Search Results

Search found 15438 results on 618 pages for 'static allocation'.

Page 235/618 | < Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >

• Trouble binding WPF Menu to ItemsSource

  - by chaiguy

  I would like to avoid having to build a menu manually in XAML or code, by binding to a list of ICommand-derived objects. However, I'm experiencing a bit of a problem where the resulting menu has two levels of menu-items (i.e. each MenuItem is contained in a MenuItem): My guess is that this is happening because WPF is automatically generating a MenuItem for my binding, but the "viewer" I'm using actually already is a MenuItem (it's derived from MenuItem): <ContextMenu x:Name="selectionContextMenu" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={x:Static OrangeNote:Note.MultiCommands}}" ItemContainerStyleSelector="{StaticResource separatorStyleSelector}"> <ContextMenu.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Viewers:NoteCommandMenuItemViewer CommandParameter="{Binding Source={x:Static OrangeNote:App.Screen}, Path=SelectedNotes}" /> </DataTemplate> </ContextMenu.ItemTemplate> </ContextMenu> (The ItemContainerStyleSelector is from http://bea.stollnitz.com/blog/?p=23, which allows me to have Separator elements inside my bound source.) So, the menu is bound to a collection of ICommands, and each item's CommandParameter is set to the same global target (which happens to be a collection, but that's not important). My question is, is there any way I can bind this such that WPF doesn't automatically wrap each item in a MenuItem?

  Read the article

• Entity Framework lazy loading doesn't work from other thread

  - by Thomas Levesque

  Hi, I just found out that lazy loading in Entity Framework only works from the thread that created the ObjectContext. To illustrate the problem, I did a simple test, with a simple model containing just 2 entities : Person and Address. Here's the code : private static void TestSingleThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p.Name, p.Address.City); } } } private static void TestMultiThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Person p2 = p; // to avoid capturing the loop variable ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem( arg => { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p2.Name, p2.Address.City); }); } } } The TestSingleThread method works fine, the Address property is lazily loaded. But in TestMultiThread, I get a NullReferenceException on p2.Address.City, because p2.Address is null. It that a bug ? Is this the way it's supposed to work ? If so, is there any documentation mentioning it ? I couldn't find anything on the subject on MSDN or Google... And more importantly, is there a workaround ? (other than explicitly calling LoadProperty from the worker thread...) Any help would be very appreciated PS: I'm using VS2010, so it's EF 4.0. I don't know if it was the same in the previous version of EF...

  Read the article

• iPhone - dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier usage

  - by Jukurrpa

  Hi, I'm working on a iPhone app which has a pretty large UITableView with data taken from the web, so I'm trying to optimize its creation and usage. I found out that dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier is pretty useful, but after seeing many source codes using this, I'm wondering if the usage I make of this function is the good one. Here is what people usually do: UITableViewCell* cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"Cell"]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:@"Cell"]; // Add elements to the cell return cell; And here is the way I did it: NSString identifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Cell @d", indexPath.row]: // The cell row UITableViewCell* cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identifier]; if (cell != nil) return cell; cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:identifier]; // Add elements to the cell return cell; The difference is that people use the same identifier for every cell, so dequeuing one only avoids to alloc a new one. For me, the point of queuing was to give each cell a unique identifier, so when the app asks for a cell it already displayed, neither allocation nor element adding have to be done. In fine I don't know which is best, the "common" method ceils the table's memory usage to the exact number of cells it display, whislt the method I use seems to favor speed as it keeps all calculated cells, but can cause large memory consumption (unless there's an inner limit to the queue). Am I wrong to use it this way? Or is it just up to the developper, depending on his needs?

  Read the article

• Flex - Flash Builder Design View not showing embedded fonts correctly

  - by Crusader

  Tools: Air 2, Flex SDK 4.1, Flash Builder, Halo component set (NO Spark being used at all) Fonts work perfectly when running the appliction, but not in design view. This effectively makes design view WORTHLESS because it's impossible to properly position components or labels without knowing what the true size is (it changes depending on font...) ... CSS included in root component like so: <fx:Style source="style.css"/> CSS file: /* CSS file */ @namespace mx "library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx"; global { font-family:Segoe; font-size:14; color:#FFFFFF; } mx|Application, mx|VBox, mx|HBox, mx|Canvas { font-family:Segoe; background-color:#660000; border-color:#222277; color:#FFFFFF; } mx|Button { font-family:Segoe; fill-colors:#660000, #660000, #660000, #660000; color:#FFFFFF; } .... Interestingly (or buggily?), when I try pasting the style tag into a subcomponent (lower than the top level container), I get a bunch of warnings in the subcomponent editor view stating that CSS type selectors are not supported in.. (all the components in the style sheet). Yet, they do work when the application is executed. Huh? This is how I'm embedding the fonts in the root level container: [Embed(source="/assets/segoepr.ttf", fontName="Segoe", mimeType="application/x-font-truetype", embedAsCFF='false')] public static const font:Class; [Embed(source="/assets/segoeprb.ttf", fontName="Segoe", mimeType="application/x-font-truetype", fontWeight="bold", embedAsCFF='false')] public static const font2:Class; So, is there a way to get embedded fonts to work in design view or what?

  Read the article

• Sometimes Xcode appears to ignore target build settings?

  - by Derek Clarkson

  Hi all, I've created a iPhone static library project with two targets like this Project -- Library (Device) target -- Library (simulator) target The device target has the SDK set to the device so it produces an armv6/7 library and the simulator target is set to the simulator SDK so it produces an i386 library. The issue I'm having is that the SDK settings on the targets keep getting overridden by the XCode active target setting. i.e. if I build the device target, but the XCode window is showing the active SDK as being the simlulator, XCode will build a simulator library instead of a device library, ignoring the settings of the target. Although it will put it into the *-iphoneos/ directory in the build directories! I originally had the same issue with another static library project, and after a lot of playing around got everything to work correctly. i.e. The targets ignore the XCode active SDK because they have their own specifications of what to build. The problem is that I don't know what made it work in that project and I have not been able to reproduce the issue in it either. Does anyone have any ideas as to what is going on? ciao Derek

  Read the article

• Make an ActiveX control work without a form?

  - by Earlz

  We are using Topaz Signature pads. They provide their APIs in the from of an ActiveX control which is to be put on a Winform control. Well, the way our project will work we do not want to have a form(at least not visible). We just want for the signature ActiveX control to get an image in the background. static AxSigPlus sig = new AxSIGPLUSLib.AxSigPlus(); public static void Begin() { ((System.ComponentModel.ISupportInitialize)(sig)).BeginInit(); sig.Name = "sig"; sig.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(0, 0); sig.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(0, 0); sig.Enabled = true; sig.TabletState = 1; //error here sig.SigCompressionMode = 0; } Ok so I get an error at the marked line. The exception is Exception of type 'System.Windows.Forms.AxHost+InvalidActiveXStateException' was thrown. What do I do to solve this problem? Would it just be easier to create a new hidden form and put the control on it so it's invisible?

  Read the article

• EF 4.0 : Save Changes Retry Logic

  - by BGR

  Hi, I would like to implement an application wide retry system for all entity SaveChanges method calls. Technologies: Entity framework 4.0 .Net 4.0 namespace Sample.Data.Store.Entities { public partial class StoreDB { public override int SaveChanges(System.Data.Objects.SaveOptions options) { for (Int32 attempt = 1; ; ) { try { return base.SaveChanges(options); } catch (SqlException sqlException) { // Increment Trys attempt++; // Find Maximum Trys Int32 maxRetryCount = 5; // Throw Error if we have reach the maximum number of retries if (attempt == maxRetryCount) throw; // Determine if we should retry or abort. if (!RetryLitmus(sqlException)) throw; else Thread.Sleep(ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(attempt)); } } } static Int32 ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(Int32 attempt) { Int32 connectionRetryWaitSeconds = 2000; // Backoff Throttling connectionRetryWaitSeconds = connectionRetryWaitSeconds * (Int32)Math.Pow(2, attempt); return (connectionRetryWaitSeconds); } /// <summary> /// Determine from the exception if the execution /// of the connection should Be attempted again /// </summary> /// <param name="exception">Generic Exception</param> /// <returns>True if a a retry is needed, false if not</returns> static Boolean RetryLitmus(SqlException sqlException) { switch (sqlException.Number) { // The service has encountered an error // processing your request. Please try again. // Error code %d. case 40197: // The service is currently busy. Retry // the request after 10 seconds. Code: %d. case 40501: //A transport-level error has occurred when // receiving results from the server. (provider: // TCP Provider, error: 0 - An established connection // was aborted by the software in your host machine.) case 10053: return (true); } return (false); } } } The problem: How can I run the StoreDB.SaveChanges to retry on a new DB context after an error occured? Something simular to Detach/Attach might come in handy. Thanks in advance! Bart

  Read the article

• GZIP Java vs .NET

  - by Jim Jones

  Using the following Java code to compress/decompress bytes[] to/from GZIP. First text bytes to gzip bytes: public static byte[] fromByteToGByte(byte[] bytes) { ByteArrayOutputStream baos = null; try { ByteArrayInputStream bais = new ByteArrayInputStream(bytes); baos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); GZIPOutputStream gzos = new GZIPOutputStream(baos); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int len; while((len = bais.read(buffer)) >= 0) { gzos.write(buffer, 0, len); } gzos.close(); baos.close(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return(baos.toByteArray()); } Then the method that goes the other way compressed bytes to uncompressed bytes: public static byte[] fromGByteToByte(byte[] gbytes) { ByteArrayOutputStream baos = null; ByteArrayInputStream bais = new ByteArrayInputStream(gbytes); try { baos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); GZIPInputStream gzis = new GZIPInputStream(bais); byte[] bytes = new byte[1024]; int len; while((len = gzis.read(bytes)) > 0) { baos.write(bytes, 0, len); } } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return(baos.toByteArray()); } Think there is any effect since I'm not writing out to a gzip file? Also I noticed that in the standard C# function that BitConverter reads the first four bytes and then the MemoryStream Write function is called with a start point of 4 and a length of input buffer length - 4. So is that effect the validity of the header? Jim

  Read the article

• Singleton with inheritance, Derived class is not able to get instantiated in parent?

  - by yesraaj

  Below code instantiates a derived singleton object based on environment variable. The compiler errors saying error C2512: 'Dotted' : no appropriate default constructor. I don't understand what the compiler is complaining about. #include <stdlib.h> #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; class Dotted; class Singleton{ public: static Singleton instant(){ if (!instance_) { char * style = getenv("STYLE"); if (!style){ if (strcmp(style,"dotted")==0) { instance_ = new Dotted(); return *instance_; } } else{ instance_ = new Singleton(); return *instance_; } } return *instance_; } void print(){cout<<"Singleton";} ~Singleton(){}; protected: Singleton(){}; private: static Singleton * instance_; Singleton(const Singleton & ); void operator=(const Singleton & ); }; class Dotted:public Singleton{ public: void print(){cout<<"Dotted";} protected: Dotted(); }; Dotted::Dotted():Singleton(){} int main(){ Singleton::instant().print(); cin.get(); }

  Read the article

• How to Disable/Enable WYSIWYG editor in Magento 1.4

  - by latvian

  Hi When entering code in CMS static block(possible page as well) and in this code there is empty DIV tags such us: <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"><div class="dropoff_button"></div></a> The DIV tags will be gone next time you open the block to edit. it will look as this <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"> </a> without the div tags ...and saving again it modifies your code. I think it something to do with the 'show/hide editor'. By default it goes into the WYSIWYG editor, so when updating static block i don't see any other solution than 1."hide the editor' by clicking 'show/hide editor' 2.delete the old code from the editor 3. get code that doesn't miss the DIVs 4. Merge new code with code in 3 in some other editing software than magento 5. paste result in the magento editor, 6. Save Is this bug? What is your solution? Can i turn of WYSIWYG editor?

  Read the article

• This property cannot be set after writing has started! on a C# WebRequest Object

  - by EBAGHAKI

  I want to reuse a WebRequest object so that cookies and session would be saved for later request to the server. Below is my code. If i use Post function twice on the second time at request.ContentLength = byteArray.Length; it will throw an exception This property cannot be set after writing has started! But as you can see dataStream.Close(); Should close the writing process! Anybody knows what's going on? static WebRequest request; public MainForm() { request = WebRequest.Create("http://localhost/admin/admin.php"); } static string Post(string url, string data) { request.Method = "POST"; byte[] byteArray = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(data); request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; request.ContentLength = byteArray.Length; Stream dataStream = request.GetRequestStream(); dataStream.Write(byteArray, 0, byteArray.Length); dataStream.Close(); WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); Console.WriteLine(((HttpWebResponse)response).StatusDescription); dataStream = response.GetResponseStream(); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(dataStream); string responseFromServer = reader.ReadToEnd(); Console.WriteLine(responseFromServer); reader.Close(); dataStream.Close(); response.Close(); request.Abort(); return responseFromServer; }

  Read the article

• Sync Vs. Async Sockets Performance in .NET

  - by Michael Covelli

  Everything that I read about sockets in .NET says that the asynchronous pattern gives better performance (especially with the new SocketAsyncEventArgs which saves on the allocation). I think this makes sense if we're talking about a server with many client connections where its not possible to allocate one thread per connection. Then I can see the advantage of using the ThreadPool threads and getting async callbacks on them. But in my app, I'm the client and I just need to listen to one server sending market tick data over one tcp connection. Right now, I create a single thread, set the priority to Highest, and call Socket.Receive() with it. My thread blocks on this call and wakes up once new data arrives. If I were to switch this to an async pattern so that I get a callback when there's new data, I see two issues The threadpool threads will have default priority so it seems they will be strictly worse than my own thread which has Highest priority. I'll still have to send everything through a single thread at some point. Say that I get N callbacks at almost the same time on N different threadpool threads notifying me that there's new data. The N byte arrays that they deliver can't be processed on the threadpool threads because there's no guarantee that they represent N unique market data messages because TCP is stream based. I'll have to lock and put the bytes into an array anyway and signal some other thread that can process what's in the array. So I'm not sure what having N threadpool threads is buying me. Am I thinking about this wrong? Is there a reason to use the Async patter in my specific case of one client connected to one server?

  Read the article

• Can't operator == be applied to generic types in C#?

  - by Hosam Aly

  According to the documentation of the == operator in MSDN, For predefined value types, the equality operator (==) returns true if the values of its operands are equal, false otherwise. For reference types other than string, == returns true if its two operands refer to the same object. For the string type, == compares the values of the strings. User-defined value types can overload the == operator (see operator). So can user-defined reference types, although by default == behaves as described above for both predefined and user-defined reference types. So why does this code snippet fail to compile? void Compare<T>(T x, T y) { return x == y; } I get the error Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'T' and 'T'. I wonder why, since as far as I understand the == operator is predefined for all types? Edit: Thanks everybody. I didn't notice at first that the statement was about reference types only. I also thought that bit-by-bit comparison is provided for all value types, which I now know is not correct. But, in case I'm using a reference type, would the the == operator use the predefined reference comparison, or would it use the overloaded version of the operator if a type defined one? Edit 2: Through trial and error, we learned that the == operator will use the predefined reference comparison when using an unrestricted generic type. Actually, the compiler will use the best method it can find for the restricted type argument, but will look no further. For example, the code below will always print true, even when Test.test<B>(new B(), new B()) is called: class A { public static bool operator==(A x, A y) { return true; } } class B : A { public static bool operator==(B x, B y) { return false; } } class Test { void test<T>(T a, T b) where T : A { Console.WriteLine(a == b); } }

  Read the article

• Apache rewrite rules redux

  - by AlexanderJohannesen

  I've got a REST framework that when plopped into any directory should Just Work(TM), and it seems to work fine when I've got projects in subdirectories, but not if it's in root. So, given a few example directories; / /project1 /bingo/project2 /hoopla/doopla/minor/project3 All of these works fine, except I'm getting "funnies"* when the project runs in the root directory (bit hard to explain, I suppose, but the second level rewrites are not working properly). Here's my attempt at a generic .htaccess file: RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^static/ - [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^$ RewriteRule .* ./ [R,L] RewriteRule ^index.php - [L] RewriteRule (.*) index.php?q=$1 [QSA,PT] (And yes, all projects have a subdirectory ./static which is ignored by rewrites) What I'm trying to achieve is a set of rewrite rules that work for most cases (which is, again, plonking the project in a directory the webserver serves). I'm not a rewrite rules wiz by a long shot, and any good advice and gotchas would be appreciated (and yes, I've gone through too many introductory articles. I need some serious juice.) More info on the funnies; my webserver has docroot in one spot (under /usr/share/apache2/default-site/), but a set of rules that says that /projects is pulled in from somewhere else that's not a subdirectory of docroot (/home/user/Projects/). When I go there, I get a list of /projects subdirectories, and if one of those subdirectories gets called (restmapp) with the proposed rewrite rules, I get ; The requested URL /home/user/Projects/restmapp/index.php was not found on this server.

  Read the article

• android logging sdcard

  - by Abhi Rao

  Hello, With Android-Emulator I am not able to write/create a file on the SD Card (for logging). Here is what I have done so far - Run mksdcard 8192K C:\android-dev\emu_sdcard\emu_logFile - Create a new AVD, when assign emu_logFile to it so that when I view the AVD Details it says C:\android-dev\emu_sdcard\emu_logFile against the field "SD Card" - Here is the relevant code public class ZLogger { static PrintWriter zLogWriter = null; private static void Initialize() { try { File sdDir = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(); if (sdDir.canWrite()) { : File logFile = new File (sdDir, VERSION.RELEASE + "_" + ".log"); FileWriter logFileWriter = new FileWriter(logFile); zLogWriter = new PrintWriter(logFileWriter); zLogWriter.write("\n\n - " + date + " - \n"); } } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("ZLogger", "Count not write to file: " + e.getMessage()); } } sdDir.canWrite returns false - please note it not the exception from adb shell when I do ls I see sdcard as link to /mnt/sdcard. When I do ls -l /mnt here is what I see ls -l /mnt ls -l /mnt drwxr-xr-x root system 2010-12-24 03:41 asec drwx------ root root 2010-12-24 03:41 secure d--------- system system 2010-12-24 03:41 sdcard whereas if I go to the directory where I created emu_sdcard - I see a lock has been issued, as shown here C:dir android-dev\emu_sdcard Volume in drive C is Preload Volume Serial Number is A4F3-6C29 Directory of C:\android-dev\emu_sdcard 12/24/2010 03:41 AM . 12/24/2010 03:41 AM .. 12/24/2010 03:17 AM 8,388,608 emu_logFile 12/24/2010 03:41 AM emu_logFile.lock 1 File(s) 8,388,608 bytes 3 Dir(s) 50,347,704,320 bytes free I have looked at these and other SO questions Android Emulator sdcard push error: Read-only file system (2) Not able to view SDCard folder in the FileExplorer of Android Eclipse I have added the following to AndroidManifest.xml **uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" ** Please let me know your thoughts - what am I missing here? Why does canWrite return false? What should I do to add permissions to sdcard?

  Read the article

• Force full garbage collection when memory occupation goes beyond a certain threshold

  - by Silvio Donnini

  I have a server application that, in rare occasions, can allocate large chunks of memory. It's not a memory leak, as these chunks can be claimed back by the garbage collector by executing a full garbage collection. Normal garbage collection frees amounts of memory that are too small: it is not adequate in this context. The garbage collector executes these full GCs when it deems appropriate, namely when the memory footprint of the application nears the allotted maximum specified with -Xmx. That would be ok, if it wasn't for the fact that these problematic memory allocations come in bursts, and can cause OutOfMemoryErrors due to the fact that the jvm is not able to perform a GC quickly enough to free the required memory. If I manually call System.gc() beforehand, I can prevent this situation. Anyway, I'd prefer not having to monitor my jvm's memory allocation myself (or insert memory management into my application's logic); it would be nice if there was a way to run the virtual machine with a memory threshold, over which full GCs would be executed automatically, in order to release very early the memory I'm going to need. Long story short: I need a way (a command line option?) to configure the jvm in order to release early a good amount of memory (i.e. perform a full GC) when memory occupation reaches a certain threshold, I don't care if this slows my application down every once in a while. All I've found till now are ways to modify the size of the generations, but that's not what I need (at least not directly). I'd appreciate your suggestions, Silvio P.S. I'm working on a way to avoid large allocations, but it could require a long time and meanwhile my app needs a little stability

  Read the article

• Unable to connect to UNC share with WindowsIdentity.Impersonate, but works fine using LogonUser

  - by Rob

  Hopefully I'm not missing something obvious here, but I have a class that needs to create some directories on a UNC share and then move files to the new directory. When we connect using LogonUser things work fine with no errors, but when we try and use the user indicated by Integrated Windows authentication we run into problems. Here's some working and non-working code to give you an idea what is going on. The following works and logs the requested information: [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); IntPtr token; WindowsIdentity wi; if (LogonUser("user", "network", "password", 8, // LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK_CLEARTEXT 0, // LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT out token)) { wi = new WindowsIdentity(token); WindowsImpersonationContext wic = wi.Impersonate(); Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); wic.Undo(); CloseHandle(token); } The following fails and gives an error message indicating the network name is not available, but the correct user name is indicated by GetCurrent().Name: WindowsIdentity identity = (WindowsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; using (identity.Impersonate()) { Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); }

  Read the article

• Two classes and inline functions

  - by klew

  I have two classes and both of them uses some of the other class, on example: // class1.h class Class1; #include "class2.h" class Class1 { public: static Class2 *C2; ... }; // class2.h class Class2; #include "class1.h" class Class2 { public: static Class1 *C1; ... }; And when I define it like in example above, it works (I also have some #ifndef to avoid infinite header recurency). But I also want to add some inline functions to my classes. And I read here that I should put definition of inline function in header file, because it won't work if I'll put them in cpp file and want to call them from other cpp file (when I do it I get undefined reference during linking). But the problem here is with something like this: // class1.h ... inline void Class1::Foo() { C2->Bar(); } I get error: invalid use of incomplete type ‘struct Class2’. So how can I do it?

  Read the article

• How to avoid "Illegal type in constant pool" using "ldc_w <classname>" in Jasmin?

  - by jazzdev

  I'm writing a compiler that generates Jasmin code and want to invoke a method that takes a Class as a parameter. public class CTest { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { java.lang.reflect.Array.newInstance(CTest.class, 0); } } So in Jasmin, I think that should be: .class public CTest2 .super java/lang/Object .method public static main([Ljava/lang/String;)V .limit stack 2 .limit locals 1 ldc_w CTest2 iconst_0 invokestatic java/lang/reflect/Array/newInstance(Ljava/lang/Class;I)Ljava/lang/Object; pop return .end method When I assemble it and run it I get: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.VerifyError: (class: CTest2, method: main signature: ([Ljava/lang/String;)V) Illegal type in constant pool Looking at the disassembled code for both CTest.class (the Java version) and CTest2.class (the Jasmin version) with "javap -c -verbose" they both appear to set up the constant pool the same way: const #2 = class #16; // CTest const #16 = Asciz CTest; 0: ldc_w #2; //class CTest const #14 = Asciz CTest2; const #17 = class #14; // CTest2 0: ldc_w #17; //class CTest2 I've fixed two bugs in Jasmin already, but I can't see what it's doing wrong when putting the class in the constant pool for "ldc_w" it puts classes in the constant pool for other instructions, like "new" and "anewarray" correctly. I've tried looking at the .class files with TraceClassVisitor in ASM, but it doesn't dump the constant pool. Any ideas what I can try next?

  Read the article

• Producing Mini Dumps for _caught_ SEH exceptions in mixed code DLL

  - by Assaf Lavie

  I'm trying to use code similar to clrdump to create mini dumps in my managed process. This managed process invokes C++/CLI code which invokes some native C++ static lib code, wherein SEH exceptions may be thrown (e.g. the occasional access violation). C# WinForms -> C++/CLI DLL -> Static C++ Lib -> ACCESS VIOLATION Our policy is to produce mini dumps for all SEH exceptions (caught & uncaught) and then translate them to C++ exceptions to be handled by application code. This works for purely native processes just fine; but when the application is a C# application - not so much. The only way I see to produce dumps from SEH exceptions in a C# process is to not catch them - and then, as unhandled exceptions, use the Application.ThreadException handler to create a mini dump. The alternative is to let the CLR translate the SEH exception into a .Net exception and catch it (e.g. System.AccessViolationException) - but that would mean no dump is created, and information is lost (stack trace information in Exception isn't as rich as the mini dump). So how can I handle SEH exceptions by both creating a minidump and translating the exception into a .Net exception so that my application may try to recover?

  Read the article

• Replacing specific HTML tags using Regex

  - by matthewpe

  Alright, an easy one for you guys. We are using ActiveReport's RichTextBox to display some random bits of HTML code. The HTML tags supported by ActiveReport can be found here : http://www.datadynamics.com/Help/ARNET3/ar3conSupportedHtmlTagsInRichText.html An example of what I want to do is replace any match of <div style="text-align:*</div> by <p style=\"text-align:*</p> in order to use a supported tag for text-alignment. I have found the following regex expression to find the correct match in my html input: <div style=\"text-align:(.*?)</div> However, I can't find a way to keep the previous text contained in the tags after my replacement. Any clue? Is it me or Regex are generally a PITA? :) private static readonly IDictionary<string, string> _replaceMap = new Dictionary<string, string> { {"<div style=\"text-align:(.*?)</div>", "<p style=\"text-align:(.*?)</p>"} }; public static string FormatHtml(string html) { foreach(var pair in _replaceMap) { html = Regex.Replace(html, pair.Key, pair.Value); } return html; } Thanks!

  Read the article

• Webservice returning 403 error

  - by user48408

  I'm wondering whether I'm receiving the 403 errors because there are too many attempted connections being made to the webservice. If this is the case how do I get around it? I've tried creating a new instance of InternalWebService each time and disposing of the old one but I get the same problem. I've disabled the firewall and the webservice is located locally at the moment. I beginning to think it may be a problem with the credentials but the control tree is populated via the webservice at some stage. If I browse to the webmethods in my browser I can run them all. I return an instance of the webservice from my login handler loginsession.cs: static LoginSession() { ... g_NavigatorWebService = new InternalWebService(); g_NavigatorWebService.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; ... } public static InternalWebService NavigatorWebService { get { return g_NavigatorWebService; } } I have a tree view control which uses the webservice to populate itself. IncidentTreeViewControl.cs: public IncidentTreeView() { InitializeComponent(); m_WebService = LoginSession.NavigatorWebService; ... } public void Populate() { m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByClientComplete), null); m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByDepartment(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByDepartmentComplete), null); ... } private void IncidentSummaryByClientComplete(IAsyncResult ar) { MyTypedDataSet data = m_WebService.EndGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(ar); //403 ..cont... } I'm getting the 403 on the last line.

  Read the article

• Posting source code in blogger- fails with C# containers

  - by Lirik

  I tried the solutions that are posted in this related SO question and for the most part the code snippets are working, but there are some cases that are still getting garbled by Blogger when it publishes the blog. In particular, declaring generic containers seems to be most troublesome. Please see the code examples on my blog and in particular the section where I define the dictionary (http://mlai-lirik.blogspot.com/). I want to display this: static Dictionary<int, List<Delegate>> _delegate = new Dictionary<int,List<Delegate>>(); But blogger publishes this: static Dictionary<int, list=""><delegate>> _delegate = new Dictionary<int, list=""><delegate>>(); And it caps the end of my code section with this: </delegate></delegate></int,></delegate></int,> Apparently blogger thinks that the <int and <delegate> portion of the dictionary are some sort of HTML tags and it automatically attempts to close them at the end of the code snippet. Does anybody know how to get around this problem?

  Read the article

• InvalidCastException in DataGridView

  - by Max Yaffe

  (Using VS 2010 Beta 2 - .Net 4.0 B2 Rel) I have a class, MyTable, derived from BindingList where S is a struct. S is made up of several other structs, for example: public class MyTable<S>:BindingList<S> where S: struct { ... } public struct MyStruct { public MyReal r1; public MyReal r2; public MyReal R1 {get{...} set{...}} public MyReal R2 {get{...} set{...}} ... } public struct MyReal { private Double d; private void InitFromString(string) {this.d = ...;} public MyReal(Double d) { this.d = d;} public MyReal(string val) { this.d = default(Double); InitFromString(val);} public override string ToString() { return this.real.ToString();} public static explicit operator MyReal(string s) { return new MyReal(s);} public static implicit operator String(MyReal r) { return r.ToString();} ... } OK, I use the MyTable as a binding source for a DataGridView. I can load the data grid easily using InitFromString on individual fields in MyStruct. The problem comes when I try to edit a value in a cell of the DataGridView. Going to the first row, first column, I change the value of the existing number. It gives an exception blizzard, the first line of which says: System.FormatException: Invalid cast from 'System.String' to 'MyReal' I've looked at the casting discussions and reference books but don't see any obvious problems. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Call Init from XUL after Page Loads (Firefox add-on)

  - by mattyboy123

  Hi all, I've been working on some code in js/html and it works great. I'm now trying to package it into an add-on for Firefox, and having some issues getting the XUL document correct. PLAIN OLD HTML/JS In my html test file between the <head></head> I have: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/MyCode.js"></script> At the end of the test file before the </body> I have: <script type="text/javascript">MyCode.Static.Init();</script> FIREFOX ADD-ON: OVERLAY.XUL In an overlay.xul file in the extension package I have : <?xml version="1.0"?> <overlay id="mycode" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://mycode/content/MyCode.js"></script> <script> window.addEventListener("load", function () { gBrowser.addEventListener("load",MyCode.Static.Init,true); }, false); </script> </overlay> This does not seem to enter the method, but then again I'm not even sure if I've got the listeners firing properly. Would this be the correct way to duplicate what I was doing in plain old html/js ?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >