz.Length); string msg = string.Format("Exception in MDWrapper Parsing Message, Ex = {0}, Msg = {1}", ex.Message, BadMessage); OnError(msg); } } } And I kept seeing occasional errors in my parsing function indicating that the message wasn't valid. At first, I thought that my tokenizer class was broken. But after logging all the incoming bytes to the tokenizer, it turns out that the raw bytes in recvb weren't a valid message. I didn't think that corrupted data like this was possible with a tcp data stream. I figured it had to be some type of buffer overflow so I set sock.ReceiveBufferSize = 1024 * 1024 * 8; and the parsing error never, ever occurs in testing (it happens often enough to replicate if I don't change the ReceiveBufferSize). But my question is: why wasn't I seeing an exception or an error state or something if the socket's internal buffer was overflowing before I changed this buffer size?

    Read the article

  • infinite loop shutting down ensime

    - by Jeff Bowman
    When I run M-X ensime-disconnect I get the following forever: string matching regex `\"((?:[^\"\\]|\\.)*)\"' expected but `^@' found and I see this exception when I use C-c C-c Uncaught exception in com.ensime.server.SocketHandler@769aba32 java.net.SocketException: Broken pipe at java.net.SocketOutputStream.socketWrite0(Native Method) at java.net.SocketOutputStream.socketWrite(SocketOutputStream.java:109) at java.net.SocketOutputStream.write(SocketOutputStream.java:153) at sun.nio.cs.StreamEncoder.writeBytes(StreamEncoder.java:220) at sun.nio.cs.StreamEncoder.implFlushBuffer(StreamEncoder.java:290) at sun.nio.cs.StreamEncoder.implFlush(StreamEncoder.java:294) at sun.nio.cs.StreamEncoder.flush(StreamEncoder.java:140) at java.io.OutputStreamWriter.flush(OutputStreamWriter.java:229) at java.io.BufferedWriter.flush(BufferedWriter.java:253) at com.ensime.server.SocketHandler.write(server.scala:118) at com.ensime.server.SocketHandler$$anonfun$act$1$$anonfun$apply$mcV$sp$1.apply(server.scala:132) at com.ensime.server.SocketHandler$$anonfun$act$1$$anonfun$apply$mcV$sp$1.apply(server.scala:127) at scala.actors.Actor$class.receive(Actor.scala:456) at com.ensime.server.SocketHandler.receive(server.scala:67) at com.ensime.server.SocketHandler$$anonfun$act$1.apply$mcV$sp(server.scala:127) at com.ensime.server.SocketHandler$$anonfun$act$1.apply(server.scala:127) at com.ensime.server.SocketHandler$$anonfun$act$1.apply(server.scala:127) at scala.actors.Reactor$class.seq(Reactor.scala:262) at com.ensime.server.SocketHandler.seq(server.scala:67) at scala.actors.Reactor$$anon$3.andThen(Reactor.scala:240) at scala.actors.Combinators$class.loop(Combinators.scala:26) at com.ensime.server.SocketHandler.loop(server.scala:67) at scala.actors.Combinators$$anonfun$loop$1.apply(Combinators.scala:26) at scala.actors.Combinators$$anonfun$loop$1.apply(Combinators.scala:26) at scala.actors.Reactor$$anonfun$seq$1$$anonfun$apply$1.apply(Reactor.scala:259) at scala.actors.ReactorTask.run(ReactorTask.scala:36) at scala.actors.ReactorTask.compute(ReactorTask.scala:74) at scala.concurrent.forkjoin.RecursiveAction.exec(RecursiveAction.java:147) at scala.concurrent.forkjoin.ForkJoinTask.quietlyExec(ForkJoinTask.java:422) at scala.concurrent.forkjoin.ForkJoinWorkerThread.mainLoop(ForkJoinWorkerThread.java:340) at scala.concurrent.forkjoin.ForkJoinWorkerThread.run(ForkJoinWorkerThread.java:325) Is there something else I'm missing in my config or I should check on? Thanks, Jeff

    Read the article

  • Does Android XML Layout's 'include' Tag Really Work?

    - by Eric Burke
    I am unable to override attributes when using <include> in my Android layout files. When I searched for bugs, I found Declined Issue 2863: "include tag is broken (overriding layout params never works)" Since Romain indicates this works in the test suites and his examples, I must be doing something wrong. My project is organized like this: res/layout buttons.xml res/layout-land receipt.xml res/layout-port receipt.xml The buttons.xml contains something like this: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal"> <Button .../> <Button .../> </LinearLayout> And the portrait and landscape receipt.xml files look something like: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical"> ... <!-- Overridden attributes never work. Nor do attributes like the red background, which is specified here. --> <include android:id="@+id/buttons_override" android:background="#ff0000" android:layout_width="fill_parent" layout="@layout/buttons"/> </LinearLayout> What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • How do I achieve a 'select or insert' task using LINQ to EF?

    - by ProfK
    I have an import process with regions, locations, and shifts, where a Shift object has a Location property, and a Location object has a Region property. If a region name does not exist, I create the region, and like wise a location. I thought I could neatly encapsulate the 'Select if exists, or create' logic into helper classes for Region and Location, but if I use local data contexts in these classes I run into attach and detach overheads that become unpleasent. If I include a data context dependency in these classes, my encapsulation feels broken. What is the ideal method for achieving this, or where is the ideal place to place this functionality? In my example I have leaned heavily on the foreign key crutch provided with .NET 4.0, and simply avoided using entities in favour of direct foreign key values, but this is starting to smell. Example: public partial class ActivationLocation { public static int GetOrCreate(int regionId, string name) { using (var ents = new PvmmsEntities()) { var loc = ents.ActivationLocations.FirstOrDefault(x => x.RegionId == regionId && x.Name == name); if (loc == null) { loc = new ActivationLocation {RegionId = regionId, Name = name}; ents.AddToActivationLocations(loc); ents.SaveChanges(SaveOptions.AcceptAllChangesAfterSave); } return loc.LocationId; } } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >