Search Results

Search found 25727 results on 1030 pages for 'solution'.

Page 236/1030 | < Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >

  • I have a bunch of template parameters that I want to hide from my users. How can I do this?

    - by Alex
    I have a superclass which is defined in terms of a few internal types it uses. Subclassing is performed as so: template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> class Super { ... } class Sub : Super <interalTypeClass1, interalTypeClass2> { ... } But when I want to write a function that takes a pointer to the superclass, this happens : template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> void function(Super<InternalType1, InternalType2>* in) { ... } The user really shouldn't know anything about the inside classes, and should really just concern himself with the use of the function. Some of these template lists become very very large, and expecting the user to pass them every time is wasteful, in my opinion. Any suggestions? EDIT: The function needs to know the internal types in use, so unless there is a way to access template types at compile time, I think there is no solution? Potential solution: Have each class do the following: #define SubTemplateArgs <SubTypeName, SubInternalType1, SubInternalType2> ?

    Read the article

  • Calculating collission for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

    - by Robert Vella
    Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmitically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collission problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

    Read the article

  • Mixing stored procedures and ORM

    - by Jason
    The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • C++ Iterator Pipelining Designs

    - by Kirakun
    Suppose we want to apply a series of transformations, int f1(int), int f2(int), int f3(int), to a list of objects. A naive way would be SourceContainer source; TempContainer1 temp1; transform(source.begin(), source.end(), back_inserter(temp1), f1); TempContainer2 temp2; transform(temp1.begin(), temp1.end(), back_inserter(temp2), f2); TargetContainer target; transform(temp2.begin(), temp2.end(), back_inserter(target), f3); This first solution is not optimal because of the extra space requirement with temp1 and temp2. So, let's get smarter with this: int f123(int n) { return f3(f2(f1(n))); } ... SourceContainer source; TargetContainer target; transform(source.begin(), source.end(), back_inserter(target), f123); This second solution is much better because not only the code is simpler but more importantly there is less space requirement without the intermediate calculations. However, the composition f123 must be determined at compile time and thus is fixed at run time. How would I try to do this efficiently if the composition is to be determined at run time? For example, if this code was in a RPC service and the actual composition--which can be any permutation of f1, f2, and f3--is based on arguments from the RPC call.

    Read the article

  • lists searches in SYB or uniplate haskell

    - by Chris
    I have been using uniplate and SYB and I am trying to transform a list For instance type Tree = [DataA] data DataA = DataA1 [DataB] | DataA2 String | DataA3 String [DataA] deriving Show data DataB = DataB1 [DataA] | DataB2 String | DataB3 String [DataB] deriving Show For instance, I would like to traverse my tree and append a value to all [DataB] So my first thought was to do this: changeDataB:: Tree -> Tree changeDataB = everywhere(mkT changeDataB') chanegDataB'::[DataB] -> [DataB] changeDataB' <add changes here> or if I was using uniplate changeDataB:: Tree -> Tree changeDataB = transformBi changeDataB' chanegDataB'::[DataB] -> [DataB] changeDataB' <add changes here> The problem is that I only want to search on the full list. Doing either of these searches will cause a search on the full list and all of the sub-lists (including the empty list) The other problem is that a value in [DataB] may generate a [DataB], so I don't know if this is the same kind of solution as not searching chars in a string. I could pattern match on DataA1 and DataB3, but in my real application there are a bunch of [DataB]. Pattern matching on the parents would be extensive. The other thought that I had was to create a data DataBs = [DataB] and use that to transform on. That seems kind of lame, there must be a better solution.

    Read the article

  • Can Drupal Taxonomy module be used to categorize court records and briefs?

    - by DKinzer
    I'm currently working on project that involves moving a database of documents for court records and briefs over to a Drupal environment. One of the problems that we are faced with is how to index these documents. In our court district, records and briefs all have a docket number which is assigned to a case. The interesting thing is that when multiple cases merge the docket numbers associated to the case become synonymous: Case 1, documents have Doceket No. A Case 2, documents have Docket No. B If case Cases 1 and Case 2 merge, then Docket No. A = Docket No. B My first inclination is to create Docket Vocabulary and have the terms of this Taxonomy be the docket numbers. I am hoping to take advantage of the fact that terms can be synonymous. I understand that there are several functions in the Taxonomy module that I may be able to take advantage, of including: taxonomy_get_synonyms taxonomy_get_related But I'm having problems convincing my collegues that this is the way to go, and frankly I'm not certain it's the right solution either. If anyone has had a similar issue and can offer some guidance as to how to move forward, I would greatly appreciate it. Thanks! D I've asked a related question (which I would also need to answer in order to move forward with this solution): http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2656247/can-drupal-terms-in-different-taxonomies-be-synonymous

    Read the article

  • JavaScript: Is there a better way to retain your array but efficiently concat or replace items?

    - by Michael Mikowski
    I am looking for the best way to replace or add to elements of an array without deleting the original reference. Here is the set up: var a = [], b = [], c, i, obj; for ( i = 0; i < 100000; i++ ) { a[ i ] = i; b[ i ] = 10000 - i; } obj.data_list = a; Now we want to concatenate b INTO a without changing the reference to a, since it is used in obj.data_list. Here is one method: for ( i = 0; i < b.length; i++ ) { a.push( b[ i ] ); } This seems to be a somewhat terser and 8x (on V8) faster method: a.splice.apply( a, [ a.length, 0 ].concat( b ) ); I have found this useful when iterating over an "in-place" array and don't want to touch the elements as I go (a good practice). I start a new array (let's call it keep_list) with the initial arguments and then add the elements I wish to retain. Finally I use this apply method to quickly replace the truncated array: var keep_list = [ 0, 0 ]; for ( i = 0; i < a.length; i++ ){ if ( some_condition ){ keep_list.push( a[ i ] ); } // truncate array a.length = 0; // And replace contents a.splice.apply( a, keep_list ); There are a few problems with this solution: there is a max call stack size limit of around 50k on V8 I have not tested on other JS engines yet. This solution is a bit cryptic Has anyone found a better way?

    Read the article

  • Click at specified client area

    - by VixinG
    Click doesn't work - I don't know why and can't find a solution :( ie. Click(150,215) should move mouse to the client area and click there. [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern bool ScreenToClient(IntPtr hWnd, ref Point lpPoint); [DllImport("user32", SetLastError = true)] private static extern int SetCursorPos(int x, int y); static void MouseMove(int x, int y) { Point p = new Point(x * -1, y * -1); ScreenToClient(hWnd, ref p); p = new Point(p.X * -1, p.Y * -1); SetCursorPos(p.X, p.Y); } static void Click(int x, int y) { MouseMove(x, y); SendMessage(hWnd, WM_LBUTTONDOWN, (IntPtr)0x1, new IntPtr(y * 0x10000 + x)); SendMessage(hWnd, WM_LBUTTONUP, (IntPtr)0x1, new IntPtr(y * 0x10000 + x)); } Edit: Of course I can use mouse_event for that, but I would like to see a solution for SendMessage()... [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern void mouse_event(int dwFlags, int dx, int dy, int dwData, int dwExtraInfo); const int LEFTDOWN = 0x00000002; const int LEFTUP = 0x00000004; static void Click(int x, int y) { MouseMove(x, y); mouse_event((int)(LEFTDOWN), 0, 0, 0, 0); mouse_event((int)(LEFTUP), 0, 0, 0, 0); }

    Read the article

  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

    Read the article

  • Where to start to create an HTML website with 2 tables read from csv files using anything but php

    - by CodingIsAwesome
    I want to design a website which displays on loading two tables each with it's respective data from a csv file. Then every minute the website automatically refreshes. This problem seems so simple! But yet the solution eludes me. All of the files will be contained in 1 directory, not on a server but on a local machine. Such as sitting on the desktop. I understand if I use javascript I have to use ADO, and I'm still trying to work out how to use ASP. I am new with both languages. So far the only restriction is that I can't use PHP. So the jist so far as I can think right now is: 1. read the file 2. place the file into an array by splitting at the commas 3. write the array into td's ????? 4. then print all this out into a div ???? I have googled my heart out and can't seem to find what I'm looking for. or even piece together what I'm looking for. Everything with javascript and ADO's leads me to dead ends, I can't find anything on ASP that is helpful. Could someone please write up some sample code for a resource? Or have a better solution?

    Read the article

  • How to format JSON Date?

    - by Mark Struzinski
    I'm taking my first crack at AJAX with jQuery. I'm getting my data onto my page, but I'm having some trouble with the JSON that is returned for Date data types. Basically, I'm getting a string back that looks like this: /Date(1224043200000)/ From a total newbie at JSON - How do I format this to a short date format? Should this be handled somewhere in the jQuery code? I've tried the jQuery.UI.datepicker plugin using $.datepicker.formatDate() wiuth no success. FYI: Here's the solution I came up with using a combination of the answers here: function getMismatch(id) { $.getJSON("Main.aspx?Callback=GetMismatch", { MismatchId: id }, function(result) { $("#AuthMerchId").text(result.AuthorizationMerchantId); $("#SttlMerchId").text(result.SettlementMerchantId); $("#CreateDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.AppendDts))); $("#ExpireDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.ExpiresDts))); $("#LastUpdate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.LastUpdateDts))); $("#LastUpdatedBy").text(result.LastUpdateNt); $("#ProcessIn").text(result.ProcessIn); } ); return false; } function formatJSONDate(jsonDate){ var newDate = dateFormat(jsonDate, "mm/dd/yyyy"); return newDate; } This solution got my object from the callback method and displayed the dates on the page properly using the date format library.

    Read the article

  • MySQL: Limit rows linked to each joined row

    - by SolidSnakeGTI
    Hello, Specifications: MySQL 4.1+ I've certain situation that requires certain result set from MySQL query, let's see the current query first & then ask my question: SELECT thread.dateline AS tdateline, post.dateline AS pdateline, MIN(post.dateline) FROM thread AS thread LEFT JOIN post AS post ON(thread.threadid = post.threadid) LEFT JOIN forum AS forum ON(thread.forumid = forum.forumid) WHERE post.postid != thread.firstpostid AND thread.open = 1 AND thread.visible = 1 AND thread.replycount >= 1 AND post.visible = 1 AND (forum.options & 1) AND (forum.options & 2) AND (forum.options & 4) AND forum.forumid IN(1,2,3) GROUP BY post.threadid ORDER BY tdateline DESC, pdateline ASC As you can see, mainly I need to select dateline of threads from 'thread' table, in addition to dateline of the second post of each thread, that's all under the conditions you see in the WHERE CLAUSE. Since each thread has many posts, and I need only one result per thread, I've used GROUP BY CLAUSE for that purpose. This query will return only one post's dateline with it's related unique thread. My questions are: How to limit returned threads per each forum!? Suppose I need only 5 threads -as a maximum- to be returned for each forum declared in the WHERE CLAUSE 'forum.forumid IN(1,2,3)', how can this be achieved. Is there any recommendations for optimizing this query (of course after solving the first point)? Notes: I prefer not to use sub-queries, but if it's the only solution available I'll accept it. Double queries not recommended. I'm sure there's a smart solution for this situation. Appreciated advice in advance :)

    Read the article

  • SQL return ORDER BY result as an array

    - by EarthMind
    Is it possible to return groups as an associative array? I'd like to know if a pure SQL solution is possible. Note that I release that I could be making things more complex unnecessarily but this is mainly to give me an idea of the power of SQL. My problem: I have a list of words in the database that should be sorted alphabetically and grouped into separate groups according to the first letter of the word. For example: ape broom coconut banana apple should be returned as array( 'a' => 'ape', 'apple', 'b' => 'banana', 'broom', 'c' => 'coconut' ) so I can easily created sorted lists by first letter (i.e. clicking "A" only shows words starting with a, "B" with b, etc. This should make it easier for me to load everything in one query and make the sorted list JavaScript based, i.e. without having to reload the page (or use AJAX). Side notes: I'm using PostgreSQL but a solution for MySQL would be fine too so I can try to port it to PostgreSQL. Scripting language is PHP.

    Read the article

  • While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

    - by Mahn
    I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate with string primary key and relationships

    - by John_
    I've have just been stumped with this problem for an hour and I annoyingly found the problem eventually. THE CIRCUMSTANCES I have a table which users a string as a primary key, this table has various many to one and many to many relationships all off this primary key. When searching for multiple items from the table all relationships were brought back. However whenever I tried to get the object by the primary key (string) it was not bringing back any relationships, they were always set to 0. THE PARTIAL SOLUTION So I looked into my logs to see what the SQL was doing and that was returning the correct results. So I tried various things in all sorts of random ways and eventually worked out it was. The case of the string being passed into the get method was not EXACTLY the same case as it was in the database, so when it tried to match up the relationship items with the main entity it was finding nothing (Or at least NHIbernate wasn't because as I stated above the SQL was actually returning the correct results) THE REAL SOLUTION Has anyone else come across this? If so how do you tell NHibernate to ignore case when matching SQL results to the entity? It is silly because it worked perfectly well before now all of a sudden it has started to pay attention to the case of the string.

    Read the article

  • Remove file from history completely

    - by Iain
    A colleague has done a few things I told them not to do: forked the origin repo online cloned the fork, added a file that shouldn't have been added to that local repo pushed this to their fork I've then: merged the changes from the fork and found the file I want to remove this from: my local repo the fork their local repo I have a solution for removing something from the history, taken from Remove file from git repository (history). What I need to know is, should my colleague also go through this, and will a subsequent push remove all info from the fork? (I'd like an alternative to just destroying the fork, as I'm not sure my colleague will do this) SOLUTION: This is the shortest way to get rid of the files: check .git/packed-refs - my problem was that I had there a refs/remotes/origin/master line for a remote repository, delete it, otherwise git won't remove those files (optional) git verify-pack -v .git/objects/pack/#{pack-name}.idx | sort -k 3 -n | tail -5 - to check for the largest files (optional) git rev-list --objects --all | grep a0d770a97ff0fac0be1d777b32cc67fe69eb9a98 - to check what files those are git filter-branch --index-filter 'git rm --cached --ignore-unmatch file_names' - to remove the file from all revisions rm -rf .git/refs/original/ - to remove git's backup git reflog expire --all --expire='0 days' - to expire all the loose objects (optional) git fsck --full --unreachable - to check if there are any loose objects git repack -A -d - repacking the pack git prune - to finally remove those objects

    Read the article

  • Undefined Variable? But I defined it...

    - by Rob
    Well before anyone claims that theres a duplicate question... (I've noticed that people who can't answer the question tend to run and look for a duplicate, and then report it.) Here is the duplicate you are looking for: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2481382/php-claims-my-defined-variable-is-undefined However, this isn't quite a duplicate. It gives me a solution, but I'm not really looking for this particular solution. Here is my problem: Notice: Undefined variable: custom Now here is my code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); // Request the visitor's headers. $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; //This is what the header should be. foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { $custom .= "$header: $value"; } Clearly, $custom is defined. According to the other question, it's a global and should be marked as one. But how is it a global? And how can I make it a (non-global)? The script works fine, it still displays what its supposed to and acts correctly, but when I turn on error messages, it simply outputs that notice as well. I suppose its not currently necessary to fix it, but I'd like to anyway, as well as know why its doing this.

    Read the article

  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

    Read the article

  • Rate my C# code (~300 SLOC) using GDI+/Backgroundworker

    - by sebastianlarsson
    Hi, I want to get some feedback on my code! Below is some background info. I am taking a pre-certification course in C# (Sweden, 15 ECTS). The focus of the course is theoretical and only limited practical work. I dont find the assignments very hard at all to tell you the truth, but since I only have very limited work experience as a developer (I have worked 15h/week at Ericsson since November) I think I would benefit from having the certificate (70-536 and more probably). I am currently reading Martin Fowler's "Refactoring: Improving the design of existing code" and I tried to apply his techniques to my latest lab in the course. I have been on the lookout for a website which have the idea of providing feedback on code, but so far I have yet to discover any. Please take a look on my code and tell me what you think. It is only roughly 300 lines of code divided into a couple of classes. GDI+, backgroundworker and user controls are what the lab is about. I reckon you may have to spend as little as a couple of minutes on looking on the solution. Link to solution: http://www.filefactory.com/file/b18h7d5/n/Lab4_Lab5_SebastianLarsson.zip Regards and thank you, Sebastian

    Read the article

  • efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

    - by user168715
    The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

    Read the article

  • How to drag only one image with SDK Iphone

    - by loka
    Hi! I want to create a little app that takes two images and i want to make only the image over draggable. After research, i found this solution : -(void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [[ event allTouches] anyObject]; image.alpha = 0.7; if([touch view] == image){ CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:self.view]; image.center = location; } It works but the problem is that the image is draggable from its center and i don't want that. So i found another solution : - (void) touchesBegan:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { // Retrieve the touch point CGPoint pt = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:self.view]; startLocation = pt; [[self view] bringSubviewToFront:self.view]; } - (void) touchesMoved:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { // Move relative to the original touch point CGPoint pt = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:self.view]; frame = [self.view frame]; frame.origin.x += pt.x - startLocation.x; frame.origin.y += pt.y - startLocation.y; [self.view setFrame:frame]; } It works very well but when i add another image, all the images of the view are draggable at the same time.I'm a beginner with the iphone programmation and i have no idea of how i can only make the image over draggable. Thank you in advance for your help!!

    Read the article

  • Using jQuery with form to eliminate spam

    - by Thierry-Dimitri Roy
    I have put a form on a web page where the user can send us data. Unfortunately, the webmaster does get a lot of spam through this form and the valid submissions gets buried. I have used captcha to bypass this problem. But I think that everyone would agree that captcha is a big annoyance to users. I switched to another solution: now the URL of the submit form points to null: <form id="sendDataForm" action="/null" method="post"> ... </form> And I bypass the form submission using jQuery excellent form plugin: $('#sendDataForm').ajaxForm({ url: '/ajax-data/' }); Since then, no spam has reached the webmaster, and valid comments gets through. The only drawbacks is that users without javascript cannot send us the form. But since this is on top of a javascript web application, we can safely assume that these are not valid users. My question is: in a world where 99% of users has javascript enabled (and a mechanism for those user could be build that uses captcha), why is this solution not more used? What drawback am I not seeing?

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2010 is not allowing me to debug my code

    - by Tejs
    So, this interesting issue has been plaguing me for the past couple of hours. Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate no longer attaches the debugger and lets me debug my code. If I use the built in development server, then everything works fine. If I switch to Use Local IIS Web Server (http://localhost/), then all it does it attach to w3wp.exe, but no DLLs or PDBs are loaded for anything. I can go to Debug Windows Modules, and literally nothing is loaded in this window. Conversely, when using the built in development server, the Modules window displays all the DLLs and shows that the symbols for my DLLs have been loaded. Something is obviously amiss. The VS installation is completely bone stock. In IIS, my website is configured with ASP.NET 2.0 (because no 3.5 exists to select from the drop down), along with read / log visits / index this resource options checked on the "Home Directory" tab. Some of my failed ideas: 1) If I attach to process on the iexplore.exe instance where the website is displayed, it loads Internet Explorer's DLLs, but not mine. 2) I've restarted the computer multiple times 3) I've invoked devenv.exe /resetuserdata once 4) I've confirmed that every project is indeed set to debug and not release. 5) Deleted all \bin contents and rebuilt the solution. 6) Deleted entire solution and repulled from Source Control. Can someone tell me what is wrong with this thing? I'm going to have an aneurism from the headache this is causing me.

    Read the article

  • Are workflows good for web service business logic?

    - by JL
    I have a series of complex web services that are getting used in my SOA application. I am generally happy with the overall design of the application, but as the complexity grows, I was wondering if Windows Workflow might be the way to go. My motivations for this are that you can get a graphic representation of the applications functionality, so it would be easier to maintain the code by its business function, rather than what I have now ( a standard 3 tier class library structure). My concerns are: I would be inducing an abstraction in my code, and I don't want to spend time having to deal with possible WF quirks or bugs. I've never worked with WF, is it a solid technology? I don't want to hit any WF limitations that prevent me from developing my solution. Is a WF even the right solution for the task? Simply put I am considering writing my next web service in this app to call a WF, and in this work flow manage the tasks the web service needs to carry out. I think it will be much neater and easier to maintain than a regular c# class library (maintainable by namespaces, classes ). Do you think this is the right thing to do? I'm hoping for positive feedback on WF (.net 4), but brutal honestly at the end of the day would help more. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Basic Application Organization + Publishing (.NET 4.0)

    - by keynesiancross
    Hi all, I'm trying to figure out the best way to keep my program organized. Currently I have many class files in one project file, but some of these classes do things that are very different, and some I would like to expose to other applications in the future. One thought I had to organizing my application was to create multiple project files, with one "Main" project, which would interact with all the other projects and their relevant classes as needed. Does this make sense? I was wondering if anyone had any suggestions in regards to using multiple project files in one solution (and how do you create something like this?), and if it makes sense to have multiple namespaces in one solution... Cheers ----Edit Below---- Sorry, my fault. Currently my program is all in one console project. Within this project I have several classes, some of which basically launch a BackgroundWorker and run an endless loop pulling data. The BackgroundWorker then passes this data back to the main business logic as needed. I'm hoping to seperate this data pull material (including the background worker material) into one project file, and the rest of the business logic into another project file. The projects will have to pass objects between eachother though (the data to the main business logic, and the business logic will pass startup parameteres to the dataPull project)... Hopefully this adds a bit more detail.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >